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Exam Code: HP0-662
Exam Name: NonStop Configuration and Planning
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Exam Code: HP2-B76
Exam Name: HP Imaging and Printing Technical Fundamentals
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Exam Code: HP2-B112
Exam Name: HP Document Workflow - Technical
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NO.1 docId%253Demr_na-c030467044%257CdocLocale%253D%257CcalledBy%253D&javax.portlet.be
gCacheTok=com.vignett
e.cachetoken&javax.portlet.endCacheTok=com.vignette.cachetoken(4thbulleted point)
3. Which configuration option is required to enable Send to Home Directory?
A. Enable sent to email SMTP authentication
B. Enable front panel user authentication
C. Administrator password EWS authentication
D. SNMPv3 key authentication
Answer: B

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Reference:http://h20565.www2.hp.com/portal/site/hpsc/template.PAGE/public/kb/docDispla
y/?javax.portlet.begCacheTok=com.vignette.cachetoken&javax.portlet.endCacheTok=com.
vignette.cachetoken&javax.portlet.prp_ba847bafb2a2d782fcbb0710b053ce01=wsrpnavigationalSta
te%3DdocId%253Demr_na-c027201942%257CdocLocale%253D%257CcalledBy%253D&javax.portlet
.tpst=ba847bafb2a2d782fc
bb0710b053ce01&sp4ts.oid=415204&ac.admitted=1385618012286.876444892.49288315

NO.2 What is Windows authentication?
A. A proprietary port on HP Jetdirect cards
B. A programming language for web development
C. A printer control language
D. A way of identifying a user before access is granted
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is one way to improve MFP email security?
A. Require the MFP user to type something in the subject field.
B. Encrypt it using SMTP SSL protocol
C. Configure the MFP file system password
D. Configure the MFP Admin password
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which field is required before you can configure the HP DSS Save to Network Folder OCR
option?
A. SNMP OID location
B. SMTP location
C. Destination folder location
D. LDAP attribute location
Answer: D

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y=docDisplayResURL&javax.portlet.begCacheTok=com.vignette.cachetoken&spf_p.rst_kb
DocDisplay=wsrp-resourceState%3DdocId%253Demr_na-c004331243%257CdocLocale%253D&javax
.portlet.endCacheTok=com.vignette.cachetoken

NO.5 Where is the Quick Setup Wizard located?
A. In the HP Address Book Manager
B. In the user PC device manager
C. In the HP MFP Embedded Web Server
D. In the HP OXP deployment tool
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is one reason that HP flow MFPs can scan up to twice as fast as other models?
A. They have single-pass dual-head scanners.
B. The paper handling engine turns twice as fast.
C. The document scanner uses page wide array technology.
D. Itincludes ultrasonic pick detection
Answer: A

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Exam Code: PK0-003
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NO.1 Which of the following should an administrator perform to harden a VM that has been
provisioned in a public cloud environment before deploying the system?
A. Defrag system
B. Update drivers
C. Disable firewall
D. Patch system
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following can be used to encrypt data at rest on a VM located in the cloud?
A. AES
B. SSL
C. TLS
D. VPN
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following should an administrator implement when connecting the company's
existing network to a public cloud environment to ensure confidentiality of data that is being
transmitted?
A. A proxy server
B. A load balancing solution
C. An IPSec tunnel
D. A server clustering solution
Answer: C

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NO.4 An administrator is creating a new VM template and has a requirement that the OS must be
hardened. Which of the following should be performed to harden a guest OS?
A. Encrypt the hard drive
B. Run defrag
C. Rename administrator account
D. Change page file
Answer: C

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NO.5 A company has decided to reduce their datacenter size. An administrator for the company has
been tasked to virtualize many of the company's servers. Which of the following should the
administrator perform to accomplish this goal?
A. P2V
B. P2P
C. V2P
D. V2V
Answer: A

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NO.6 An administrator is tasked to reduce the company's datacenter power utilization. Currently
there are 500 physical servers in the datacenter and 600 virtual servers with five additional available
host servers. Which of the following should the administrator perform?
A. Migrate servers using V2V technology
B. Perform an offline migration of virtual servers
C. Migrate servers using V2P technology
D. Migrate servers using P2V technology
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following technologies would MOST likely be used for personal use to virtualize a
desktop?
A. Type II
B. Type I
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 0
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following is MOST important when factoring network level security in a public
cloud environment?
A. Ensuring good user experience
B. Ensuring confidentiality
C. Ensuring redundancy
D. Ensuring high availability
Answer: B

