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Exam Code: A4040-120
Exam Name: Assessment: Associate: IBM i 7.1 Administration
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Exam Code: P2050-003
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Exam Code: M2020-624
Exam Name: IBM Risk Analytics for Governance Risk and Compliance Sales Mastery Test v1
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NO.1 What is NOT a feature of WebSphere Commerce contracts.?
A. Customer organization modeling.
B. Custom Catalog
C. Product pricing
D. Business Policies
Answer: A

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NO.2 Gift Center can provide benefits to retailers. Which one of the following statement is
NOT a benefit of
using Gift Center?
A. Improve customer satisfaction.
B. Increase customer reach.
C. Increase sales volume.
D. Give more discounts to customers.
Answer: D

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NO.3 How do you check if Gift Center is already enabled at a WebSphere Commerce
installation?
A. Run versionInfo.sh
B. Check database table SITE
C. Check properties/version folder
D. Check xml/config folder
Answer: C

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Exam Code: C2020-012
Exam Name: IBM SPSS Data Analysis for Business Partners v2
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Exam Code: C4040-226
Exam Name: Power Systems with POWER7 and IBM i Technical Sales Skills -v2
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NO.1 A POWER7+system managed by IBM i is hosting an IBM i client that requires 24 virtual disks.
What is the minimum host configuration to support the client storage?
A. 2 vSCSIcontrollers 2 Network Server Descriptions
B. 1 vSCSIcontroller 1 Network Server Description
C. 3 vSCSIcontrollers 3 Network Server Descriptions
D. 4 vSCSI controllers 2 Network Server Descriptions
Answer: A

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NO.2 A customer would like to share a tape library among multiple partitions to run backups on a
nightly basis, but doesn't have the budget for a fibre switch or dedicated fibre adapters. They need
to be able to have their single fibre adapter available to each partition on a scheduled basis.
What product or feature can help accommodate this requirement?
A. iASP
B. BRMS
C. Media and Storage Extensions
D. Hardware Management Console
Answer: D

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NO.3 A customer has a large quantity of LTO-2 media.
The customer would like to be able to read that media, while at the same time acquiring a tape
library which supports hardware encryption.
Which LTO format and attachment method supports these requirements?
A. SAS-attached LTO-5
B. USB-attached LTO-6
C. SCSI-attached LTO-3
D. Fibre-attached LTO-4
Answer: D

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NO.4 A customer with a POWERS 520 and a FC #0595 expansion unit wants to upgrade to a
POWER7+720. The customer has TS2900 SCSI-attached tape drive and 20 70GB disk units.
Which elements of the original system can be used in the new system?
A. The TS2900 can be converted to SAS connectivity.
B. The memory DIMMS, if larger than 4GB, can be directly installed.
C. The EC #0595 expansion unit can be converted from HSL-2 to 12X.
D. The 70GB drive data can be migrated using Pack Utilities Maintenance Program in SST.
Answer: A

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NO.5 A customer with a POWERS 520 running IBM i is debating consolidating to a POWER7+770
that is currently only running AIX, or replacing the POWERS with a POWER7+720. The budget is
limited, and the customer SWMA contract is expired.
Which option is the most economical?
A. Transfer the IBM i license to the POWER7+770
B. Purchase a POWER7+ 720 and a new IBM i license
C. Purchase a new IBM i license for the POWER7+ 770
D. Purchase a POWER7+ 720 and transfer the IBM i license
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP2-B106
Exam Name: HP Web Jetadmin Printer Fleet Management - Technical Exam
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Exam Code: HP2-Z28
Exam Name: Selling HP Enterprise Networking Solutions and Services
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Exam Code: HP2-E60
Exam Name: Selling HP Cloud, Converged Systems and Services
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NO.1 What is getbulk?
A. an enhanced version of SNMPvl trap
B. a method of retrieving large blocks of MIB data
C. a method of notification that the trap has been received
D. a security feature within firmware
Answer: B

