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Exam Code: 000-015
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Maximo Asset Management V7.1 Implementation)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 148 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 What are the three types of meters?
A.Flow, Utility, Rate
B.Condition, Utility, Gauge
C.Continuous, Condition, Rate
D.Continuous, Gauge, Characteristic
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which applications record the history of attribute changes made on the Specifications tab, without
having to use e-Audit as defined in Database Configuration?
A.Asset, Configuration Item
B.Job Plan, Ticket Template
C.Item Master, Service Item, Tool, Job Plan
D.Asset, Location, Item Master, Service Item, Tool
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which record type(s) can belong to a Collection?
A.Users
B.Asset, Location, Item
C.Asset, Location, Configuration Item
D.Asset, Actual Configuration Item, Deployed Asset, Configuration Item
Answer: C

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NO.4 The appropriate status to invoke a Preventive Maintenance (PM) alert has been determined to be in the
Organization application.
What is the Select Action menu item where this can be set?
A.PM options
B.Asset options
C.System settings
D.Work Order options
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is a seasonal-based Preventive Maintenance (PM) record?
A.a PM that defines a period when the PM status is made inactive
B.a PM that defines the specific dates in the future upon which Work Order will be generated
C.a PM with a set of defined days of week or periods of time in a year when the PM is considered active
and is eligible for Work Order generation
D.a PM that defines the days of the week when a Work Order can be generated (for example, Saturday -
Sunday when the production line has stopped)
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which field(s) are hidden on the Asset application and may need the Application Designer in order to
display them?
A.Priority
B.Failure Class
C.Calendar and Shift Number
D.GL Account, Warranty Expiry Date
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which statement about Condition Monitoring is the most accurate?
A.Multiple monitoring points can be created against the same Asset or Location. Before creating these
points, a meter of type Gauge or Characteristic must be defined.
B.Multiple monitoring points can be created against the same Asset. The meter type of these points will
be Gauge. A meter does not need to be created as this is created automatically.
C.Multiple monitoring points can be created against the same Asset. The Asset's current location is
provided as a reference. The point type needs to be specified as Gauge or Characteristic before entering
other details.
D.Multiple monitoring points can be created against the same Asset or Location. As each point is created,
a Gauge type meter for the measurements to be recorded against needs to be created. Characteristic
meters are not set up in Condition Monitoring, but on the Job Plan.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which statement about an Asset hierarchy is correct?
A.Once created, additional children can always be added to the hierarchy from the Spare Parts tab when
the parent Asset is the current record.
B.Once created, additional children can always be added to the hierarchy as long as the parent is a
rotating Asset, it is not decommissioned, and it is not in a storeroom.
C.An Asset hierarchy can be created from rotating and non-rotating Assets and can be set so that the
hierarchy can not be modified from the Spare Parts tab in the Asset application.
D.An Asset hierarchy can only be created from rotating Assets using the action Apply Item Assembly
Structure. The hierarchy can be locked so that it cannot be modified from the Spare Parts tab in the Asset
application.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which Asset fields must have data for the record to be saved to the database?
A.Site, Location, Type
B.Site, Status, Location
C.Site, Status, Asset Up?
D.Status, Location, Failure Class
Answer: C

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NO.10 An attribute is added to a ClassStructure record in the Classifications application.
On which applications will the attribute be copied to existing records that use this classification?
A.Assets, Item, Locations
B.Job Plan, Ticket Template, Item
C.all applications that have a Specifications tab
D.Assets, Item, Job Plan, Preventive Maintenance
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which statement is correct?
A.A condition code can be used on any rotating Asset.
B.A condition code can be added to any type of Asset.
C.A condition code can only be used on a rotating Asset when the item is condition enabled.
D.There is no condition code on an Asset. Condition codes are only associated with items that are
purchased or held in a storeroom.
Answer: C

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NO.12 What is the purpose of a Condition Rate?
A.to create alternate paths in Workflows
B.to assign relative values to inventory items
C.to assign values to personnel for labor purposes
D.to indicate the costs associated with inventory items
Answer: B

