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Exam Code: HP2-B22
Exam Name: HP IPG Sales Fundamentals v8.1 HP2-B22
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 Which imaging and printing process is becoming less important because of digital content?
A. printing
B. stapling
C. copying
D. scanning
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is one result of the availability of digital content?
A. less need for paper documents
B. a decrease in the amount of printing
C. an increase in the amount of printing
D. more printed material included in product packages
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which printing trend is the result of the increase in original digital content.?
A. Fewer documents are being printed.
B. Business is not concerned about printing costs.
C. Documents are copied on paper and then distributed.
D. Documents are distributed electronically and then printed.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which HP Color LaserJet advantage can be attributed to HP Color Sphere technology?
A. superior reliability
B. fastest first page out
C. lowest cost per page
D. highest rated print quality
Answer: D

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NO.5 What is a new trend in imaging and printing document workflow?
A. printing booklets
B. scan to email
C. printing and then copying documents
D. distributing hard copies of documents by hand
Answer: C

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NO.6 What are the key printing technology trends?
A. color, convergence and networking
B. MFP, networking and AIO
C. VOIP, color, copying
D. digital fax, cluster print, AIO
Answer: B

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NO.7 What are the three main reasons why customers print?
A. habit, easy, cheap
B. habit, color, media
C. habit, communicate, legal
D. habit, easy to file, easy to discard
Answer: C

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NO.8 How does the HP $3.6 billion R&D investment benefit HP resellers?
A. Accessories connect easily to HP devices.
B. HP devices have the biggest display screens.
C. Larger paper sizes are supported on HP devices.
D. Products and solutions create customer demand.
Answer: D

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NO.9 What are accurate descriptions of a first impression in business? (Select two.)
A. always positive
B. easy to change
C. difficult to change
D. based upon detailed information
E. made in the first 5 to 30 seconds
Answer: A,D

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NO.10 Why has there been an increase in the use of color printing in business? (Select two.)
A. Businesses are printing more pictures.
B. It ischeaper than printing monochrome.
C. Fewer monochrome printers are available.
D. There are benefits of using color in documents.
E. There have been reductions in the cost of color printing.
Answer: D,E

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Exam Code: HP0-D08
Exam Name: HP Implementing HP Converged Infrastructure Solutions HP0-D08
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 Which CLI command should be used first to prepare the CMS for a full system backup?
A. mxsytc-scvutil manual
B. mxsytc-scvutil auto
C. mxsync-scvutil start
D. mxsync-scvutil stop backup
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which clusters are treated like virtual machine hosts when using Insight Dynamics capacity planning?
A.HP-UX Service guard
B. Vmware DRS
C. Service guard for Linux
D. Microsoft Cluster Server
Answer: B

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NO.3 When using Insight Control 6.0 server migration functionality, how can Windows and Linux 64-bit
migrations be performed?
A. Adding Insight Dynamics for ProLiant Licenses
B. Adding Virtual Connect Enterprise Manager licenses
C. Migrating to a 32-bit virtual machine using P2V, then using V2P to migrate to 64-bit on a physical
ProLiant
D. Using the native 64-bit code in the x64 Windows version to migrage
Answer: D

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NO.4 What are advantage for using HP Virtual Resource Pools?(Select two.)
A. increased data center lifespan
B. increased total resource utilization
C. greater insight and control over energy
D. wire-once, dynamic assembly
E. greater resiliency and flexbility
Answer: B,E

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NO.5 What are best practice recommendations when finding sever blades with HP Insight Control server
deployment software and deploying operating systems to target server blades?
A. The logical server functionality works best with 16 or fewer characters.
B. When a server is discovered, always use the default name.
C. You may use dashes, capital letters or underscore characters in the names.
D. Avoid the use of dashes or underscores in the names.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Where are HP Virtual Connect Enterprise Manager(VCEM) licenses applied in VCEM?
A. License page
B. License Manager
C.VC Domain page
D.VC Domain Group page
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which Fibre Channel Boot Preferences setting should be used to enable the SAN boot option in a
Virtual Connect Enterprise Manager Server profile?
A. FC-boot
B. Primary
C. Use BIOS/EFI
D.BFS
Answer: B

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NO.8 When using Insight Control performance management, what is the default number of samples needed
to determine the status of a server?
A.1
B.5
C.8
D.12
Answer: B

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NO.9 When adding a new network to the Insight Orchestration network pool that will be using a Static IP
Address Space range of 192.168.1.6 to 192.168.1.6, what should the Network Address be sent to under
the Network Setting tab?
A.192.168.1.0
B.192.168.1.1
C.192.168.1.5
D.192.168.1.255
Answer: A