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Exam Code: BI0-125
Exam Name: IBM Cognos 8 BI Data Warehouse Developer
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NO.1 A DataStream includes two different data sources: "Golf Equipment" and "Other Equipment." For each
incoming row, the developer wants to add a value that indicates the data source that the row comes from.
What should the developer do?
A. Create a static member for each data source in the underlying hierarchy.
B. Add a literal to each data source that references the data source name.
C. Specify the source identity property for each data source in the DataStream.
D. Add a derivation to the transformation model to create a new column.
Answer:B

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NO.2 Which object is required to create a Data Manager catalog?
A. Cognos 8 package
B. Fact build
C. JobStream
D. Database
Answer:D

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NO.3 Are you an:
A. IBM Customer
B. IBM Partner
C. IBM Employee
Answer:A

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NO.4 A developer has added a data source connection to a Data Manager catalog. This connection points to
a relational database. The developer wants to view the contents of this database, such as the number of
tables that it contains. What tool could the administrator use?
A. SQLTerm
B. SQLTXT Designer
C. ODBC Administrator
D. Reference Explorer
Answer:A

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NO.5 A developer wants to create a connection to a database in a Data Manager catalog. When creating this
connection, which of the following must the developer specify?
A. A default schema name.
B. Connection method that must be used to connect to the database.
C. Names, locations, and port numbers for the SOAP and socket servers.
D. User ID and pasword for the Cognos 8 content store database.
Answer:B

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NO.6 What distinguishes an OLTP system from a data warehouse?
A. An OLTP system captures and processes original business transactions, while a data warehouse does
not.
B. A data warehouse captures and processes original business transactions, while an OLTP system does
not.
C. An OLTP system is used to transform, clean, and combine operational data, while a data warehouse is
not.
D. A data warehouse is fully normalized, while an OLTP system is fully denormalized.
Answer:A

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NO.7 A developer wants to create a connection to a published Framework Manager package in a Data
Manager catalog. Before this connection can be created successfully, what must the developer do?
A. Add an LDAP or NTLM namespace in Cognos Configuration.
B. Configure Data Manager to access the Cognos 8 Gateway and Dispatcher URLs.
C. Log on to Cognos Connection as a user in the Data Manager Authors role.
D. Create a data source connection to the Cognos 8 data store.
Answer:B

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NO.8 If you are successful with this exam, do you agree to have your name made available to relevent IBM
personnel for project staffing?.
A. Yes
B. No
Answer:A

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Exam Code: 1D0-437
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NO.1 Which is the preferred approach to communicate important action items in an e-mail message
to a co-worker?
A. Write the action items using all capital letters.
B. List the action items in a numbered or bulleted list for clarity.
C. Include emoticons to ensure the recipient understands your humor.
D. Describe all action items at length in a detailed paragraph in the middle of the message.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Melanie works in the sales department at XYZ Company. She decides that her company's
marketing team has done a poor job representing the company's brand. Without direction or
permission, she starts her own social networking account to help. This account's name is called
XYZProfessional. To customize her page, she uses company logos and verbiage from the company
Web site. She then begins communicating with customers and individuals interested in XYZ via this
service. Which of the following would be the most appropriate response to Melanie's actions by the
company?
A. Providing a link to Melanie's page from the company's official social networking account
B. Sending Melanie a request from the company's Human Resources department to stop using
company logos, yet allowing her to continue using this social networking account
C. Adding references to Melanie's social networking page in the company's internal newsletter
D. Terminating Melanie's employment for copyright and trademark violation, with a
cease-and-desist letter asking for control of the account
Answer: D