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Reference:http://www.manageengine.com/network-monitoring/what-is-snmp.html(basic
commands of snmp, third bullet)

NO.2 What does HP Web jetadmin use to upgrade device firmware?
A. batch updates only
B. single and batch updates
C. scheduled downgrade
D. basic downgrade
Answer: B

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Reference:http://h10010.www1.hp.com/wwpc/pscmisc/vac/us/product_pdfs/webdown.pdf

NO.3 You find that devices on remote networks cannot be discovered. What can cause this?
A. The routers might be blocking SNMP queries.
B. The local area network is corrupt.
C. The host-based systems are creating interference.
D. The server does not have a large enough processor.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which HP solution is available at no charge for detailed printer hardware analysis?
A. OpenView
B. Insight Manager
C. HPWebJetadmin
D. MarkVision
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which features in a pre-configured driver can be locked? (Select two.)
A. orientation
B. print quality
C. duplex/simplex
D. job storage with private pin
E. printing in grayscale
Answer: C,E

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Reference:http://h10032.www1.hp.com/ctg/Manual/c02029521.pdf(page 10)

NO.6 Which data structure contains a database of objects?
A. SNMP GETNEXT
B. Printer MIB
C. SNMP SET
D. Inform
Answer: B

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Reference:http://www.planex.net/pdf/print/PCI_Mini-103MN_manual_E_V1.pdf(page 37)

NO.7 Two types of network traffic occur in all networks, general traffic and directed traffic. Which
discovery method creates general traffic on the network and is blocked by most routers?
A. Broadcast Discovery
B. IP Range Discovery
C. Specified Address Discovery
D. Passive SLP
Answer: A

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Reference:http://h10032.www1.hp.com/ctg/Manual/c01840707.pdf(page 10)

NO.8 What does Driver Pre-Configuration allow administrators to do?
A. pre-configure printer drivers for multiple printers before deployment
B. pre-configure printer drivers for multiple printers after deployment
C. reconfigure embedded device settings on multiple printers before deployment
D. reconfigure printer drivers for multiple printers after deployment
Answer: A

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Reference:http://www.t35.physik.tu-muenchen.de/Rechnerdoku/HP4700_Driver_Configuration.pdf

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Exam Name: Selling HP Enterprise Server Solutions and Services
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Exam Code: HP2-H31
Exam Name: Technical Essentials of HP Workstations - Exam
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NO.1 Which HP vision statements are reflected in Project Odyssey? (Select two.)
A. To support emerging cloud and massive-scale environments for high-performance computing
B. To boost flexibility and availability of x86 systems with Integrity nPars technology to expand the
mission-critical experience across UNIX and x86-based architectures
C. To increase compute density to enable workload provisioning for big data
D. To accelerate hyperscale workloads by using the lowest-power CPUs across the x86 ecosystem
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 What is a key characteristic of the HP ProLiant e-Series server?
A. Flexible networking options
B. Low-power CPU
C. Intelligent power discovery
D. Right-sized I/O bandwidth
Answer: D

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Reference:http://h17007.www1.hp.com/docs/justrightit/ProLiant%20Gen8%20Servers%20Position
ing%20Guide%204AA4-0118ENW.pdf(page 8, see figure 1)

NO.3 What value does Insight Online, part of HP's Proactive Insight Experience, provide to
customers with HP ProLiant servers?
A. Automation of routine operational tasks
B. Access to IT infrastructure anytime, anywhere via a personalized dashboard
C. Less downtime
D. Faster reactive service
Answer: B

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NO.4 What does HP OneView use to automate the configuration of network resources?
A. RESTfulAPI
B. PuTTY
C. Network GUI
D. Templates
Answer: D

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Reference:http://h20195.www2.hp.com/v2 /GetPDF.aspx%2F4AA4-8543ENW.pdf

