2014年5月29日星期四

HP2-K19 Exam Tests, HP2-T24 Dumps PDF

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Exam Code: HP2-K19
Exam Name: Selling HP Business Class Storage Solutions
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Exam Code: HP2-T24
Exam Name: Technical Introduction to the HP Server Portfolio
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NO.1 A customer uses DAS for both Exchange and user flat files for about 100 users. Because all the storage
is in various locations, it is difficult to manage this configuration and increase capacity.
The customer wants to install a SAN to solve these problems, but cannot afford the cost and time it takes
to deploy a Fibre Channel SAN. The customer also has limited in-house expertise in managing a SAN.
Which solution should the customer consider for migrating application data while also providing file
serving for clients on the same system?
A. MSA2000i
B. AiO600 Storage System
C. ProLiant Storage Server DL380 G5
D. MSA2000fc
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which company profile most accurately reflects a mid-sized business-class customer?
A. 10 employees; up to $6 million annual revenue
B. 200 employees; $9 million annual revenue
C. 400 employees; $90 million annual revenue
D. 900 employees; $250 million annual revenue
Answer: C

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NO.3 Determining the stage in HP's Customer-Driven Sales Methodology (CDSM) an opportunity has
reached depends on accurately assessing where the opportunity is in the customer buying cycle. If an
opportunity is positioned in the customer buying cycle at the Evaluate Options stage, which stage in the
CDSM has it reached?
A. Stage 2 - Validate the Opportunity
B. Stage 4 - Develop and Propose Solution
C. Stage 5 - Negotiate and Close
D. Stage 7 -Won and Deploy
Answer: B

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NO.4 The data stored on HP StorageWorks D2D Backup Systems resides on which media type?
A. SDLT tape
B. UltraSCSI disk
C. SATA disk
D. LTOUltrium tape
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which customer requirement helps determine when to implement an HP StorageWorks All-in- One
storage system versus a Modular Smart Array (MSA)?
A. use existing storage management staff expertise
B. connect easily into existingFibre Channel infrastructure
C. integrate with storage arrays in a SAN environment
D. integrate file serving and block-based access to storage
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP0-J41
Exam Name: Implementing HP StorageWorks P2000 Solutions
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Exam Code: HP0-S21
Exam Name: Integrating and Managing HP BladeSystem in the Enterprise
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NO.1 When implementing a P2000 G3 solution with a single 8Gb/s FC controller, what are advantages of a
fabric topology over direct connect?
A. supports multiple paths
B. provides storage access from iSCSI adapters
C. supports more storage
D. provides storage access for more hosts
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which type of volume replication can you define in Replication Setup Wizard in a P2000 G3
environment?
A. volume replication on a host agent basis
B. volume replication on the local system or to a remote system
C. volume replication on the local system but not to a remote system
D. volume replication to a remote system exclusively
Answer: B

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NO.3 When you add an expansion module to a P2000 G3 MSA, which HP recommended action should you
take?
A. Configure the storage before you cable the expansion module to the controllers.
B. Update the SMI-S embedded processor firmware before you configure the module.
C. Install the Storage Management Utility on the new module.
D. Set all enclosure management processors to the same firmware level.
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is considered an iSCSI initiator in a P2000 G3 MSA implementation?
A. volumes
B. Ethernet switches
C. combo FC/iSCSI controllers
D. server hosts
Answer: D

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NO.5 What is the correct definition of the P2000 G3 Remote Snap?
A. a synchronous, controller-based replication process based on Volume Shadow Services
B. an asynchronous, software-based replication process based on Volume Shadow Services
C. a synchronous, controller-based replication process based on snapshot technology
D. an asynchronous, controller-based replication process based on snapshot technology
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which entity must be created for Remote Snap replication in a P2000 G3 environment?
A. data replication group
B. mirror set
C. replication set
D. snap group
Answer: C

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NO.7 On the P2000 combo iSCSI/FC controller, how do iSCSI and Fibre Channel ports differ? (Select two.)
A. The iSCSI ports require an IP address.
B. FC ports require a Logical Unit Number.
C. The iSCSI ports are 10Gb/s while the FC ports are 8Gb/s.
D. The FC ports are 8Gb/s while the iSCSI ports are 1Gb/s.
E. The controller has more iSCSI ports than FC ports.
Answer: AC

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NO.8 What must you do before you update expansion module firmware on a single-controller P2000 G3
system?
A. Stop I/O to all vdisks.
B. Set the failover policy.
C. Segregate the module from the controller.
D. Update the enclosure management processor (EMP) firmware first.
Answer: A