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NO.3 Marcella is looking for a very unique product online. She has found one on the XYZ Company's
Web site, which is designed well and appears to be legitimate. As she navigates through the
checkout process, she reaches the checkout page with this URL, which asks her to enter her credit
card information:
http://XYZ.com/gp/checkout.html/ref=chk_out_TLS12B_lb?ie=UTF8&docId=10007931
Why should Marcella cancel her online transaction instead of proceeding?
A. Because the site uses 128-bit encryption, which is illegal for companies that are located overseas
B. Because the link contains abbreviations and is not completely readable, so Marcella is unsure of
the server name
C. Because the link does not use SSL/TLS encryption and therefore the information Marcella enters
would not be secure
D. Because the link uses SSL/TLS encryption, which Marcella knows is not compatible with the
browser she is using
Answer: C

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NO.4 An end user cannot log in to a page that provides an c-learning course. The authentication
window will not launch. Which of the following is most likely the cause of this problem?
A. Pop-up blocking software has been enabled in the operating system.
B. The browser has recently had its cookie cache cleared.
C. The browser has recently had its browsing history cleared.
D. Pop-up blocking software has been enabled in the Web browser.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following is a legal and ethical practice?
A. Copying someone else's written work found on the Internet and presenting it as your own, as
long as it is for schoolwork.
B. Trying shareware for free and paying for it only after you decide to keep using it.
C. Downloading copyrighted artwork and using it as a background on your Web site.
D. Downloading music and motion pictures as long as they are from a peer-to-peer network.
Answer: B

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NO.6 To reduce the costs of maintaining servers with FTP access; your company is using P2P to
facilitate sharing of information. Which strategy should your company use to protect the company's
sensitive information while capitalizing on the benefits of P2P power?
A. Limit P2P use to sharing music files.
B. Restrict employees from using their computers in P2P communications.
C. Use technologies that will control access and password-protect files.
D. Restrict P2P use to sharing only with universities and research organizations.
Answer: C

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NO.7 One of your co-workers calls you to ask if you sent her an e-mail message with an attachment.
You recall that you sent several c-mails with attachments earlier that day. Which of the following is
your best response to this question?
A. Ask your co-worker to open the attachment and describe the contents.
B. Ask your co-worker to read the e-mail message including the full name of the attachment and its
extension.
C. Ask your co-worker to forward the e-mail to you so you can open the attachment and check it.
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NO.1 How should Harder Electronics deploy required Citrix hot fixes?
A. All required hot fixes should be deployed by means of Installation Manager. Testing should be done.
B. Emergency hot fixes should be deployed through manual installation with limited documentation.
All other hot fixes should be deployed by means of Installation Manager with full documentation.
C. All Citrix hot fixes should be deployed by means of Resource Manager. Testing should be done.
D. All Citrix hot fixes should be deployed by means of the Access Suite Console. Testing should be done.
Answer: A

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NO.2 How would you install the applications into load managed groups and application isolation
environments?
A. TempoLicense/Access 97 should be installed into a load managed group, and MfgData+ and HR+ into
separate application isolation environments.
B. TempoLicense/Access 97 should be installed into a load managed group, and MfgData+ and HR+ into
the same application isolation environment.
C. TempoLicense/Access 97 should be installed into an application isolation environment, and MfgData+
and HR+ into separate load managed groups.
D. TempoLicense/Access 97 should be installed into an application isolation environment, and MfgData+
and HR+ into the same load managed group.
Answer: C

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NO.3 How should the Presentation Server Client be deployed?
A. Users should be directed to download Presentation Server Client from the Citrix web site.
B. Presentation Server Clients should be deployed to client devices by Web Interface.
C. Presentation Server Clients should be deployed to client devices by means of Active Directory
Software Installation GPO (group policy objects.)
D. Users should be instructed to download Presentation Server Client from the company intranet site.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Why would you recommend installing TempoLicense/Access 97 into an application isolation
environment?
A. Because TempoLicense/Access 97 and Office 2003 cannot co-exist without application isolation
environments.
B. Because Access 97 and Access 2003 cannot co-exist without application isolation environments.
C. Because TempoLicense/Access 97 has compatibility issue with HR+ and MfgData+.
D. Because it allows you to consolidate serviers.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Why should the Presentation Servers hosting MfgData+ be deployed in all locations?
A. For redundancy purposes it is good to have Presentation Servers in multiple locations.
B. Other sites have lower operating costs which offset the higher costs of NT, London and Sydney.
C. There are users located in all sites.
D. This way thee users can be as close as possible to the Presentation Servers so they will have fast
access.
Answer: A