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NO.10 What are the globally assigned default utilization limits for CPU and memory for more than 15
consecutive minutes in a Capacity Advisor scenario?
Answer:

NO.11 What types of performance management reports can be generated from HP SIM Reports->
Performance Management menu? (Select two.)
A. Export Performance Management Data
B. System Summary Report
C. Dynamic Analysis Report
D. System Comparision Report
E. Server Availability Report
Answer: B, E

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NO.12 Which software is available to provided advanced integration and management of 3rd party virtual
machine environments?(Select two.)
A.HP Insight Control
B.HP Insight Control for Linux
C.HP Insight Control for PROLiant
D.HP Insight Control for VMware vCenter.
E.HP Insight Control for Microsoft System Center
Answer: C, D

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NO.13 What should you keep in mind when running Capacity Advisor reports?
A. Scenario-based reports use historical data to create the simulated workload data
B. Total system utilization is always greater than the sum of its workloads.
C. Simulated reports are more accurate than those from a direct specification, because the simulated
reports do not add workload on the system.
D. The time required to run a scenario report is significantly longer than the time required to run a
system-based report
Answer: A

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NO.14 How many c-Class blade enclosures are manageable when running HP Virtual Connect Enterprise
Manager 2.0 or later?
A.250
B.1000
C.2000
D.4096
Answer: B

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NO.15 What are feature of Insight Remote Support Standard (Insight RSS)?(Select two.)
A. base option of extended business hours [13*5] monitoring
B.HP Proprietary communications security protocols
C. automatic service dispatch based on customer preferences
D. included with Insight Control licenses
E. does not require HP Systems Insight Manager
Answer: C, E

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NO.16 What functionality is required on the CMS for full Insight Control server migration functionality?
A. Network Time Protocol
B. Internet SCSI initiator
C. a mounted SMP-U CDROM
D. target OS installation file in RDP
Answer: B

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NO.17 A customer environment has two HP BladeSystem c7000 Enclosure, each fully loaded with ProLiant
BL495c server blades, two Virtual Connect Ethernet Modules, and two Virtual Connect Fibre Channel
Modules. How many Virtual Connect Enterprise Manager (VCEM) licenses need to be applied in order to
use VCEM functionality across the whole environment?
A.1 license
B.2 licenses
C.4 licenses
D.32 licenses
Answer: B

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NO.18 Where is the Insight Software performance management data sample rate changed?
A. HP Insight Control
B. HP Insight Dynamics
C. HP Management Agents
D. Virtual Connect Enterprise Manager
Answer: C

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NO.19 Click on the area that should be completed first when preparing the server profile to boot from SAN.
Answer:

NO.20 A customer is using the Insight Control performance management and wants to add their virtual
machine environment of 3 VM hosts and 12 VM guests. How many Insight Control licenses do they need
to manage this environment?
A.3
B.12
C.15
D.16
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP0-J39
Exam Name: HP Designing and Implementing HP P4000 SAN Solutions HP0-J39
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 What are potential purposes to utilize snapshots? (Select two.)
A. to restore files without tape or backup software
B. to protect against unintended manual data deletion
C. to protect against disk failures
D. to protect against multiple hardware failures
E. to prevent sensitive data from modification
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 What are the correct steps to create a remote copy on a P4000 G2?
A. Create the remote volume and link it to the primary volume, copy the data.
B. Create the primary volume, create the remote volume and link it to the primary volume, copy the data.
C. Create the remote volume andsnapshot, link the primary volume to the remote snapshot, copy the
data.
D. Create the primary snapshot, create the remote volume and snapshot, link it to the primary
snapshot,copy the data.
Answer: D

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NO.3 What are characteristics of device specific module MPIO (DSM MPIO)? (Select two.)
A. DSM MPIO redirectsiSCSI communication to the least busy storage node.
B. DSM MPIO communication offers better performance than non-DSM MPIO communication.
C. DSM MPIO is available for all operating systems withiSCSI support.
D. DSM MPIO provides the servers with the data mapping of each node.
E. DSM MPIO provides a set of built-in data transport security features.
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 Click the Exhibit button. Which network protocol should be enabled when using ProCurve switches in an
iSCSI storage network?
A. Mesh Protocol
B. Simple Loop Prevention Protocol
C. Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol
D. Point-to-Point Protocol
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which statements about remote copies are correct? (Select two.)
A. Remote copiescan not be mounted.
B. Remote copies are always thin provisioned.
C. Remote copies are asynchronous replicas of a volume.
D. Remote copies can be synchronous and asynchronous.
E. Remote copies are asynchronous replicas between different clusters.
Answer: B,C