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NO.13 Click the Exhibit button.
The diagram in the exhibit shows a dialog box that opens when the Select Value option is selected from
the Asset or Location field on a Service Request. The Filter By field has three options User/Custodian,
Public and All.
In which application can the default for this field be changed?
A.Organizations
B.Service Requests
C.Application Designer
D.Database Configuration
Answer: D

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NO.14 Where are Ticket Templates used?
A.Work Requests
B.Service Requests
C.Desktop Requisitions
D.Work Order Tracking
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which item type(s) can be used as a rotating item on both an Asset and a Location?
A.Item only
B.Item and Tool only
C.Item, Service Item, Tool
D.Item and Service Item only
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which statement is true about a characteristic meter in the Condition Monitoring application?
A.Multiple action values can be entered that belong to an ALN domain. When an action value is recorded,
a Job Plan or a PM is used to generate a Work Order.
B.Multiple action values can be entered that belong to either an ALN or a Numeric domain. When an
action value is recorded, a PM is used to generate a Work Order.
C.An upper limit and a lower limit can be entered. When the last measurement is outside of these limits, a
Preventive Maintenance (PM) can be used to generate a Work Order.
D.When an action value is recorded, a Work Order can be generated using the specified Job Plan. Only
one of the values in the ALN domain can be used as an action value.
Answer: A

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NO.17 What are the three main differences between the functions of the Move/Modify Assets and Swap
Assets actions in the Assets application and the Move/Swap/Modify action in the Work Order Tracking
application? (Choose three.)
A.Future Asset moves can be planned in the Move/Swap/Modify action.
B.Downtime can be applied to multiple Assets in the Move/Modify Assets action.
C.Meter readings for Assets and Locations can be entered in the Move/Swap/Modify action.
D.The specification records of a Location or a Configuration Item can be modified in the
Move/Swap/Modify action.
E.Future changes to the user and custodian records of Assets and Locations can be planned in the
Move/Swap/Modify action.
F.Modifications can be made to the fields, priority, failure class, calendar and shift and changes can be
applied to multiple Assets in the Move/Modify Assets action.
Answer: ADE

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NO.18 Which statement is true about Asset hierarchies?
A.A hierarchy of Assets can only be created by using the actions: Apply Item Assembly Structure and
Move/Modify Assets.
B.There are numerous ways of creating or modifying an Asset hierarchy including planning and then
executing a group of Asset moves from the Ticket-based applications.
C.When creating an Asset, it can be assigned a parent Asset. After the record is saved, the hierarchy can
be created from the Spare Parts tab or the action Move/Modify Assets.
D.Asset hierarchies can only be formed for rotating Assets. The most popular methods of creating the
hierarchy are to use the action Apply Item Assembly Structure and Move/Modify Assets in the Asset
application and Move/Swap/Modify in the Work Order Tracking application.
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which statement is true about the Users and Custodians functionality?
A.Users and Custodians can be created for Assets. A User is someone who uses the Asset. A Custodian
is someone responsible for the care of the Asset. For each person entered, the User field, the Custodian
field or both must be checked. One person can be nominated as the Primary Contact for the Asset.
B.Users and Custodians can be created for Assets and Locations. A User is someone who uses the Asset
or Location. A Custodian is someone responsible for the care of the Asset or Location. For each person
entered, either the User field or the Custodian field or both fields must be checked. One person can be
nominated as the Primary Contact for the Asset or Location.
C.User and Custodians can be created for Assets, Locations and Configuration Items (CIs). The dialog
box has a table window for creating Users and Custodians and another for creating Primary Contacts who
are used for communicating information about the Asset, Location or CI by email or bulletin board. A
person can be a user or a custodian, or both a user and a custodian.
D.Users and Custodians can be created for Assets and Locations. A User is someone who uses the
Asset. A Custodian is someone responsible for the care of the Asset. The Primary Contact is used for
communicating information about the Asset or Location by email or bulletin board. These three fields act
like a radio button, only one of them can be checked on each person record.
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which statement is correct?
A.The classification of a rotating Asset is determined from the classification belonging to its rotating item.
The value of an Asset specification record is always updateable.
B.The classification of a rotating Asset is determined from the classification belonging to its rotating item.
The value of an Asset specification record is determined from the corresponding attribute's value on the
item specification.
C.The classification of a rotating Asset can be entered by the user and the Asset specification is derived
from the classification you enter. The value of an attribute can be entered by the user. There is no
relationship with the item specification.
D.The classification of a rotating Asset is enterable only if its rotating item has no classification of its own.
When the classification has been entered by the user on the Asset, the attribute values are updateable.
Otherwise, they are read-only and are determined from the corresponding attribute's value on the item
specification.
Answer: B