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NO.6 A decision was made to deploy Office 2003 on all Citrix Presentation Servers. Given this decision,
what would you recommend as an application deployment scenario for MfgData+, HR+, and
TempoLicense/Access 97 at Harder Electronics?
A. Implement load managed groups exclusively to address all requirements.
B. Implement load managed groups to address one or more requirements and application isolation
environments to address one or more requirements.
C. Only publish applications that are compatible onto Presentation Server.
D. Implement application isolation environments exclusively to address all requirements.
Answer: B

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NO.7 If Harder Electronics wishes to closely monitor CPU usage, how should this be done within Resource
Manager, and what archiving should be recommended?
A. The default configuration of the Processor Time metric is likely optimal, and all data related to the
metric should be recorded in the Summary Dataabase.
B. The default configuration of the Processor Time metric is likely optimal, and the metric should be
recorded in the Summary Database based only on business hours.
C. The Citrix CPU Utilization Mgmt User object and counters should be reviewed and configured as
metrics if pertinent. All data relating to the metric(s). should be recorded in the Summary Database.
D. The Citrix CPU Utilization Mgmt User object and counters should be reviewed and configured as
metrics if pertinent. The metric(s) should be recorded in the Summary Database based only on business
hours.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Based upon the given environment and requirements of Harder Electronics and the design decisions
you're made so far, how would you design the zones?
A. Consolidate the eight data centers into one data center in New York based on a single zone.
B. Consolidate the three MEX zones into a single zone and the two PROD zones into a single, separate
zone.
C. Consolidate the three MEX zones into a single zone and segregate the test/development zone within
the PROD farm into a separate farm.
D. Segregate each data center into a zone, as the number of servers at each site is equivalent and
adequate bandwidth exists across data centers.
Answer: C

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NO.1 Scenario: An administrator is creating a NetScaler Gateway virtual server for mobile devices
only. The administrator must include two-factor authentication.
Which two steps must the administrator take to configure two-factor authentication for this
environment? (Choose two.)
A. Bind the RSA policy first.
B. Bind the LDAP policy first.
C. Create an authentication policy.
D. Create a pre-authentication policy.
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 Scenario: An administrator implemented RADIUS with NetScaler Gateway as a two-factor
authentication solution for a XenDesktop implementation. A planned outage is scheduled in wake of
a software upgrade on the RADIUS infrastructure. During the outage, the administrator needs to
disable the two-factor authentication on NetScaler Gateway to enable users' continued access to
published applications.
Which action could the administrator take to meet the needs of the scenario without affecting the
connected users?
A. Delete the RADIUS authentication policy.
B. Set the RADIUS policy to be secondary authentication.
C. Disable authentication on the NetScaler Gateway virtual server.
D. Unbind the RADIUS authentication policy from the NetScaler Gateway virtual server.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Scenario: An administrator is implementing a two-factor authentication solution with an RSA
SecureID product. The administrator already has the server name and port number of the RSA
server.
Which additional information does the administrator need to configure RSA SecureID?
A. LDAP password
B. Firewall access rule
C. Authentication policy
D. RADIUS shared secret
Answer: D

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NO.4 Scenario: An administrator has an existing SSL certificate that is installed and used on a
Microsoft Windows IIS server. The administrator exported the certificate, including the private key,
to a PFX file and now wants to use that certificate for SSL Offloading on NetScaler.
Which two methods could the administrator use to import the certificate on NetScaler? (Choose
two.)
A. Import PKCS#12.
B. Change advanced SSL settings.
C. Use the Server Certificate Wizard.
D. Convert the certificate to PEM format.
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 An administrator plans to use only Citrix Receiver for XenDesktop remote access through a
NetScaler Gateway device.
Which type of policy should the administrator configure to meet this requirement?
A. Session
B. Authentication
C. Clientless access
D. Pre-authentication
Answer: A