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NO.1 What does the Hitachi Dynamic Link Manager "Path Health Check" feature provide?
A. It detects link issues before data I/O is affected.
B. It automatically removes the paths where an intermittent error is occurring.
C. It monitors load balancing.
D. It automatically places a recovered path back online.
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is a primary component of Hitachi Virtual Partition Manager?
A. Port Logical Partition
B. Disk Logical Partition
C. Cache Logical Partition
D. Cache Physical Partition
Answer: C

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NO.3 A storage administrator wants to script a TrueCopy operation in an Open Systems environment.
Which two components are required? (Choose two.)
A. Command Device
B. Storage Navigator 2
C. RAID Manager CCI
D. replication.conf file
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 A customer has prepared TrueCopy scripts and now wants to create the first replication pairs in an
Open Systems environment. Which two steps must be completed before issuing TrueCopy commands?
(Choose two.)
A. Configure HORCM files.
B. Install RAID Manager CCI.
C. Ensure that the S-Vols are visible to a host.
D. Configure external ports.
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 You wish to virtualize three external devices on a VSP using Universal Volume Manager. Which
parameter should you consider modifying to avoid high cache write pending?
A. Path Mode
B. Cache Mode
C. Priority Mode
D. I/O Suppression Mode
Answer: B

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NO.6 A customer has a ShadowImage pair that is currently suspended and the P-Vol is corrupted. They
perform a quick restore. When can they safely start using the data on the P-Vol?
A. after the P-Vol and S-Vol swap CU:LDEV numbers
B. after all of the data is copied from the S-Vol to the P-Vol
C. after the bitmap is transferred and dirty tracks are marked
D. after the difference data is copied from the S-Vol to the P-Vol
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which two transport methods can HiTrack use to report SIMs to the Hitachi Data Systems Global
Support Center? (Choose two.)
A. FTP
B. HTTPS
C. HTTP
D. SNMP
Answer: A,B

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NO.8 A customer is evaluating Hitachi Dynamic Provisioning (HDP) because they are interested in thin
provisioning. What are two other benefits provided by HDP.? (Choose two.)
A. increased performance using wide striping
B. volume creation without formatting time
C. enhanced data protection using more RAID Groups
D. automatic migration between FC and SATA pools
Answer: A,B

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Exam Code: HD0-100
Exam Name: Help Desk Analyst (HDA)
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Exam Code: QQ0-401
Exam Name: SDI-Service Desk Foundation Qualification
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Exam Code: HD0-300
Exam Name: Help Desk Manager
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NO.1 You have little or no expertise with a product. While speaking in a confident tone,
what should you do to provide effective support?
A. Escalate to a manager to reassign the call
B. Determine priority/severity and collect/document the appropriate information
C. Set a call back time and tell the customer you will review the call with an expert
D. Inform the customer of the product limitations you are aware of, but assure them they
will receive support
Answer: B

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NO.2 Who is responsible for maintaining a working environment conductive to effective
inter-departmental relationships.
A. Everyone
B. Human resources
C. Department managers
D. Executive management
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which two techniques are used to match a caller's style? (Choose two.)
A. Style
B. Restating
C. Vocabulary
D. Paraphrasing
Answer: A, C

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NO.4 What is a key benefit of a knowledge-base system?
A. Increase call volume
B. Saves time and money
C. Decreases network traffic
D. Requires lower maintance
Answer: B

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NO.5 What two considerations need to be made when sharing workspace? (Choose two.)
A. Maintain a clean environment
B. Discretion and courtesy when decorating
C. Share only with persons with similar likes/dislikes
D. None, each person needs to take care of it themselves
Answer: A, B

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NO.6 Which three approached help create a positive business reputation? (Choose three.)
A. When you hear complaints about your organization, change the subject
B. Have a good attitude and never speak negatively about you organization
C. See what you can do to assist any co-worker who is unhappy or experiencing
problems
D. Try to have a positive and memorable effect on every person you communicate with
each day
Answer: B, C, D

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NO.7 What is the key benefit of a positive work environment?
A. Diversification of skill sets is minimized
B. Rapport among team members is increased
C. The need for recognition of individual effort is minimized
D. Management involvement is separated from individual involvement
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which metric indicates how often A customer may need a follow-up call to achieve
resolution?
A. Capture rate
B. Abandon rate
C. Call return rate
D. First call resolution rate
Answer: D