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NO.21 When can Material Receipts be changed if inspection is not required?
A.prior to saving the Receipt Line
B.prior to inspecting the Receipt Line
C.prior to approving the Receipt Line
D.prior to completing the Receipt Line
Answer: A

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NO.22 Where can a Meter Group be referenced?
A.Asset, Location, Rotating Item
B.Asset, Item Master, Service Item, Tools
C.Asset, Location, Preventive Maintenance
D.Asset, Preventive Maintenance, Condition Monitoring
Answer: A

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NO.23 What is a Failure Code hierarchy?
A.Problem, Cause, Remedy hierarchy based on a Work Classification
B.Problem, Cause, Remedy hierarchy based on an Asset Classification
C.Problem, Cause, Remedy hierarchy based on a Failure Classification
D.Problem, Cause, Remedy hierarchy based on a Location Classification
Answer: C

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NO.24 Which statement is correct?
A.Any type of Ticket or Work Order can be created from the Asset, Location and Configuration Item (CI)
applications.
B.A Service Request, Incident, Problem, Work Order, Change or Release in the Assets, Locations and CI
applications can be created.
C.A Service Request or Work Order can be created from the Assets and Locations applications. A Ticket
or Work Order cannot be created from the CI application.
D.Any type of Ticket or Work Order can be created from the Assets and Locations applications, but you
can not create an activity or task. A Ticket or Work Order cannot be created from the CI application.
Answer: B

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NO.25 When creating a purchase contract, what is the purpose of checking the Change Price on Use field?
A.It specifies that the price in the purchase order (PO) is only an estimated price.
B.It specifies that when a PO is issued against this contract, the price must be changed.
C.It specifies that the price of a given related item can be changed on related POs or purchase requests.
D.It specifies that the price of a given item specified in the Master Contract is reduced or increased, based
on market conditions.
Answer: C

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NO.26 Which statement is correct?
A.When creating an Asset, it can be added directly to any storeroom by specifying a Location and rotating
item. The balance in the storeroom is incremented by one.
B.To add a rotating Asset to a storeroom, use the Inventory application and then use the Inventory
Adjustments - Current Balance action to increment the balance by one.
C.When creating an Asset, it can be added directly to a specific site's storeroom by specifying a Location
and rotating item. The balance in the storeroom is incremented by one.
D.When creating an Asset that will be initially held in a storeroom, the user creates the Asset then goes to
the Storeroom application in order to book it into a specific storeroom so that the balance is incremented
by one.
Answer: C

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NO.27 Which three statements are true about using the Move/Modify Assets or Swap Assets actions in the
Assets application? (Choose three.)
A.Any Asset can be moved to any site
B.Multiple Assets cannot be moved to another site in one action.
C.An Asset cannot be moved to another site if the Asset number already exists at that site.
D.Multiple Assets can be moved to the same Location or make these Assets a child of another Asset.
E.A hierarchy of Assets can be moved from one Location to another in the same site by selecting just the
top parent Asset.
F.A hierarchy of Assets can be moved into a storeroom by selecting just the top parent Asset, if all Assets
in the hierarchy are rotating.
Answer: DEF