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NO.6 An administrator created a service for a Web Interface server that is encrypted by an SSL
certificate.
Which command should the administrator run at the command-line interface to create a monitor
that will check the Web Interface by logging on to it with a test user's credentials?
A. add lb monitor mon-WebInterface CITRIX-WI-EXTENDED -sitePath "/Citrix/XenApp" userName
user -domain DomainName -password P@ssw0rd -encrypted
B. add lb monitor mon-WebInterface CITRIX-WI-EXTENDED -sitePath "/Citrix/XenApp" userName
user -domain DomainName -password P@ssw0rd -secure YES
C. add lb monitor mon-WebInterface CITRIX-WI-EXTENDED -sitePath "/Citrix/XenApp" userName
user -domain DomainName -password P@ssw0rd -destPort 443
D. add lb monitor mon-WebInterface CITRIX-WI-EXTENDED -sitePath "/Citrix/XenApp" userName
user -domain DomainName -password P@ssw0rd -encrypted -secure YES
Answer: B

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NO.7 Scenario: An administrator configured a NetScaler Gateway session policy named spol_ICAP .
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security group log on to the NetScaler Gateway virtual server named vsrv_AGEE.
Which command should the administrator run at the command-line interface to meet the needs of
the scenario?
A. bind vpn vserver vsrv_AGEE ICAP
B. bind aaa group ICAP -policy spol_ICAP
C. bind aaa group ICAP -policy spol_ICAP -global OFF
D. bind vpn vserver vsrv_AGEE -policy spol_ICAP -priority 1
Answer: B

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NO.8 An administrator needs to install a certificate from the NetScaler onto a Microsoft Windows IIS
server.
Which action should the administrator complete before the certificate can be imported on the IIS
server?
A. Select Export PKCS#12 and copy the file to Windows.
B. Copy the certificate file from /nsconfig/ssl to Windows.
C. Copy the certificate file and the key file from /nsconfig/ssl to Windows.
D. Manage Certificates / Keys / CSRs and download the certificate file to Windows.
Answer: A

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NO.1 An administrator is configuring Access Gateway for users that will be connecting to virtual desktops
remotely. The administrator needs to include settings for network traffic to XenDesktop.
Which component should the administrator configure to communicate with the Access Gateway?
A. Web Interface
B. Domain Controller
C. Virtual Desktop Agent
D. Desktop Delivery Controller
Answer: A

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NO.2 In which scenario should an administrator enable user-driven desktop restart?
A. Users need to restart virtual desktops when they take too long to appear
B. Users need to resume working where they left off when a virtual desktop is restarted
C. Users need to restart both the local desktop and the virtual desktop at the same time
D. Users need any unsaved work to be saved automatically when restarting a virtual desktop
Answer: A

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NO.3 An administrator created multiple policies in a XenDesktop environment. Each policy has various policy
rules configured with multiple filters based on how users access virtual desktops, the desktop group a
user belongs to, and the client IP address.
When a user logs on to access a virtual desktop, only the __________ will be applied to the user.
(Choose the correct phrase to complete the sentence.)
A. resultant policy
B. highest priority policy
C. policies without conflicts
D. most recently created policy
Answer: A

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NO.4 A user is attempting to access a virtual desktop provided by Provisioning Services. The Desktop
Delivery Controller has requested that the virtual machine infrastructure boot the virtual desktop.
Which step in the desktop delivery process occurs next?
A. The disk image will be streamed to the virtual desktop
B. The Desktop Delivery Controller will query the license server
C. The Profile Management feature will apply user profile settings to the virtual desktop
D. The computer account of the virtual desktop will be created in Microsoft Active Directory
Answer: A

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NO.5 An administrator just created a desktop group that will assign virtual desktops to users upon first use of
the desktop. The administrator now decides to change the desktop group so that the virtual desktops are
pre-assigned.
What must the administrator do to change the desktop group from assign on first use to pre-assigned?
A. Recreate the desktop group using the Access Management Console
B. Change the settings of the desktop group using the XenDesktop Setup Wizard
C. Reconfigure the properties of the desktop group using the Access Management Console
D. Assign the desktop group to a new organizational unit using the Active Directory Configuration Wizard
Answer: A

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NO.6 An administrator is creating a vDisk in a XenDesktop environment and wants to enable automatic vDisk
updates.
Which two vDisk properties must the administrator configure in order for a newer vDisk to replace an older
vDisk? (Choose two.)
A. Date
B. Type
C. Class
D. Description
E. Serial number
Answer: BC