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NO.1 When a document is printed using EMF in Windows, what file(s) are generated in the spooling
process?
A. The .SPL file
B. The .SHD file
C. Both a and b
D. Neither a or b
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following is commonly used to encode e-mail attachments?
A. JPEG
B. GIF
C. EMF
D. Base64
Answer: D

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NO.3 How many partitions can be found in the boot partition table found at the beginning of the drive?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following directories contain the information that is found on a Windows 98 Desktop?
A. C:\Windows\Desktop
B. C:\Desktop
C. C:\Program files\Programs\Desktop
D. C:\Startup\Desktop\Items
Answer:A

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NO.5 A file extension and signature can be manually added by:
A. Using the new set feature under hash sets.
B. Using the new file signature feature under file signatures.
C. Using the new library feature under hash libraries.
D. Right-clicking on a file and selecting dd.? 5LJKWFOLFNLQJRQDILOHDQGVHOHFWLQJ ? GG
Answer: B

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NO.6 You are assigned to assist with the search and seizure of several computers. The magistrate ordered
that the computers cannot be seized unless they are found to contain any one of ten previously identified
images. You currently have the ten images in JPG format. Using the EnCase methodology, how would
you best handle this situation?
A. Use an EnCase DOS boot disk to conduct a text search for hild porn? Use an EnCase DOS boot disk
to conduct a text search for ?hild porn?
B. Use FastBloc or a network/parallel port cable to acquire forensic images of the hard drives, then search
the evidence files for the previously identified images.
C. Use FastBloc or a network/parallel port cable to preview the hard drives. Go to the Gallery view and
search for the previously identified images.
D. Use FastBloc or a network/parallel port cable to preview the hard drives. Conduct a hash analysis of
the files on the hard drives, using a hash library containing the hash values of the previously identified
images.
Answer: D

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NO.7 The EnCase methodology dictates that ________ be created prior to acquiring evidence.
A. an .E01 file on the lab drive
B. a unique directory on the lab drive for case management
C. a text file for notes
D. All of the above
Answer: B

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NO.8 A sector on a hard drive contains how many bytes?
A. 512
B. 1024
C. 2048
D. 4096
Answer:A

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NO.1 Which of the following items represent the minimum configuration steps an administrator must perform
to enable Data Leak Prevention from flowing through the FortiGate unit? (Select all that apply.)
A. Assign a DLP sensor in a firewall policy.
B. Apply one or more DLP rules to a firewall policy.
C. Enable DLP globally using the config sys dip command in the CU.
D. Define one or more DLP rules.
E. Define a DLP sensor.
F. Apply a DLP sensor to a DoS sensor policy.
Answer: ABDE

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NO.2 When creating administrative users, the assigned____________________ determines user rights on
the FortiGate unit.
Answer: access profile

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NO.3 Which of the following are valid authentication user group types on a FortiGate unit? (Select all that
apply.)
A. Firewall
B. Directory Service
C. Local
D. LDAP
E. PKI
Answer: A, B, C, E

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NO.4 If a FortiGate unit has a dmz interface IP address of 210.192.168.2 with a subnet mask of
255.255.255.0, what is a valid dmz DHCP accessing range?
A. 172.168.0.1-172.168.0.10
B. 210.192.168.3-210.192.168.10
C. 210.192.168.1 - 210.192.168.4
D. All of the above
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following statements regarding Banned Words are correct.? (Select all that apply.)
A. The FortiGate unit can scan web pages and email messages for instances of banned words.
B. When creating a banned word list, an administrator can indicate either specific words or patterns.
C. Banned words can be expressed as wildcards or regular expressions.
D. Content is automatically blocked if a single instance of a banned word appears.
E. The FortiGate unit includes a pre-defined library of common banned words.
Answer: A, B, C

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2014年5月28日星期三

CAT-100 Exam Dumps, CAT-380 Actual Test

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Exam Code: CAT-380
Exam Name: CA ARCserve Backup r16.x Administrator Certification Exam
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NO.1 To enable enhanced User Profile Manager, role management, and Windows account support,
on
the primary server, you need to install the CA ARCserve Backup:
A. Standard module.
B. Advanced module.
C. Enterprise module.
D. Enterprise Plus module.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Some application programs can cache file writes on the workstation on which they are run.
How
can you prevent resulting data integrity issues when using the Agent for Open Files?
A. Disable retry mechanisms in your backup program.
B. Enable Extended Features in the Agent for Open Files.
C. Configure the application, if possible, to prevent write caching.
D. Enable Auto Sense in the Sync Method section of the Agent for Open Files.
Answer: C