NO.5 What are three benefits that Virtual Connect provides in the data center? (Select three.)
A. automatic assignment of server IDs
B. rapid reassignment of workloads
C. optimization of system performance
D. rapid deployment of servers
E. reduced power distribution
F. replace servers
Answer: B,D,F

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Reference:http://www.interop.com/lasvegas/ 2011 /presentations/free/ 201-william-dicke.pdf(slide
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6. Which CloudSystem service includes usage metering?
A. Expansion Kit Service
B. Enablement Service
C. Starter Kit Service
D. Installation Service
Answer: B

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CLOUDF Exam Cost, CLOUDF Exam Questions

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NO.1 What is the main challenge for providers as moving to the Cloud causes changes in relation
to their customers?
A. Cloud providers may be reluctant to ask for more money to deliver their products and services.
B. Cloud providers need to certify their solutions.
C. Providers will have to understand their customers business and redefine SLA's for Cloud
environments.
D. Products are not delivered on premise but through the Cloud.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Why may Service levels vary for Hybrid Clouds?
A. Hybrid Clouds are constantly shifting from Public to Private Clouds.
B. Hybrid Clouds are less reliable than Public Clouds.
C. Hybrid Clouds are less reliable than Private Clouds.
D. SLAs of Hybrid Clouds contain a mix of Public and Private Cloud SLAs.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Providing a user access to an application in the Cloud requires several steps. In which step
are the user's permissions determined?
A. during the auditing phase
B. during the authentication phase
C. during the authorization phase
D. during the verification phase
Answer: C

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NO.4 Restricting access to systems/applications based on time is part of which Triple-A security
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A. Accounting
B. Application
C. Authentication
D. Authorization
Answer: D

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NO.5 Why became the Ethernet standard popular for Local Area Networks (LANs)?
A. because the Ethernet standard was fastest
B. because the Ethernet standard was released for general use
C. because the Ethernet standard was suitable for mainframes
D. because the Ethernet standard was used by the largest vendor
Answer: B

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NO.6 The National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) states there are 'five essential
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What is an example of a service model?
A. Measured service
B. On-demand self-service
C. Resource pooling
D. Software as a Service
Answer: D

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NO.7 Why does a VPN offer more mobility to employees?
A. It allows employees to work from locations other than their office.
B. It offers more security at home than at the office.
C. It offers a higher network speed at home than at the office.
D. It does not require a network connection.
Answer: A

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NO.8 How can moving to Cloud computing increase user satisfaction?
A. by accomplishing quick and efficient release of applications
B. by increasing the access to information available on the Internet
C. by moving internal systems with performance problems to the Cloud
D. by passing problems with applications to the Cloud provider
Answer: A

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NO.1 What is a threat?
A. An uncertain event that could have a negative impact on objectives
B. An uncertain event that could have a favourable impact on objectives
C. An event that has occurred resulting in a negative impact on objectives
D. An event that has occurred resulting in a favourable impact on objectives
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which is a primary step within the 'M_o_R process'?
A. Manage
B. Assess
C. Embed
D. Control
Answer: B

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7. Which is a goal of the 'assess - evaluate' step?
A. Evaluate the impact, probability and how soon risks might occur
B. Calculate the net effect of risks facing the activity
C. Assess and evaluate the effectiveness of procedures for managing risks
D. Evaluate the net cost of planned risk responses
Answer: B

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8. Which is a responsibility of the M_o_R manager role?
A. Define risk tolerance thresholds
B. Prepares risk workshop materials
C. Defines how much risk should be taken
D. Ensures a risk review process is in operation
Answer: D

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9. Which is a responsibility of the team?
A. Ensure adequate resources are available to implement the risk management strategy
B. Run risk management workshops
C. Develop the risk improvement plan
D. Identify and escalate risks
Answer: D

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10. What is represented graphically on a 'summary risk profile'?
A. Proximity of the identified risks
B. Information found in the risk register
C. Summary of the actions required to respond to the risks in the activity
D. Risk capacity for the activity
Answer: B