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NO.28 From which three applications is it possible to create a Work Order? (Choose three.)
A.Assets
B.Routes
C.Job Plan
D.Work View
E.Configuration Items
F.Condition Monitoring
Answer: AEF

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NO.29 Which three objects have rotating records? (Choose three.)
A.Person
B.Assets
C.Locations
D.Job Plans
E.Item Master
F.Service Items
Answer: BCE

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Exam Code: 000-735
Exam Name: IBM (DB2 9.5 SQL Procedure Developer)
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Total Q&A: 99 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Given the statements shown below: DECLARE c_dept CURSOR WITH HOLD FOR SELECT * FROM
dept; OPEN c_dept;Which two conditions are true? (Choose two.)
A. C_DEPT will remain open after a ROLLBACK.
B. C_DEPT will remain open after a COMMIT.
C. C_DEPT will be returned to the caller of the routine.
D. C_DEPT will be positioned before the next logical row.
E. All locks held by C_DEPT will be released after a COMMIT.
Answer: BD

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NO.2 Which statement should be used to declare an array with at most 10 elements of type INTEGER?
A. DECLARE sub_total INTEGER[10];
B. DECLARE sub_total[10] INTEGER;
C. CREATE TYPE sub_total AS INTEGER[10];
D. CREATE TYPE sub_total[10] AS INTEGER;
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which statement can be used to define an array of 30 names that have a maximum size of 25
characters each?
A. CREATE TYPE names AS VARCHAR(25) ARRAY[30];
B. CREATE ARRAY names[30] VARCHAR(25);
C. CREATE TYPE names[30] VARCHAR(25);
D. CREATE ARRAY names AS VARCHAR(25);
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which CREATE PROCEDURE statement option should be used if you plan on issuing a DECLARE
GLOBALTEMPORARY TABLE statement from within the SQL procedure body?
A. CONTAINS SQL
B. READS SQL DATA
C. MODIFIES SQL DATA
D. LANGUAGE SQL
Answer: C

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NO.5 What will be the initial value of V_MAX in the declaration statement shown below?DECLARE v_max
DECIMAL(9,2);
A. 0.0
B. 2
C. 9
D. NULL
Answer: D

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NO.6 hich statement can be used to declare a variable inside an SQL procedure that can be used to
represent a monetary value?
A. DECLARE v_money MONEY;
B. DECLARE v_money DOUBLE;
C. DECLARE v_money DECIMAL(9,2);
D. DECLARE v_money CURRENCY;
Answer: C

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NO.7 Given the SQL statement shown below:DECLARE test CURSOR FOR SELECT hiredate FROM
employee FOR UPDATE; Which statement correctly describes the cursor that is created?
A. The cursor will be considered a read-only cursor.
B. The cursor can only be used to perform positioned updates.
C. The cursor can only be used to perform positioned deletes.
D. The cursor can be used to perform positioned updates and deletes.
Answer: D

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NO.8 What are two valid DECLARE statements in an SQL procedure? (Choose two.)
A. DECLARE var1 INTEGER;
B. DECLARE var1 DECIMAL [9];
C. DECLARE var1 XML;
D. DECLARE var1 CURRENT DATE;
E. DECLARE var1[10] INTEGER;
Answer: AC

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NO.9 hich steps must be followed to return a result set from an SQL procedure?
A. 1. Create the procedure using the DYNAMIC RESULT SETS clause.
2.Declare the cursor.
3.Open the cursor in the SQL procedure.
4.Close the cursor.
5.Return to the application.
B. 1. Create the procedure using the DYNAMIC RESULT SETS clause.
2.Declare the cursor using the WITH RETURN clause.
3.Open the cursor in the SQL procedure.
4.Return to the application.
C. 1. Create the procedure using the WITH RETURN clause.
2.Declare the cursor using the DYNAMIC RESULT SETS clause.
3.Open the cursor in the SQL procedure.
4.Return to the application.
D. 1. Create the procedure using the WITH RETURN clause.
2.Declare the cursor using the DYNAMIC RESULT SETS clause.
3.Open the cursor in the SQL procedure.
4. Close the cursor.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Given the statement shown below:SELECT ROW CHANGE TOKEN FOR dept, RID_BIT (dept) FROM
dept WHERE deptno = 'A00' WITH URWhich two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The statement is selecting two columns from DEPT table.
B. The statement will allow the latest ROW CHANGE TOKEN value to be returned.
C. The statement will allow the earliest ROW CHANGE TOKEN value to be returned.
D. The statement will return a TIMESTAMP value.
E. The statement uses optimistic locking.
Answer: BE