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NO.3 When backing up SharePoint Server data using the CA ARCserve Backup Agent for Microsoft
SharePoint, how is the backup initiated?
A. SharePoint Server sends a request to the Agent for Microsoft SharePoint.
B. The Agent for Microsoft SharePoint sends a request to SharePoint Server.
C. CA ARCserve Backup Server sends a request to the Agent for Microsoft SharePoint.
D. The Agent for Microsoft SharePoint sends a request to CA ARCserve Backup Server.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which statement about Restore by Image is TRUE?
A. It is included in all CA ARCserve Backup r16 modules.
B. The Restore by Image sessions can be restored to network drives.
C. During a Restore by Image session, files can be open but they are still overwritten.
D. Selecting multiple sources is only permitted when using the Restore to Original Location option.
Answer: D

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NO.5 After you complete the Diagnostic Wizard in the CA ARCserve Backup Diagnostic Utility, a file
is
created. In which GUI do you view this file?
A. Report Manager
B. Job Status Manager
C. Diagnostic Log Manager
D. Diagnostic Report Manager
Answer: D

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NO.6 How can you limit the servers that are authorized to perform backups on a Windows client
agent
object?
A. Configure password security.
B. Set the Backup Priority to High.
C. Generate an access control list (ACL).
D. Change the port number used by the agent.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 9L0-607
Exam Name: System Administration Using Mac
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NO.1 Click the Exhibit button and study the network diagram, then answer the question below. You
administer the server with IP addresses 10.1.1.1 and 10.1.0.11. You have configured its two
network interfaces in Network Preferences. Which TWO additional steps must you take on your
server to ensure that the workstation at 10.1.1.2 can communicate with the server at 10.1.0.1, even
if the server at 10.1.1.1 is restarted? (Choose TWO.)
A.Enable IP forwarding with sysctl.
B.Add a static route for network 10.1.0/24.
C.Add a static route for network 10.1.1/24.
D.Enable IP forwarding from Server Admin.
E.Set the IPFORWARDING flag in /etc/hostconfig to -YES-.
Correct:A E

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NO.2 You are configuring Mac OS X Server to authorize users stored on an Active Directory server.
You need to ________ and ________. (Choose TWO.)
A.generate and install keytabs
B.configure the Active Directory plug-in
C.use slurpd to import Active Directory users to your local LDAP database
D.configure Open Directory to emulate Active Directory properties in the LDAPv3 database
E.use Workgroup Manager to include properties required by Open Directory in the Active Directory
database
Correct:A B

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NO.3 Server Monitor does NOT provide status information for which Xserve component?
A.blower
B.hard drive
C.power supply
D.fibre channel link
Correct:D

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NO.4 On Mac OS X Server 10.3, which feature in amd represents an improvement over automount?
A.graphical user interface
B.support of AFP and NFS
C.integration with directory services
D.support of industry-standard mount maps
Correct:D

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NO.5 Which are valid SMTP commands that you might use in a Telnet session when testing your mail
server? (Choose all that apply.)
A.mail from:
B.mail to:
C.rcpt from:
D.rcpt to:
E.relay from:
F.relay to:
Correct:A D

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Exam Code: 9L0-063
Exam Name: Mac OS X v10.7 Troubleshooting Exam
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Exam Code: 9L0-009
Exam Name: Macintosh Service Certification Exam
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Exam Code: 9L0-517
Exam Name: ACTC 10.7 Recertification Exam
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NO.1 Which of the following is a software tool is NOT available on the Recovery HD?
A.Disk Utility
B.Network Utility
C.Activity Monitor
D.Restore from a Time Machine backup
Answer: C

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NO.2 A customer upgrades their Mac to OS X Lion but still wishes to run applications written for the PowerPC.
Choose the best solution for this issue:
A.Erase the hard drive and reinstall OS X Snow Leopard.
B.Download Rosetta by purchasing it at the Mac App Store.
C.PowerPC applications are no longer supported regardless of OS X version.
D.Create a dual boot configuration with OS X Snow Leopard on one partition and OS X Lion on another.
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is the recommended version of OS X Snow Leopard before installing OS X Lion?
A.10.6.1
B.10.6.3
C.10.6.4
D.10.6.8
Answer: D

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NO.4 Please examine the image above.
A customer with a MacBook Air (13-inch, Mid 2011) sees this image on their screen. What would cause
their Mac to display this image at startup?
A.Lion Internet Recovery has started downloading the Recovery HD image.
B.The Mac is starting up from the Recovery HD.
C.EFI has detected a hardware issue.
D.Apple Hardware Test is loading.
Answer: A