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NO.6 Which benefit does a virtual IP load balancing (VIPLB) initiator provide?
A. directsiSCSI communication to the least busy storage module
B. supports simultaneousiSCSI communication with multiple storage modules
C. selects the next storage module in the list foriSCSI communication
D. prefers the fastest connection foriSCSI communication
Answer: A

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NO.7 How does the HP P4000 SAN solution allow aggregate application performance to be increased when
capacity is added?
A. Capacity and performance are adjusted on a linear scale.
B. Application priority can be adjusted.
C. Capacity and performance are dynamically adjusted to maintain balance.
D. Capacity and performance are balanced through the configuration of expansion modules.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which HBA and iSCSI initiator combination does the iSCSI protocol support? (Select two.)
A. iSCSI HBA with TCP offload engine (TOE)
B. softwareiSCSI initiator with Fibre Channel HBA
C. softwareiSCSI initiator with InfiniBand HBA
D. iSCSI Fibre Channel HBA with TCP TOE software iSCSI initiator
E. softwareiSCSI initiator with NIC
Answer: A,E

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NO.9 A design consists of an HP P4000 SAN solution installed across four sites. How many servers running
the central management console are required to manage the solution?
A. 8
B. 4
C. 2
D. 1
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which operating systems does the HP P4000 SAN solution support? (Select three.)
A. Solaris 9
B. OS X Leopard 10.5.5
C. HP OpenVMS 8.3
D. Novell NetWare 6.5
E. SUSE Linux Enterprise Server 10
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.11 Which instance is responsible for access control?
A. cluster
B. server
C. management group
D. volume
Answer: B

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NO.12 What is the recommended network latency on a multi-site SAN subnet?
A. below 2 ms
B. below 5 ms
C. below 9 ms
D. below 15 ms
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which statements about HP P4000 SAN Network RAID levels are correct? (Select three.)
A. Copies are located on different clusters.
B. Redundant copies of blocks reside on different storage nodes.
C. Performance improves as the number of copies increases.
D. Up to four copies can be created.
E. The Network RAID level is defined per storage node.
F. The number of storage nodes in the cluster can limit the Network RAID level.
Answer: B,D,F

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NO.14 At which level in HP P4000 SAN solutions is RAID configured?
A. storage node
B. volume
C. management group
D. cluster
Answer: A

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NO.15 What is a major enhancement of SAN/iQ 8.5 over SAN/iQ 8.1?
A. Network RAID 1 and 10
B. Network RAID 5 and 6
C. application-managed snapshots
D. thin provisionedSmartClone
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP2-Z14
Exam Name: HP Selling HP S-Series Networking Solutions HP2-Z14
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Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 Which key security challenges are impacting network security today?
A. consumerization, compliance, convergence, consolidation
B. collaboration, compliance, consumerization, convergence
C. compliance, convergence, consumerization, customization
D. collaboration, customization, consumerization, convergence
Answer: A

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NO.2 HP's approach to security and policy enforcement includes the following goals: define once, enforce
everywhere, and provide what kind of responses in real time?
A. automated
B. scalable
C. immediate
D. updated
Answer: A

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NO.3 On your initial sales call with a small startup company, you want to focus on presenting the three
primary benefits of incorporating HP security solutions into their network. You begin your presentation by
discussing how HP solutions reduce risk and reduce costs. What is the third primary benefit?
A. centralized policy management
B. business enablement
C. increased security policies
D. integrated business processes
Answer: B

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NO.4 How does HP ensure that TippingPoint IPS devices achieve high in-line performance? (Select two.)
A. by performing a number of analysis filters in parallel, so we can look for many signatures or problems in
parallel
B. by including granular application access control
C. by deploying multiple IPS appliances with narrow coverage each, thereby increasing throughput
D. by deploying several appliances in parallel and load balancing traffic across them with the core
controller product
Answer: D,A

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NO.5 How do HP Networking security solutions reduce the costs of deploying and managing security systems
in the network? (Select three.)
A. Automated real-time threat mitigation lowers per-incident costs.
B. Higher throughput of data increases reduced time to deployment.
C. Centralized policy management reduces complexity, learning curve, and deployment time.
D. Network-integrated solutions reduce deployment and management costs.
E. Core-to-edge deployment eliminates the need for administrator intervention.
F. Flexibility in deployment options reduces network downtime.
Answer: E,A,C