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11. Which is a use of a risk management maturity model?
A. Enabling organizations to benchmark their current risk management capability
B. Checking the state of current risk management
C. Identifying areas where application of risk management can be improved
D. Carrying out an enterprise wide assessment
Answer: A

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12. Identify the missing words in the following sentence. The primary outcome of the [ ? ]
principle is that organizations learn from their mistakes.
A. achieves measurable value
B. provides clear guidance
C. creates a supportive culture
D. facilitates continual improvement
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which BEST describes an area of uncertainty at the programme perspective?
A. Schedule of business products to time and cost
B. Availability of skills to deliver services to new and existing customers
C. Implementing new business practices across organizational boundaries
D. Legislation that affects core business activities
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which describes the 'reduce a threat' risk response option?
A. Perform an action to minimise the impact and/or probability of the risk
B. Remove the cause of the threat
C. Obtain an insurance policy to cover the impact should the risk occur
D. Partake in a pain/gain contract with another party for the specified risk
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which is a method for obtaining senior management commitment and support for
understanding and managing risk?
A. Developing management of risk guidance handbooks and training materials
B. Ensuring the risk management function has a direct reporting line to a senior executive
C. Escalating risks from the programme, project or operational perspectives to higher levels as
required
D. Making formal assessments of management of risk implementation in areas of concern
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which is NOT a recommended risk response option for an 'opportunity'?
A. Enhance
B. Transfer
C. Share
D. Reduce
Answer: D

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NO.1 IBM Content Manager v8.4.1 added an important functionality. What is it?
A. Ability to call out to FileNet BPM processes
B. LDAP integration capability with Microsoft Active Directory
C. Integration with TSM DR-550 Server
D. Use of Tivoli Total Access Manager in lieu of AD
Answer: A

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NO.2 Event logging is set in the System Administration tool for: .?
A. Each itemtype part
B. All itemtypes alike
C. An itemtype
D. Worknode
Answer: C

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NO.3 In IBM Content Manager v8.4, the WEBi Client is available as well as the eClient. What
would
determine your choice of a client as of the Webi version 1.0.3?
A. eClient can do email
B. Client for Windows cannot do email
C. WEBi does not yet recognize advanced document routing decision making
D. eClient can recognize versions in CM
Answer: C

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NO.4 What are the different Item Types that can be created in IBM Content Manger v8?
A. Item and Document
B. Resource and File
C. Item, Document, Resource and Document Part
D. Item, Document, Resource and File
Answer: C

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NO.5 Event logging is stored in:
A. A file
B. The Library Server Database
C. The Resource Manager Database
D. The Websphere Database
Answer: B

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NO.1 A customer with a POWERS 520 and a FC #0595 expansion unit wants to upgrade to a
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Which elements of the original system can be used in the new system?
A. The TS2900 can be converted to SAS connectivity.
B. The memory DIMMS, if larger than 4GB, can be directly installed.
C. The EC #0595 expansion unit can be converted from HSL-2 to 12X.
D. The 70GB drive data can be migrated using Pack Utilities Maintenance Program in SST.
Answer: A

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NO.2 A POWER7+system managed by IBM i is hosting an IBM i client that requires 24 virtual disks.
What is the minimum host configuration to support the client storage?
A. 2 vSCSIcontrollers 2 Network Server Descriptions
B. 1 vSCSIcontroller 1 Network Server Description
C. 3 vSCSIcontrollers 3 Network Server Descriptions
D. 4 vSCSI controllers 2 Network Server Descriptions
Answer: A

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NO.3 A customer has a large quantity of LTO-2 media.
The customer would like to be able to read that media, while at the same time acquiring a tape
library which supports hardware encryption.
Which LTO format and attachment method supports these requirements?
A. SAS-attached LTO-5
B. USB-attached LTO-6
C. SCSI-attached LTO-3
D. Fibre-attached LTO-4
Answer: D