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NO.5 A customer has purchased a MacBook Air (13-inch Mid 2011).They set the Mac up without transferring
any of their personal data.A few days later they realize they need the contents of their previous machines
Users folder. How can they easily obtain the data from their older Macbook?
A.Boot to the Recovery HD to run the Migration Assistant.
B.Use the Finder to manually migrate the files via Wi-Fi or ethernet.
C.The customer will have to purchase the Migration Assistant at the Mac App Store.
D.The Migration Assistant is stored in the Utilities folder and can be run at any time.
Answer: D

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NO.6 If you choose to install OS X Lion on a RAID volume, which of the following features will be disabled?
SELECT TWO:
A.Time Machine
B.Full Disk Encryption
C.Recovery HD partition
D.Resetting a lost password
E.Migration Assistant data transfer from a Windows PC
Answer: B, C

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NO.7 A customer running OS X Lion would like to set up a Firmware Password. Where can they find the
Firmware Password Utility?
A.In the Utilities folder on their startup disk.
B.In the Applications folder on their startup disk.
C.In the Security & Privacy Systems Preference pane.
D.In the Utilities menu when booted to the Recovery HD.
Answer: D

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NO.8 What new feature of OS X Lion allows a customer to reset their login password without having to startup
from the Recovery HD?
A.Safe Boot.
B.EFI reset mode.
C.Single User mode.
D.Reset a password using an Apple ID.
Answer: D

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NO.1 The following are facts concerning a decedent's estate:
An executor elects to value the assets of the estate at the alternative valuation date 6 months after death.
Which of the following statements concerning the estate tax value of assets included in this estate is
correct?
Taxable estate $1,700,000
Pre-1977 taxable gifts 200,000
Post-1976 adjusted taxable gifts 50,000
Post-1976 gifts made to a qualified
charity
100,000
The tentative tax base of this estate is
A. $1,700,000
B. $1,750,000
C. $1,850,000
D. $1,900,000
Answer: B

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A. An annuity included in the gross estate that diminishes with the mere passage of time is includible at
the date of death value.
B. Property sold before the alternate valuation date is valued at the alternate valuation date.
C. Property that has increased in value since the date of death may be valued at the date of death if the
executor so elects.
D. Property distributed under the will before the alternate valuation date is valued at the date of death.
Answer:A

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4. A father and son have been farming land owned by the father for the past 12 years. Just prior to his
death, the father was offered $1,200,000 for his farm because of its possible use as a shopping center.
The son would like to continue to farm the land if it can be included in his father's estate at its current use
value. Additional facts are:
1.Average annual gross rentals from nearby farms of similar acreage are $56,000.
2.Average annual state and local real estate taxes on the farm are $8,000.

NO.2 Which of the following is an example of a taxable gift for federal gift tax purposes?
A. A father gives his 19-year-old daughter a note promising to give her his Rolls Royce when she reaches
the age of 21.
B. Instead of parents paying an outside executive $60,000, a son runs their business for 8 months without
charging a fee.
C. The parents of a married son permit their son and his family to use a summer cottage that rents for
$3,000 per month on a rent-free basis.
D. A father cancels a $50,000 note his daughter gave him when he made a loan to her 2 years ago.
Answer: D

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NO.3 The interest rate for loans from the Federal Land Bank is 8 percent.
For federal estate tax purposes, the farm method valuation formula would result in a current use value for
the farm of
A. $500,000
B. $600,000
C. $700,000
D. $820,000
Answer: B

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5. Which of the following types of real property ownership will be deemed to be a tenancy in common?
A. Two brothers own equal amounts of all the common stock in a corporation, the only asset of which is
real property.
B. Two brothers own equal undivided interests in a piece of real property, with each brother being able to
divest himself of his interest by sale, gift, or will.
C. Two brothers are equal partners in a general partnership that owns a piece of real property used in the
partnership business.
D. Two brothers own equal fractional interests in a piece of real property and at the death of one of the
brothers the survivor will own the entire piece of property.
Answer: B

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6. Which of the following statements concerning property ownership by a married couple residing in a
community-property state is correct?
A. All property owned by the couple is community property.
B. Community property loses its identity when a couple moves from a community-property state to a
common-law state.
C. Property inherited by one spouse during a marriage becomes community property.
D. Income earned by one spouse becomes community property.
Answer: D

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7. Which of the following statements concerning a simple trust is correct?
A. Income and principal may be distributed to a qualified charity.
B. It receives a special tax deduction for income distributed to its beneficiaries.
C. Income is accumulated at the discretion of the trustee.
D. It limits the number of permissible beneficiaries.
Answer: B