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NO.6 You have been discussing IPS options with a potential customer. The customer is being hesitant to
deploy an IPS in-line because they are worried that the IPS will block legitimate business traffic that might
occasionally be mislabeled as a threat. What information should be included in your response to the
customer? (Select two.)
A. The only way to catch threats in real-time and block them from your network is by deploying the IPS
appliance in-line.
B. The number of false positives that are blocked are minimal and have no effect on system throughput.
C. TippingPoint is deployed in-line at a far higher rate than the competition, signifying that customers
have trust in the accuracy of our filters, allowing us to provide better automated remediation, and more
effective security with less effort from administrators.
D. A TippingPoint IPS will only block traffic that is designated as risky based on the information provided
by the Digital Vaccine services, and having the IPS in-line will not change this.
E. Our filters are designed to be deployed in-line, and our customers trust our filters.
Answer: A , C

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NO.7 Which statement is true about the HP holistic approach to network security?
A. Different security products working at different locations must work independently to implement the
organizations' desired policies.
B. Similar security solutions have to be deployed at different locations to work well and enforce policies
appropriately.
C. The objective is to define and manage one security policy and coordinate all of your different security
devices across the entire network in a seamless, coordinated fashion.
D. A complete security solution should focus on centralized monitoring and management policies.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which security risks are minimized by utilizing HP Networking security products? (Select three.)
A. security breaches
B. recovery costs
C. system stability
D. system downtime
E. number of attempted attacks
F. data loss
Answer: A,D,F

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NO.9 Item 1 of 50 Mark item for review Your customer has come to you with a large, complex data center that
requires enhanced security. When deciding which HP networking solution to pitch to the customer, which
data-center specific security needs would be appropriate to consider in your decision?
A. scalable, security requirements
B. extensive deployment time
C. de-centralized security policy management requirements
D. limited virtualization
Answer: A

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NO.10 How do HP Networking solutions enable businesses? (Select three.)
A. They can safely open networks to customers and business partners.
B. They isolate business processes.
C. They create new security positions.
D. They provide auditable results.
E. They provide rapid deployment of security services and policies.
F. They eliminate the need for additional security policies.
Answer: A,D,E

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Exam Code: HP0-D11
Exam Name: HP Designing HP Virtualization Solutions [2010] HP0-D11
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 An EVA solution, currently managed by an Array-Based Management (ABM), will be expanded to a
Continuous Access solution. Which prerequisite must be met in order to implement the solution?
A. register SVSP Continuous Access licenses inCommandView EVA
B. install HP Insight Remote Support Standard on physical server
C. register Business Copy licenses in CommandView EVA
D. switchCommandView EVA to Server-Based Management (SBM)
Answer: D

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NO.2 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button. Product benefits often connect directly to customer business requirements that
represent opportunities for virtualization. Some examples of this include such things as accelerating
growth, reducing costs, lessening risk, and improving manageability and security.
Match each requirement to the way that virtualization helps a business achieve it.
Answer:

NO.3 LACCD is the largest community college district in the United States, educating more than 130,000
students at nine campuses spread throughout 36 cities in the greater Los Angeles area.
What are some of the business requirements that led LACCD to migrate from a distributed
desktop PC architecture to an HP Client Virtualization Solution? (Select two.)
A. Educational institutions like LACCD must meet a broad range of requirements defined by users.
B. LACCD was in the midst of a downsizing and consolidation initiative.
C. LACCD could dictate technology capabilities from the top down.
D. School administrators at LACCD use a wide variety of applications where security is essential.
Answer: A,D

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NO.4 Which HP StorageWorks products or solutions provide virtualized scale-up storage? (Select two.)
A. X9000 Network Storage Systems
B. HPStorageWorks 4400 Scalable NAS File Services
C. X5000 Storage Systems
D. P4000 SAN Solutions
E. Enterprise Virtual Array (EVA)
Answer: B,E

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NO.5 What are indications that a business needs virtualization? (Select two.)
A. applications and business services not being delivered on time
B. IT operations that are minimally impacted by business fluctuations
C. under-utilized IT infrastructure
D. reductions in maintenance windows
Answer: A,C