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application. No other applications will be added to the vDisk.
The administrator should create the vDisk so that the vDisk size is __________ MB according to best
practice, and the VHD format is __________. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. 2040; fixed
B. 8192; fixed
C. 16384; fixed
D. 2040; dynamic
E. 8192; dynamic
F. 16384; dynamic
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which XenDesktop feature allows an administrator to reduce the amount of storage used in an
environment?
A. Desktop optimization
B. High definition performance
C. Single image desktop management
D. Reliable desktop access management
Answer: C

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NO.1 You are working a large poster. The poster will be printed on six tiled pages, each defined by an
artboard. The artboards have been arranged with no space between them. You want to position objects
based on the upper-left corner of the upper-left artboard. Which rulers should you use?
A. Artboard
B. Global
C. Video
D. Perspective Grid
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which settings or command allows you to view a pixel grid when you are creating web graphics?
A. Pixel Preview on, Zoom set above 600%
B. Pixel Preview on, Zoom set above 100%
C. Pixel Preview on, Full Screen Mode
D. Choose View > Show Grid
Answer: A

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NO.3 Using the Layers panel, you want to move objects that are selected from one layer to a locked layer by
dragging the Selected Art icon to the target layer. Which key combination should you use?
A. Command+Option-drag (Mac OS) or Ctrl+Alt-drag (Windows)
B. Shift-drag
C. Command-drag (Mac OS) or Ctrl-drag (Windows)
D. Option-drag (Mac OS) or Alt-drag (Windows)
Answer: C

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NO.4 You want to print a document with trim marks and a bleed value of 0.1875 inches. You choose File >
Print. What should you do to prevent printer marks from being visible in the bleed area?
A. Set the value for all bleeds to a value above 0.1875 inch.
B. Deselect Auto-Rotate and choose Tile in the Options area.
C. Enter a value of 0.1875 inch for all bleed settings and the Offset setting.
D. Select the Use Document Bleed Settings option, and deselect Color Bars and Page Information.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which profile in the New Document dialog box has the following default settings?
RGB, 72 PPI document with Align to Pixel Grid disabled
Measurement units set to Pixels
Page orientation set to Portrait
A. Mobile and Devices
B. Web
C. Basic RGB
D. Flash Catalyst
Answer: A

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NO.6 You have created a nested artboard in a multiple artboard document. Which two file formats will enable
you to save or export each artboard into an individual file? (Choose two.)
A. Adobe Illustrator (ai)
B. SVG (svg)
C. BMP (bmp)
D. Adobe FXG (fxg)
E. Photoshop (psd)
F. Windows Metafile (wmf)
Answer: A,E

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NO.7 You want to use the Shift key plus any arrow keys to nudge objects 1 pica. There are 12 points in a pica.
Which value should you enter in the Keyboard Increment field in the general preference?
A. 12 pt
B. 1.2 pt
C. 120 pt
D. 0.12 pt
Answer: B

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NO.8 Where does the new artboard appear when you create it using the New Artboard button in the Artboard
panel.?
A. To the left of all current artboards
B. To the right of all current artboards
C. Below all curent artboards
D. Above all curent artboards
Answer: B

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NO.1 Click the Exhibit button.
How should you simultaneously rotate the layers indicated in the exhibit without changing the stacking
order in the Layers palette?
A. select one layer; Shift+click the other layers; apply the rotation
B. select one layer; Shift+click the other layers; choose Layer>Group Layers; apply the rotation
C. select one layer; then Ctrl+click (Windows) or Command+click (Mac OS) the other layers; apply the
rotation
D. select one layer; Ctrl+click (Windows) or Command+click (Mac OS) the other layers; choose
Layer>Group Layers; apply the rotation
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which layer parameter can be saved when creating a Layer Comp?
A. layer styles
B. layer opacity
C. layer stacking order
D. layer blending mode
Answer: A

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NO.3 You are using variables and data sets to create a series of web banners. One of the variables will use a
pixel replacement. You want to scale the replacement image so that none of the bounding box is left
empty. Which option should you choose for Pixel Replacement?
A. Fit
B. Fill
C. As Is
D. Conform
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is the difference between assigning an ICC profile and converting to an ICC profile?
A. Assigning preserves the color numbers and changes the appearance; converting preserves the
appearance by changing the numbers.
B. Assigning changes the color numbers and preserves the appearance; converting changes the
appearance by preserving the numbers.
C. Assigning preserves the color numbers and preserves the appearance; converting changes the
appearance by changing the numbers.
D. Assigning changes the color numbers and changes the appearance; converting preserves the
appearance by preserving the numbers.
Answer: A