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8. On the advice of their attorney and accountant, Betsy and John have decided to make substantial
transfers. They would like to pass most of their considerable wealth to their grandchildren. Which of the
following statements concerning gifts made to their grandchildren is correct?
A. The GSTT annual exclusion may be utilized by Betsy and John for each grandchild during lifetime and
at death.
B. The value of Betsy and John's GSTT exemption amounts are slightly increased when used at death
rather than during lifetime.
C. The GSTT annual exclusion is unavailable for years in which Betsy and John make tuition gifts for the
grandchildren.
D. Betsy and John may elect to split any GSTT transfers to the grandchildren.
Answer: D

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9.The decedent, D, died this year. The facts concerning D estate are:
On January 1, 2004 a father gave his daughter a $200,000 straight (ordinary) life insurance policy on his
life.
Premiums are paid annually. The pertinent facts about the policy are:
Date of issue: July 1, 1992
Premium paid on July 1, 2003 $3,200
Gross estate $3,400,000
Marital deduction 0
Charitable deduction 600,000
Funeral & administration
expenses
80,000
Gifts made after 1976 170,000
State death taxes payable 192,000
What is D taxable estate?
A. $2,138,000
B. $2,358,000
C. $2,528,000
D. $2,720,000
Answer: C

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10.Terminal reserve on July 1, 2003 20,000 Terminal reserve on July 1, 2004 24,000 What is the value of
the policy for federal gift tax purposes?
A. $ 21,600
B. $ 23,200
C. $ 23,600
D. $200,000
Answer: C

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11. A married man has two adult sons. His entire estate is in excess of $1,500,000 and consists entirely of
probate assets. He wants to make certain that if he predeceases his wife she will receive all estate
income as long as she lives, and the assets remaining at her death will pass equally to their two sons. He
wants to pass all assets to this wife and sons as free of federal estate taxes as possible. To best
accomplish these objectives, the man should include which of the following estate plans in his will?
A. Establish a QTIP trust for half his estate and bequeath the remainder to his wife
B. Establish a marital deduction trust with a general power of appointment for half his estate and place the
remainder in a QTIP trust
C. Establish a bypass trust equal to the applicable exclusion amount and place the remainder of his
estate in a QTIP trust
D. Establish a QTIP trust for his entire estate
Answer: C

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12. Among the assets in a decedent's gross estate is stock in a closely held corporation that was left to a
nephew. The interest passing to the nephew is required to bear the burden of all estate taxes and
expenses. The relevant facts about this
estate are:
Adjusted gross estate $1,200,000
Fair market value of stock in the
closely held corporation 500,000
Administration and funeral
expenses
25,000
State inheritance taxes 40,000
Federal estate taxes 160,000
What amount of closely held corporate stock may be redeemed under IRC Section 303 so that the
redemption will be treated as a sale or exchange rather than a dividend distribution?
A. 0
B. $ 65,000
C. $225,000
D. $500,000
Answer: C

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13. A married man died this year leaving a gross estate of $3,200,000. Additional facts concerning his
estate are: Administration expenses and debts $ 250,000 Marital deduction 1,200,000 Applicable credit
amount (2005) 555,800 Applicable exclusion amount (2005) 1,500,000 State death taxes payable 20,400
Under the Unified Rate Schedule for computing estate taxes if the amount with respect to which the
tentative tax to be computed is over $1,000,000 but not over $1,250,000, the tentative tax is $345,800,
plus 41 percent of the excess of such amount over $1,000,000. If the amount is over $1,250,000 but not
over $1,500,000, the tentative tax is then $448,300, plus 43 percent of the excess of such amount over
$1,250,000. If the amount is over $1,500,000 but not over $2,000,000, the tentative tax is then $555,800
plus 45% of the excess of such amount over $1,500,000. Based on these facts, the net federal estate tax
payable is
A. 0
B. $103,320
C. $123,720
D. $128,280
Answer: B

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14. Which of the following statements concerning both estates and complex trusts is correct?
A. Both must have more than one beneficiary.
B. Both come into being by operation of law.
C. Both are monitored by the courts.
D. Both are required to file income tax returns.
Answer: D

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15. A widow made the following cash gifts during the current year: Donee Amount of Gift
A qualified charity $40,000
A close friend 30,000
Her sister 5,000
Her daughter 15,000
Her brother 10,000
The total amount of the taxable gifts made this year was
A. $23,000
B. $45,000
C. $52,000
D. $95,000
Answer:A