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NO.4 A customer would like to share a tape library among multiple partitions to run backups on a
nightly basis, but doesn't have the budget for a fibre switch or dedicated fibre adapters. They need
to be able to have their single fibre adapter available to each partition on a scheduled basis.
What product or feature can help accommodate this requirement?
A. iASP
B. BRMS
C. Media and Storage Extensions
D. Hardware Management Console
Answer: D

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NO.5 A customer with a POWERS 520 running IBM i is debating consolidating to a POWER7+770
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limited, and the customer SWMA contract is expired.
Which option is the most economical?
A. Transfer the IBM i license to the POWER7+770
B. Purchase a POWER7+ 720 and a new IBM i license
C. Purchase a new IBM i license for the POWER7+ 770
D. Purchase a POWER7+ 720 and transfer the IBM i license
Answer: B

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NO.1 Which of the following common phrases that you should be prepared to address are NOT
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A. I'd like to pay more for software licenses, please.
B. Didn't IBM just kill Lotus?
C. I have an old version of Notes and it's working fine.
D. Notes is too expensive and I don't see the value of it.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Embedded experiences is best defined in the Notes client as:
A. A The capability to attach large files to your emails
B. The ability to import spreadsheet data into a view
C. The ability to deploy the Notes client via a hybrid configuration
D. The ability to view content, as well as respond socially, all in the context of your inbox
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which one of the following features is NOT new in IBM Notes and Domino 9.0 Social Edition?
A. A Click on URLs in edit mode
B. Paste As Plain Text
C. New shortcut keys like Ctrl+Shift+R for "Reply to All"
D. Ability to import spreadsheet data into a view
Answer: C

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Notes_and_iNotes_9_Social_Edition.pdf

NO.4 When speaking of the current state of IBM Notes and Domino momentum, which of the
following statement is NOT true?
A. IBM Notes and Domino still maintains a large percentage of email market share
B. Notes is dead
C. IBM Notes and Domino have delivered new features each and every year since 2007
D. IBM Notes and Domino have over 50,000 customers
Answer: A

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NO.5 A Processor Value Unit is linked to:
A. How much capacity a server can handle due to the number of its processor cores
B. How much capacity a server can handle due to the amount of RAM the server has installed
C. The value of a server due to the operating system cost
D. The value of a server due to the net price of the server hardware
Answer: A

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NO.6 With regards to Notes and Domino licensing, the term CAL refers to:
A. Code Application Language
B. Core Activity Linkage
C. Client Access License
D. Client Anchor Logic
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which one of the following best describes hybrid deployment for our software customers?
A. Software deployed both as an on premise solution as well as in the cloud
B. Utilizing highly energy efficient servers to save customers' electricity costs
C. Being able to run on a wide variety of operating systems
D. Backwards compatible databases that run on past versions of our software releases
Answer: A

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NO.8 An active license of Notes and Domino provides instant messaging and presence awareness via
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A. Faster decision-making by getting the answer instantly from a colleague via chat
B. Increased costs from deploying high network bandwidth chat capability
C. Improved customer engagement by improved responsiveness
D. Reduced travel costs from online e-meetings instead of face-to-face meetings
Answer: B

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Exam Code: P2090-068
Exam Name: IBM Information Mgmt Informix Technical Mastery Test v3
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Exam Code: P2180-031
Exam Name: IBM Worklight Mobile Foundation Technical Sales Mastery v1
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NO.1 When should the Shell development approach be considered?
A.There are only two developers
B.The company wants to create a number of mobile applications sharing a common native code
base and authentication mechanism
C.The company wants to create a native iOS and Android application, but its resources are
limited
D.The company has distributed development teams situated on different continents that must
share the source code
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following is not a client side push API?
A.WL.Client.Push.isPushSupported()
B.WL.Client.Push.isSubscribed()
C.WL.Client.Push.unsubscribe()
D.WL.Client.Push.poll()
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of these adapter properties is mandatory?
A.adapter name
B.display name
C.description
D.ip address
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is messages.js file used for?
A.This file contains the texts of application pop-up prompts
B.This file contains the texts of error messages that application may show
C.This is an internal framework file.It is used to store system messages for debugging purposes
D.This file contains strings that can be used for application elements
Answer: D