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Exam Code: HP0-M42
Exam Name: HP HP Business Availability Center 8.x Software HP0-M42
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 What is the purpose of the out-of-the-box views in Business Availability Center? (Select three.)
A. to populate the CMDB with relevant data
B. to provide a quick start for working with the CMDB
C. to view CI Types
D. to provide a predefined topology
E. to set up Service Level Agreements
F. to show a high level overview of the business
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.2 What is the purpose of a view?
A. provides a subset of the IT universe model in the CMDB
B. provides a snapshot of the entire IT universe model in the CMDB
C. provides a differentiator between discovery-based CIs and adapters-based CIs
D. provides End User Monitor applications the capability to use the IT universe model in the CMDB
Answer: A

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NO.3 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button. Place the steps to modify a VuGen script in the correct sequence.
Answer:

NO.4 Which statement about a Pattern View is correct?
A. It uses a TQL query to quickly insert a substantial amount of CI data into the CMDB.
B. It is an extension of the Perspective Based View used to add related CIs in the view
dynamically.
C. It defines a static TQL query which extracts relevant information from the CMDB and provides
the currently defined CI status.
D. It defines a persistent TQL query which extracts relevant information from the CMDB to
continuously generate updated results reflected in the view.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which statement about the SiteScope configuration tool is correct?
A. It is a wizard tool useful for configuringSiteScope monitors.
B. It ensures thatSiteScope monitors are configured correctly.
C. It is a utility for exportingSiteScope configuration data.
D. It is a tool for installingSiteScope.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP0-Y37
Exam Name: HP Migrating &Troubleshooting Enterprise Networks HP0-Y37
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 You want to enable RRPP on interface Gigabit Ethernet 1/0/4 of an HP A-Series switch. Which
commands should be configured on this interface? (Select two.)
A. stp disable
B. rrrp ring 1 enable
C. port link-type trunk
D. port link-type rrpp
E. stp enable
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 A provider of MPLS services configures MPLS Layer-3 VPN services for three customers. Each
customer has three branch offices that will be interconnected by MPLS Layer-3 VPNs. One customer is
advertising their IP prefixes between sites using BGP. This customer establishes a backup link directly
connecting Site-1 to Site-2. Which BGP attribute can the provider use to prevent routing update loops in
the MPLS network?
A. COO
B. FOO
C. KOO
D. SOO
E. VOO
Answer: D

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NO.3 A company's LAN is composed of Cisco switches only. The network runs Rapid PVST+ with the short
pathcost method. Cisco distribution switches are set as root and secondary root in all VLANs. These two
switches connect over an Etherchannel. The company wants to install HP PoE switches at the edge of its
LAN. The customer wants to keep the load-balancing of traffic that is set in PVST+. What are the possible
options? (Select three.)
A. ensure Spanning Tree is disabled on the HP edge switch, and configure loop-protection on edge ports
to avoid local loops
B. if the HP edge switch is an A-Series switch, configure Smart Link with load balancing between
instances
C. if the HP edge switch is an A-Series switch, configure Rapid PVST+ on it
D. configure MSTP on the HP edge switch, but set the cost of its uplink higher than that on the channel
between the distribution switches
E. configure MSTP on the HP edge switch and divide the VLANs into different instances
F. configure MSTP on the HP edge switch and set its uplink port cost to 5
G. configure MSTP on the HP edge switch, but set the cost of its uplink lower than that on the channel
between the distribution switches
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.4 Click the Exhibit button.
A provider of MPLS services configures MPLS Layer-3 VPN services for two customers. Each customer
has three branch offices that will be interconnected by MPLS Layer-3 VPNs. The address blocks chosen
by the customers for each site are shown in the following chart:
The provider uses OSPF as its IGP with the Loopback 0 addresses shown as the OSPF router-id and the
MPLS LSR-ID. A traceroute from Cust-A Site #1 to Cust-A Site #2 displays 5 intermediate routers.
Which statements are true? (Select three.)
A. MPLS label TTL expires on P-10.
B. TTL propagation is enabled on PE-1.
C. All but the first trace is processed by PE-2.
D. IP TTL expires on P-20.
E. PE-1 generates ICMP echo replies on behalf of P-10 and P-20.
F. TTL propagation is disabled on PE-1.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.5 Click the Exhibit button.
A provider of MPLS services configures MPLS Layer-3 VPN services for two customers. Each customer
has three branch offices that will be interconnected by MPLS Layer-3 VPNs. The following are address
blocks chosen by the customers for each site as shown in the chart:
The provider uses OSPF as its IGP with the Loopback 0 addresses shown as the OSPF router-id and the
MPLS LSR-ID. Customer A uses a default route on each site. Customer B uses eBGP to exchange routes
with the provider. All MPLS layer-3 VPNs are functioning properly. Which configuration change will cause
Customer-A Site 1 to lose access to Customer-A Site 2?
A. [PE-1]
bgp 1
undo import-route static
B. [P-10]
ospf 1
area 0
abr-summary 16.0.0.2 30 cost 1000
C. [PE-1]
int vlan 100
undo mpls ldp
D. [PE-3]
bgp 1
undo peer 16.0.0.1 reflect-client
E. [P-10]
ip route static 10.1.0.0 16 null 0 preference 9
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is a characteristic of load balancing in RRPP?
A. multiple RRPP rings within a domain
B. overlapping RRPP rings
C. multiple RRPP domains with different root priorities
D. It is not possible to load balance with RRPP.
E. multiple RRPP domains sharing the same ring
Answer: E