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NO.5 You are creating an image for the Web. The image contains transparent areas that were created by
adding drop shadows to a layer with a picture and to a text layer.
What should you do in the Save for Web dialog box to fill fully transparent pixels with a selected color and
blend partially transparent pixels with the same color?
A. select a matte color and a Dither amount
B. select Transparency and select a matte color
C. select a matte color and deselect Transparency
D. select Transparency and choose None from the Matte menu
Answer: C

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NO.6 You have a clipping mask acting on several other layers. You want to apply a layer style to the entire
clipped entity. What should you do?
A. apply the style to the layers one at a time
B. apply the style to the topmost clipped layer
C. apply the style to the base or masking layer
D. create a layer group for the layers, then apply the style to the set
Answer: C

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NO.7 You are preparing images for the Web. Which working RGB space should you use?
A. Apple RGB
B. ColorMatch RGB
C. Adobe RGB (1998)
D. SRGB IEC61966-2.1
Answer: D

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NO.8 You have a full color photograph with many different colors. Which file format should you use when
optimizing this image for the web?
A. GIF
B. SVG
C. TIFF
D. JPEG
Answer: D

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NO.1 Which of the following is a way to control deformations using a Smooth Bind?
A. Add Influence
B. Flexors.
C. Projection Box.
D. Both A and B
Answer: B

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NO.2 To composite two layers together you would use...
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B. Garbage Mask
C. Remap Color
D. Blend & Comp
Answer: A

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NO.3 The ViewCube is an on-screen 3D navigation element that does which of the following?
A. Creates a multicamera rig to navigate through your scene
B. Provides feedback about stereo cameras and performs calculations to produce anaglyph images
C. Enables you to quickly and easily switch between views.
D. Provides feedback about the current camera view in relation to the 3D scene
E. Both C and D
Answer: E

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NO.4 Which of the following BEST describes the Blend Shape deformer?
The Blend Shape deformer...
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B. Blend shape deformers let you change the shape of one object into the shapes of other objects.
C. is a special object you use to control the deformation effects of rigid skinning.
D. lets you manually sculpt NURBS, polygons, or Subdivision surfaces quickly with the stroke of a brush
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is the syntax to add a single-line comment in a script.?
A. //
B. <>
C. "
D. ==
Answer: A

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NO.1 Select two correct descriptions about views.
A.A view is created by 'DECLARE VIEW', and deleted by 'DROP VIEW'.
B.A view is a virtual table which does not exist.
C.A view is created to simplify complicated queries.
D.You can create a view with the same name as already existing tables.
E.A view only exists while the postmaster is running, and is deleted when the postmaster stops.
Answer:B C

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NO.2 The tables "t1" and "t2" are defined below. The tables "t1" and "t2" have columns "id" which are type of
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Select the number of rows in the result. SELECT * FROM t1 NATURAL FULL OUTER JOIN t2;
A.2 rows
B.3 rows
C.4 rows
D.5 rows
E.6 rows
Answer:D

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NO.3 The "sample" table consists of the following data: How many rows are returned by executing the
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A.2 rows
B.3 rows
C.4 rows
D.5 rows
E.6 rows
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NO.4 Table "t1" is defined as follows: CREATE TABLE t1 (value VARCHAR(5)); A set of SQL statements were
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INSERT INTO t1 VALUES ('AA'); SAVEPOINT point1; INSERT INTO t1 VALUES ('BB'); SAVEPOINT
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A.1 row
B.2 rows
C.3 rows
D.4 rows
E.0 rows
Answer:B

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NO.5 The "animal" table consists of the following data: Select the correct result returned by executing the
following SQL statement: SELECT name FROM animal ORDER BY weight DESC LIMIT 2 OFFSET 1;
A.A syntax error will occur.
Answer:A