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NO.5 Once a Shell developer completes developing her Shell components, what is the proper way to
distribute it to inner application developers?
A.Zipping the Worklight project and emailing it to inner application developers
B.Committing the Worklight project to a Source Control Management system and telling inner
application developers to use source code from it
C.The Shell developer should not distribute the Shell component to inner application developers.
They should send their inner applications to her in order to build them
D.Sending the .wlshell Shell bundle file to inner application developers
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which authenticators are supported out of the box? (Choose three)
A.Header authentication
B.Persistent cookie authentication
C.Form-based authentication
D.Kerberos authentication
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.7 Assuming it is not overridden manually, in which case will the isSuccessful property of the
procedure invocation result be true?
A.Worklight server is not accessible
B.Back end that adapter tries to connect to is not accessible
C.Internet is not available on a mobile device
D.Specified procedure does not exist in adapter
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which OS uses an HTML generated tab-bar?
A.iOS
B.Android
C.Blackberry
D.Windows Phone
Answer: B

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NO.1 Where are attached document folders associated?
A. Documents application
B. any Single-Page application
C. System Configuration application
D. the application that allows attached documents
Answer: A

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NO.2 How is the Condition Expression Builder accessed?
A. select Condition Expression Builder from the Administration module menu
B. select Condition Expression Builder icon in the Conditional Expression application toolbar
C. select Condition Expression Builder icon in the Conditional Expression application details
view
D. select Condition Expression Builder from the Conditional Expression application Select
Action menu
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which statement is true related to applications and the Application Designer?
A. All modifications to applications must be performed with the Application Designer
B. The files necessary to display an application are stored In the MAXAPPFILES table in the
database.
C. The code of a control can be modified with the Application Designer when used in code
configuration
mode.
D. Every application has a presentation XML that contains the information required to build
the
application's user interface
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which property prints a stack trace for fetch results?
A. mxe.db.fetchStack
B. mxe.db.fetchResult
C. mxe.db.fetchStackLogLimit
D. mxe.db.fetchResultLogLimit
Answer: D

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NO.5 What happens when the Rolling Appender reaches the file size limit?
A. The current file is deleted and a new file is created
B. The current file is renamed and a new file is created.
C. The new log statements overwrite the older log on the same file.
D. The current file is moved into the /maximo/logfile/archive directory and a new file is
created
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which statement explains the relationship of an E-audit fitter to the Database
Configuration application?
A. Using the Database Configuration application allows the creation of E-audit filters for main
objects only.
B. The type of information that requires these E-audit filters can be refined by using the E-
audit filter on
the Audit section of the Object tab within the Database Configuration application.
C. Included in the Database Configuration application is an action item called Enable E-audit
Filter which
allows the selection of the appropriate auditing requirements for a given database object
D. E-Audit filters are created for database objects in the Audit application and enabled using
the E-audit
filter selection dialog on each database object within the Database Configuration application.
Answer: B

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NO.7 A PDF needs to be added to Tivoli process automation engine. Where can this be
done.?
A. Manage Files Select Action from the application that allows attached documents
B. Manage Library Select Action from the application that allows attached documents
C. Manage Folders Select Action from the application that allows attached documents
D. Manage Documents Select Action from the application that allows attached documents
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which two modifications can be made to the user interface of a selected application
using the
Application Designer? (Choose two.)
A. add values to a domain
B. add a tab to an application
C. add an attribute to an object
D. move a field within an application
E. change the data type of an attribute
Answer: B,D