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NO.7 Click the Exhibit button and view the three exhibits.
When interface Serial 4 of Router 2 fails, traffic from Router 1 destined for network 156.152.0.0/16 leaves
AS 65001 via the Serial 3 interface of Router 1. The administrator prefers that this traffic leaves AS 65001
through interface Serial 5 of Router 2. Which configuration change will achieve the desired results?
A. Router-2#
bgp 100
peer 16.0.0.1 next-hop-local
B. Router-2#
route-policy Policy permit node 10
apply local-preference 500
bgp 100
peer 156.152.5.1 route-policy Policy
C. Router-2#
route-policy Policy permit node 10
apply preferred-value 500
bgp 100
peer 156.152.5.1 route-policy Policy
D. Router-1#
route-policy Policy permit node 10
apply preferred-value 500
bgp 100
peer 16.0.0.2 route-policy Policy
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which statements about BPDU Guard are correct? (Select three.)
A. It is a Cisco proprietary protocol that prevents other switches from sending BDPUs.
B. BPDU Guard filters the standard BDPUs received on the port.
C. BPDU Guard filters the PVST BDPUs received on the port.
D. BPDU Guard generates an alarm when a BPDU is received on the port and may block the port.
E. BPDU Guard is an open standard.
F. BPDU Guard is not a protocol. It must be applied locally and individually on switches.
Answer: B,D,F

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NO.9 Click the Exhibit button.
Which statements are true about the BGP configuration of this HP A-Series router? (Select two.)
A. The router announces IP prefix 200.1.0.0/23 to its BGP neighbor if the network is in routing table.
B. The as-path ACL define networks that were last forwarded by AS 200.
C. The configuration includes a filter out to the neighbor 222.222.10.1.
D. The BGP router is in AS 200 and its BGP neighbor is in AS 100.
E. The BGP router will establish a BFD connection with its BGP neighbor 222.222.10.1 if the neighbor is
also configured for BFD
Answer: A,E

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NO.10 Which statement is true about BGP Route Refresh? (Select two.)
A. Route Refresh is a feature for supported CPU functions with BGP routers that manage high number of
IP Prefixes.
B. Route Refresh is advertised as a BGP capability to BGP neighbors during BGP session
establishment.
C. BGP Route Refresh eliminates the need for a Hard Reset of the BGP connection with a BGP neighbor
when route policies are changed.
D. With Route Refresh, a BGP router stores all BGP prefixes sent by a BGP neighbor.
E. With Route Refresh, a BGP Hard Reset is used to generate inbound updates from a neighbor or to
generate outbound updates to a neighbor.
Answer: B,C

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NO.11 Which statements are true about DHCP Snooping? (Select two.)
A. DHCP Snooping is a Cisco Proprietary protocol. The standard is not yet ratified.
B. DHCP Snooping prevents end nodes from receiving IP address assignments from an unauthorized
DHCP server.
C. DHCP Snooping is a malicious attack against the DHCP servers.
D. The DHCP Snooping binding table contains information about hosts interconnected with a trusted
interface.
E. DHCP Snooping is when a switch acts as a DHCP server for end nodes that connect to that particular
switch. This way, end nodes always get an IP address.
F. When configuring DHCP Snooping on a switch, you define which ports are trusted to receive DHCP
offers. Typically uplinks of a switch are trusted and Edge ports are untrusted.
Answer: B,F