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16. A man is planning to establish and fund a 20-year irrevocable trust for the benefit of his two sons,
aged 19 and 22, and plans to give the trustee power to sprinkle trust income. From the standpoint of
providing federal income, gift, and estate tax savings, which of the following would be the best choice of
trustee?
A. The grantor of the trust
B. The grantor's 70-year-old father
C. The grantor's 22-year-old son
D. A bank or trust company
Answer: D

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17. A man died in February of this year. Last year, when he learned that he had a terminal illness, he
immediately made the following gifts and filed the required gift tax return:
Fair Market Value
Gift of listed stock to a
qualified charity $100,000
Gift of listed bonds to his wife 200,000
Gift of a boat to his son 10,000
Gift of a sports car to his daughter
10,000
What amount must be brought back to the man's estate as an adjusted taxable gift in the calculation of his
federal estate taxes?
A. 0
B. $ 90,000
C. $280,000
D. $320,000
Answer:A

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18. A widower dies leaving a net probate estate of $300,000. At the time of his death, his descendants are
as follows:
A son, Joe, who has no children;
A deceased daughter, Mary, whose two children, Irene and Sally, survive; and
A daughter, Anne, who has one child, Harry
Assuming that the widower's will provides for the distribution of his assets in equal shares to his children,
per stirpes,
which of the following correctly states the amounts each descendant will receive?
A. $100,000 to Joe, $50,000 to Irene, $50,000 to Sally, and $100,000 to Anne
B. $100,000 to Joe, $50,000 to Irene, $50,000 to Sally, $50,000 to Anne, and $50,000 to Harry
C. $75,000 to Joe, $75,000 to Irene, $75,000 to Sally, and $75,000 to Anne
D. $60,000 to Joe, $60,000 to Irene, $60,000 to Sally, $60,000 to Anne, and $60,000 to Harry
Answer:A

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19. Which of the following areas of consideration present common ethical issues for the estate planner?
A. Contracts
B. Compatibility
C. Consistency
D. Compensation
Answer: D

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20. A father deeded a house as a gift to his daughter in 1990 but retained the right to live in it until his
death. He died this
year, while still living in the house. The following are relevant facts:
The father bought the property in 1980 for $140,000. The fair market value of the property when the gift
was made in
1990 was $170,000. The father filed a timely gift tax return but paid no gift tax because of the applicable
credit amount.
The fair market value of the property at the father's death was $200,000. The daughter sold the property 3
months after
her father's death for $200,000. She had a gain of
A. 0
B. $130,000
C. $160,000
D. $200,000
Answer:A

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NO.1 In GBP/CHF, you are quoted the following prices by four different banks. You are a buyer of
CHF. Which is the best quote for you?
A. 1.4340
B. 1.4343
C. 1.4337
D. 1.4335
Answer: B

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NO.2 Assuming a flat yield curve in both currencies, when quoting a 1- to 2-month forward FX time
option price in a currency pair trading at a discount to a customer:
A. you would take as bid rate the bid side of the 2-month forward and as offered rate the offered
side of the 1-month forward
B. you would take as bid rate the offered side of the 2-month forward and as offered rate the bid
side of the 1-month forward
C. you would take as bid rate the offered side of the 1-month forward and as offered rate the
offered side of the 2-month forward
D. you would take as bid rate the bid side of the 1-month forward and as offered rate the bid side of
the 2-month forward
Answer: A

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NO.3 How many GBP would you have to invest at 0.55% to be repaid GBP 2,000,000.00 (principal
plus interest) in 90 days?
A. GBP 1,997,253.78
B. GBP 1,997,291.34
C. GBP 1,997,287.67
D. GBP 1,997,250.00
Answer: B

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NO.4 The tom/next GC repo rate for German government bonds is quoted to you at 1.75-80%. As
collateral, you sell EUR 10,000,000.00 million nominal of the 5.25% Bund July 2012, which is worth
EUR 11,260,000.00. If you have to give an initial margin of 2%, the Repurchase Price is:
A. EUR 11,035,336.41
B. EUR 11,035,351.74
C. EUR 11,039,752.32
D. EUR 11,039,767.65
Answer: D

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NO.5 A CD with a face value of EUR 10,000,000.00 and a coupon of 3% was issued at par for 182
days and is now trading at 3.10% with 120 days remaining to maturity. What has been the capital
gain or loss since issue?
A. -EUR 52,161.00
B. -t-EUR 47,839.00
C. -EUR 3,827.67
D. Nil
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which party usually takes an initial margin in a classic repo?
A. The buyer
B. The seller
C. Neither
D. Both
Answer: A