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NO.1 What must you do when installing WebSphere Studio Application Monitor V3.2 Managing Server while
using a Network Deployment WebSphere environment?
A. use the default values provided (hostname, and port number 8880)
B. use the localWebSphere information (hostname, and port number)
C. use the Deployment Manager information (hostname, and port number)
D. clear the hostname and port number fields so that the installer can dynamically derive the correct
hostname and port number
Answer: C

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NO.2 With WebSphere Studio Application Monitor V3.2, the database port must be provided. How can you
determine the port that is being used by the DB2 instance?
A. You use the b2 listdb2port command.
B. It is provided when the database is installed.
C. The port is discovered dynamically during the install.
D. You use the b2 getdbm cfg command or viewing /etc/services.
Answer: D

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NO.3 To perform database maintenance, which script should be scheduled to run daily?
A. amctl.sh
B. wdctl.sh
C. run-stats-cmd.sh
D. the data trimmer script
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following ports should be used when WebSphere Studio Application Monitor V3.2 Data
Collectors are being installed in a non-network deployment environment?
A. RMI port of the local admin server
B. HTTP port of the local admin server
C. the SOAP port of the local admin server
D. the bootstrap port of the local admin server
Answer: C

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NO.5 During the embedded DB2 installation, the install logs can be found in what directory?
A. /opt
B. /tmp
C. $AM_HOME/logs
D. $WAS_HOME/logs
Answer: B

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NO.6 The Data Collector installation seems successful and the monitored application server starts
successfully. However, the Data Collector does not show up in the Unconfigured Data Collectors list.
Which log would show the most relevant information?
A. the WSAM User Interface Self-Diagnosis
B. the Managing Server's Archive Agent's log
C. the monitored application server'sSystemOut log
D. the Managing Server's Visualization Engine'sSystemOut log
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which change is made by the WebSphere Studio Application Monitoring V3.2 distributed Data
Collector installer (both GUI and silent)?
A. adding SMF support
B. adding a custom service called "AM Custom Service"
C. creating the user "amuser" in the base operating system
D. sourcing the database user's profile in the profile for the user "amuser"
Answer: B

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NO.8 What information is collected at trace Level 2? (Choose three.)
A. CPU information
B. method level trace
C. component level trace
D. last known class name
E. advanced request data
F. page swapping information
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.1 Which is a benefit of collections?
A. Changes to one image only modify the image in the collection
B. You can have multiple copies of an image in different collections
C. You can organize your files in different ways than how it appears in your file system
D. You can have multiple versions of an image in different collections
Answer: C

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NO.2 You want to create a character style on a portion of a paragraph. What should you do?
A. Select the font type from the type tool
B. Select the text and apply the character style
C. Select the text layer and apply the character style
D. Select the font size from the type tool
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is one benefit of using a raw image format in photography?
A. You can change the size of the image in Photoshop
B. You can change the White Balance of the image in Photoshop
C. You can change the color of the image later in Photoshop
D. You can change the resolution of the image later in Photoshop
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which metadata field may be modified for an image in Bridge CS6?
A. Document Type
B. Date Created
C. Date Time Original
D. Metering Mode
Answer: D

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NO.5 You have an image open in Quick Mask mode and want to create a mask around an area.
Which tool should you use?
A. Quick Selection
B. Magic Wand
C. Brush
D. Magnetic Lasso
Answer: C

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NO.6 You have created a series of solid color graphics in a 24-bit format and would like to save these
with transparent background on the web. Which is the best format for you to save them?
A. JPG
B. PNG
C. TIFF
D. GIF
Answer: B

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NO.7 You are trying to rotate a transformation, but want the rotation to pivot around the upper
right corner of the bounding box. What should you do?
A. Right click the corner point and select Perspective.
B. Shift click the corner point of the bounding box
C. Drag the center point to the corner of the bounding box
D. Alt click on the upper right corner of the bounding box
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which should you use for modifying selections of hair against a similarly colored background?
A. Refine Edge
B. Quick Mask
C. Magic Wand
D. Magnetic Lasso
Answer: A

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