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NO.12 You want to add HP edge switches to a company's Cisco network. Distribution Cisco switches are set as
the Rapid PVST+ root and secondary root. You connect HP A-Series switches that are running their
factory default configuration to the two Cisco distribution switches. What will happen.?
A. If you connect the edge switch with a redundant link to both distribution switches, you create a loop and
a broadcast storm on the Cisco network.
B. Cisco distribution switches send tagged PVST+ BPDUs to the HP switch. Because 802.1q is not yet
configured on HP switch uplinks, the PVST+ BPDUs are dropped. A loop occurs.
C. Cisco distribution switches send untagged standard BPDUs to the HP switch in VLAN 1, and in
response the HP switch blocks one of the uplinks on all VLANs, preventing a loop.
D. Cisco distribution switches send untagged standard BPDUs to HP switch in VLAN 1, which the HP
switch forwards to the other distribution switch, preventing a loop. The HP switch drops all tagged data
frames.
Answer: D

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NO.13 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button. In a multihome AS, you are replacing one of the BGP-configured Cisco routers with
a BGP-configured HP A-Series router. You want to reduce the downtime during the migration process.
Place the steps for the migration in the correct order.
Answer:

NO.14 Click the Exhibit button.
You are replacing a Cisco BGP router with an HP A-Series BGP router. Examine the router's
configurations. Which statements accurately describe the routers' configurations? (Select three.)
A. Both configurations are identical in function.
B. The HP A-Series router will not implement the same BGP functions as the Cisco router.
C. Both BGP routers announce a static route to its BGP neighbor.
D. Both BGP routers announce network 215.34.10.0/22.
E. Neither BGP routers can announce a redistributed static route because no metrics are set.
F. The A-Series router's prefix list is misconfigured.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.15 Which protocols are supported on the HP A-Series switch? (Select three.)
A. SSH v1 only
B. SSH v1 and v2
C. RADIUS only
D. TACACS+ and RADIUS
E. TACACS and RADIUS
F. SNMPv2c only
G. SNMPv2c and SNMPv3
Answer: B,D,G

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Exam Code: HP0-Y32
Exam Name: HP Design and Troubleshooting Open Standard Networks HP0-Y32
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 You install new category 6a home run network cables for all users. You test a random sampling of the
cables, and they all pass. Users are complaining about dropped packets, slowness, and other intermittent
results. What is the best tool to use for initial troubleshooting?
A. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
B. Time Domain Reflectometer (TDR)
C. Packet Analyzer
D. HP Intelligent Communications Manager (ICM)
Answer: B

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NO.2 Click the Exhibit button.
You need to limit the amount of broadcast traffic in this customer's network. In order to do so, you add a
second VLAN, VLAN2 (10.0.1.0/24). Now, clients on VLAN2 cannot reach the Internet and cannot ping
clients on VLAN1. They can successfully ping the default gateway (10.0.1.1). What should you do first to
determine the cause of the problem?
A. Disable broadcast limiting on the core switch.
B. Check the ISP's firewall settings and modify accordingly.
C. Request the configuration of the network devices.
D. Request a network trace from the ISP.
E. Get the MAC address table of the network devices.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Click the Exhibit button.
A user adds an untagged link between switch 20c and 30b. What is the impact of the user's actions?
A. Internet connectivity to subnet 20 users is broken.
B. STP Root Bridge of Subnet 20 moves.
C. All Subnet 20 traffic is routed through Subnet 30.
D. STP alternate path selection remains unchanged.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which step will provide helpful information about the issue?
A. Analyze the port statistics for the client you are pinging from.
B. Compare the arp table entries on the client when it works and when it does not.
C. Analyze the port statistics for the switch to which the client is connected.
D. Analyze the port statistics for all clients in VLAN 2 when the problem occurs.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Click the Exhibit button.
A user adds an untagged link between switch 20c and 30b. Which action can you take that will help you
discover this new link?
A. Investigate switch syslog information for gateway changes.
B. Compare route tables of both routers.
C. Review LLDP information on subnet 20 root bridge.
D. Follow path cost to root from subnet 20.
E. Initiate a traceroute from both subnets.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Click the Exhibit button.
You install two E5400 zl Series switches and connect them with a two-port static trunk. All hosts on both
switches are in VLAN 20. However, some hosts on Core 1 cannot ping some hosts on Core 2 and vice
versa. All hosts can ping all hosts on their own switch. Event logs on the two switches do not show
significant errors. What should you do to determine the cause of this connectivity issue? (Select three.)
A. Use traceroute to determine which device is dropping the ping packets.
B. Verify the trunk configuration on each core switch.
C. Change the IP address for the default VLAN on Core 2 so that it is in the same subnet as the default
VLAN on Core 1.
D. Verify physical connectivity between the switches.
E. Use LLDP to check the identities of the devices and their neighbors.
Answer: BDE