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NO.7 What is the maximum maturity of an unsecured USCP?
A. One year
B. 270 days
C. 183 days
D. 5 years
Answer: B

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NO.8 What are the primary reasons for taking an initial margin in a classic repo?
A. Counterparty risk and operational risk
B. Counterparty risk and legal risk
C. Collateral illiquidity and counterparty risk
D. Collateral illiquidity and legal risk
Answer: C

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NO.1 SPC on the outputs is more preferred than SPC on the inputs when implementing SPC for your
process.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.2 The Lean Principle action in the 5S approach that deals with having those items needed
regularly
at hand and those items need less regularly stored out of the way is known as ___________.
A. Shining
B. Standardizing
C. Sustaining
D. Sorting
Answer: D

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NO.3 A Lean Principle that addresses efficiency by the process worker is called
____________________?
A. Visual Factory
B. Supervising
C. Training
D. Standardizing
Answer: D

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NO.4 Significant variation in process performance is a consequence of several causes that can be
classified using which of the terminologies shown. (Note: There are 2 correct answers).
A. Common
B. Random
C. Uneducated
D. Special
E. Vital
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 The use of station warning lights, tool boards and jidohka devices in the application of Lean
accomplish which of these principles?
A. Pilferage Minimization
B. Visual Factory
C. Management Awareness
D. Operator Attentiveness
Answer: B

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NO.6 The use of Kanbans work best with pull systems for determining the timing of which products
or
services are produced.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.7 While management of a company must set the stage for all improvement efforts, which of
these
5S’s is primarily driven by management?
A. Straighten
B. Sort
C. Shine
D. Sustain
Answer: D

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NO.8 As part of a Visual Factory plan __________ cards are created and utilized to identify areas in
need of cleaning and organization.
A. Kanban
B. Kaizen
C. Poke-Yoke
D. WhoSai
Answer: A

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2014年5月27日星期二

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NO.1 From the VPMS web interface, which menu path should be followed, to view the current status of all
MPP servers and get detailed information about any alarms they have generated?
A. System Configuration > System Monitor
B. System Configuration > MPP Management
C. Real-Time Monitoring > Monitor System
D. Teal-Time Monitoring > System Monitor
Answer: A

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NO.2 Why is the "Hot word" Barge-in mechanism used?
A. to stop the application from playing prompt as soon as the utterance is caught on that prompt
B. to stop the application from playing prompt as soon as the utterance matches a key word defined in the
grammar
C. to stop the application from playing prompt as soon as the utterance matches a key word defined in the
grammar and the decision is defined
D. to stop the application from playing prompt as soon as the utterance matches a key word defined in the
prompt
Answer: C

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NO.3 In addition to the Project Overview, Standard service hours, Call Center Telephony Review, Call Center
Reporting Review, which other service is included in the Statement of Word (SOW) component of a
project?
A. Call Center Development Services
B. Call Center Programming Services
C. Call Center Leadership Services
D. Call Center Consultant Services
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which statement about Auxiliary VPMS is true?
A. Only one Auxiliary VPMS server can be added per Voice Portal 5.1 or newer system.
B. More than one Auxiliary VPMS server can be added per Voice Portal 5.1 or newer system.
C. Auxiliary VPMS can be installed on a single server Voice Portal system.
D. Auxiliary VPMS can be installed co-resident with MPP server.
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is the last step to be completed before testing the initialization and configuration?
A. Start the MPPs.
C. Stop the MPPS.
C. Start Applications.
D. Stop Applications.
Answer: A

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NO.6 A customer is planning to deploy a Voice Portal solution, and wants to make sure they have considered
all aspects of their implementation design components. As a key component of the implementation, which
documents are included in the Document Review?
A. Deep Drive Results, Equipment List, Customer List, and SOW
B. Customer Scenario, Equipment List, SOW and Deep Dive Results
C. Customer Scenario, Hardware List, Deep Dive Results and SOW
D. Customer List, Hardware List, SOW and the Equipment List
Answer: B

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NO.7 A technician cannot see the VPMS web interface. What is the first thing that should be done?
A. Restart all MPPs that are connected to the VPMS.
B. Reload the VPMS software.
C. Make sure that Axis is running.
D. Make sure that Tomcat is running.
Answer: D

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NO.8 A customer has just upgraded Voice Portal to a newer version, but the license is not upgraded. What is
the grace period provided by the system, for upgrading the license?
A. 3 days
B. 7 days
C. 15 days
D. 30 days
Answer: D

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