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NO.6 Select two suitable statements about sequences.
A.A sequence always returns a 4-byte INTEGER type value, so the maximum value is 2147483647.
B.A sequence is defined by 'CREATE SEQUENCE', and deleted by 'DROP SEQUENCE'.
C.Although the "nextval" function is called during a transaction, it will have no effect if that transaction is
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D.A sequence always generates 0 or consecutive positive numbers.
E.A sequence number can be set by calling the "setval" function.
Answer:B E

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NO.7 The "sample" table consists of the following data: How many rows are returned by executing the
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A.0 rows
B.1 row
C.2 rows
D.3 rows
E.4 rows
Answer:C

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NO.8 Select two suitable statements regarding the following SQL statement: CREATE TRIGGER trigger_1
AFTER UPDATE ON sales FOR EACH ROW EXECUTE PROCEDURE write_log();
A.It is defining a trigger "trigger_1".
B.Every time 'UPDATE' is executed on the "sales" table, the "write_log" function is called once.
C.The "write_log" function is called before 'UPDATE' takes place.
D.'UPDATE' is not executed if "write_log" returns NULL.
E.'DROP TRIGGER trigger_1 ON sales;' deletes the defined trigger.
Answer:A E

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A. BlackBerry device-initiated
B. SIP Line
C. SIP Trunk
D. PBX-initiated
E. Voice over Wi-Fi
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which type of database authentication is required if BlackBerry MVS is installed on a different Microsoft
Windows domain than the BlackBerry Enterprise Server? (Choose one.)
A. Microsoft Windows authentication
B. Microsoft SQL Server authentication
C. Authentication set todb_owner
D. Trusted authentication
Answer: B

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A. The MVS locations field in the BlackBerry MVS Console
B. The BlackBerry MVS Client on the BlackBerry device
C. The BlackBerry MVS Session Manager in the BlackBerry MVS Console
D. The BlackBerry MVS Telephony Connector in the BlackBerry MVS Console
Answer: D

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NO.4 What is the purpose of the line port in the BlackBerry MVS Telephony Connector configuration?
(Choose one.)
A. To allow the BlackBerry MVS Session Manager to receive BlackBerry-initiated calls from the SIP Line
on the PBX
B. To allow the BlackBerry MVS to forward calls using the SIP Line on the PBX to the mobile number of
the BlackBerry device
C. To allow BlackBerry MVS to initiate calls using the SIP Line on the PBX to the mobile number of the
BlackBerry device
D. To allow BlackBerry MVS Clients to register as a BlackBerry MVS Client on the PBX using the SIP Line
Answer: D

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NO.5 What are three functions of the SIP Line connection between the BlackBerry MVS Session Manager
and the PBX? (Choose three.)
A. Registering BlackBerry MVS users with the PBX
B. Communicating Call setup messages
C. Reporting on the health of the BlackBerry MVS Session Manager
D. Exchanging KPML messages
E. Performing PBX directory lookups
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.6 How many SIP Trunks are required in Cisco Unified Communications Manager when configuring
BlackBerry MVS for high availability? (Choose one.)
A. Two SIP Trunks are required for the two BlackBerry MVS Session Managers and one SIP Trunk for the
BlackBerry MVS Console
B. Four SIP Trunks are required for the two BlackBerry MVS Session Managers
C. Two SIP Trunks are required between the two BlackBerry MVS Session Managers and two SIP
Trunks for the BlackBerry MVS Console
D. Two SIP Trunks are required for the two BlackBerry MVS Session Managers
Answer: D

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NO.7 When a BlackBerry device is connected to a network, which BlackBerry MVS diagnostic tool should
the BlackBerry MVS user use to determine the SSID of that network? (Choose one.)
A. BlackBerry MVS Provisioning Report
B. Manage Connections Service status
C. BlackBerry MVS Unified Diagnostic Report
D. BlackBerry MVS Server MVS Session Managerlog
E. BlackBerry device Connection Logging
Answer: B

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NO.8 What happens during an active BlackBerry MVS call when a failover is initiated by the BlackBerry MVS
Console? (Choose one.)
A. Active BlackBerry MVS Wi-Fi calls are preserved
B. Active BlackBerry MVS Voice over Mobile calls are preserved
C. All Active BlackBerry MVS calls are dropped without notification
D. All Active BlackBerry MVS calls are preserved
E. All Active BlackBerry MVS calls are dropped after the notification tone
Answer: D

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