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NO.7 Click the Exhibit button.
Which issue does the Optical Time Domain Reflectometer (OTDR) show?
A. out of phase
B. extensive attenuation
C. loss of [optical] signal
D. bend or kink in the optical cable
E. low frequency roll-off C:\Pasban Work\Cert Paper
Exams\HP\HP0-Y32\HP0-Y32-A-Extracted\HP0-Y32-A-Extracted\HP0-Y32-A\23.JPG
Answer: D

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NO.8 You are working with a customer who has reported connectivity issues on a specific VLAN. All of their
clients were previously in VLAN1 until VLAN10 was added in order to limit the amount of broadcast traffic.
Now, the clients on VLAN10 cannot reach the Internet. These clients cannot ping clients on VLAN1, but
can successfully ping the default gateway. Which information will help you troubleshoot this problem?
(Select two.)
A. network topology map
B. uptime of the network devices
C. network IP addressing scheme
D. names of all VLANS
E. a list of the NTP servers on the network
Answer: AC

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NO.9 Based on these basic facts, what can you "rule out" as possible causes of this problem? (Select three.)
A. the external gateway having no route to VLAN 2
B. misconfigured clients in VLAN1
C. a transient layer 1 issue
D. the firewall enabled on the client causing connectivity issues
E. a loop in VLAN1
Answer: ACD

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NO.10 Click the Exhibit button.
A user adds an untagged link between switch 20c and 30b. Which link transitions are blocked on subnet
20?
A. link from 20b to 20c
B. link from 20a to 20c
C. link from 20a to 20b
D. link from 20c to 30b
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP2-B71
Exam Name: HP HP Secure Prescription Printing Solutions Sales HP2-B71
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Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 Which processes does e-prescribing involve?
A. Facsimile
B. direct computer-to-computer transfer of data
C. emailing
D. prescription encryption
Answer: B

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NO.2 Where does the healthcare industry rank in the amount of paper used by an industry?
A. First
B. Second
C. Third
D. fourth
Answer: A

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NO.3 What are key business drivers in the healthcare industry? (Select two.)
A. containing costs
B. complying with insurance company paperwork
C. reducing the number of medical errors
D. providing healthcare for the uninsured
E. aging clinical staffs
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 What is the most common method of obtaining a fraudulent prescription, according to the National
Association of Chain Drug Stores?
A. altering a handwritten prescription
B. doctor shopping
C. stealing a preprinted prescription pad
D. retrieving prescriptions from the garbage
Answer: B

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NO.5 How does the United States Government encourage the use of electronic medical records
(EMRs)?
A. by providing tax breaks for facilities that use EMR systems
B. by providing financial incentives to facilities under the economic stimulus package
C. by directing Medicare patients to facilities with EMRsystems
D. by certifying only facilities using EMR systems
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP2-E40
Exam Name: HP HP Visual Collaboration-Sales HP2-E40
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Updated: 2013-08-31

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NO.1 You are discussing the HP Visual Collaboration with a potential customer.Which key selling points
should you present? (Select two.)
A.HPVC uses HP proprietary hardware, services, and solutions to provide the best visual experiences
company-wide.
B.HPVC lowers capital costs and simplifies management with a scalable infrastructure.
C.HPVC reaches anyone face-to-face in LD, without the high cost of proprietary hardware.
D.HPVC lowers travel costs and improves productivity for the entire workforce.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Your customer is concerned that because it is SVC-based, buying HP Visual Collaboration will lock
them into a proprietary solution.How should you respond to this customer? (Select two.)
A.Tell the customer not to worry; it is not important that the solution interoperate with other endpoints.
B.Advise the customer that HP is currently participating in several industry organizations that are focused
on interoperability.
C.Explain that HP believes that SVC will become an industry standard, so interoperability will not be an
issue.
D.Tell the customer that all SVC-based endpoints from different vendors interoperate, so this is not an
issue.
Answer: B,C

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NO.3 Your customer asks why she shouldn t buy the visual collaboration products directly from Vidyo or one
of their channel partners.How should you respond to this customer?
A.Tell the customer that HP has modified the software code to add new features and make it a higher
quality experience for the end user.
B.Advise the customer that HP offers several cost-savings features that are not offered by other vendors
of the product.
C.Explain that HP offers a complete solution including endpoints, infrastructure, services, networking and
on-going support.
D.Tell the customer that only HP has the knowledge and expertise to successfully integrate the products
into the customer s current infrastructure.
Answer: B

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