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Exam Code: 000-011
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Tivoli AP Dependency+Discovery Mgr V7.1 Implementation)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 100 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Which DB2 release is a prerequisite for a Tivoli Workload Scheduler V8.4 Master Domain Manager
install on Solaris 10?
A.DB2 6.8
B.DB2 7.1
C.DB2 9.1
D.DB2 9.0.1
Answer: C

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NO.2 A customer needs to implement a high degree of network security in their environment.
What is the best way to achieve this objective?
A.implement a "Centralized Security" model
B.force agents to use SSL connections
C.assign umask a value of 000 to all users on all servers
D.remove "world writable" permissions from all of the Tivoli Workload Scheduler (TWS) binary files
Answer: B

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NO.3 When using DB2 for the Tivoli Workload Scheduler database, which script(s) should be run after
running the ResetPlan scratch command?
A.dbreorg only
B.dbrunstats only
C.dbreorg and dbrunstats
D.db_reorg and db_runstats
Answer: C

IBM   000-011   000-011

NO.4 There is a file named TEST_r3batch.opts in the methods directory of an FTA.
Which of the following is known about the installed extended agent? (Choose two.)
A.it is a z/OS extended agent
B.it is an SAP extended agent
C.it is a PeopleSoft extended agent
D.name of the hosting FTA is "TEST"
E.name of the extended agent is "TEST"
Answer: BE

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NO.5 A Fault Tolerant Agent based in California (GMT-8) is hosting a SAP R/3 Extended Agent pointing to a
SAP instance in Austin (GMT-6). A SAP job is launched by Tivoli Workload Scheduler at 09:30.
At what time would this job run on the SAP instance?
A.09:30
B.11:30
C.07:30
D.13:30
Answer: B

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NO.6 A customers Tivoli Workload Scheduler (TWS) administration staff notices that many jobs are running
beyond the Final job stream 24-hour cycle.
How can you address this issue within TWS without changing the times the jobs run?
A.adjust the start time of the production day
B.request that users log off from the RDBMS during its peak production loads
C.have the TWS administration team adjust business critical production schedules
D.have TWS administrators reorganize the TWS RDBMS backend database, thereby optimizing its
performance
Answer: A

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NO.7 You are creating a DB2 tablespace during a Tivoli Workload Scheduler installation on an existing
instance of DB2. You receive the following error:
System attempted to write to a read-only file
How can you resolve this problem?
A.ignore the error and continue
B.re-install DB2 in a different directory
C.give write permission to the read-only file and re-install DB2 as a different user
D.give write permission to the parent directory of the tablespace directory
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which kernel parameters must be set to install and use a Fault Tolerant Agent?
A.nflocks, maxfiles, and nproc
B.nbuf, maxfiles, and maxfiles_lim
C.No kernel parameter changes are required.
D.msgsys:msginfo_msgmni, semsys:seminfo_semmni
Answer: C

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NO.9 Where are the Tivoli Workload Scheduler (TWS) 8.4 installation prerequisites, disk space, and
memory requirements documented?
A.TWS 8.4 User Guide
B.TWS 8.4 Release Notes
C.TWS 8.4 Reference Manual
D.TWS 8.4 Administration and Troubleshooting
Answer: B

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NO.10 A production job was released with priority 0 on a workstation with fence 0. What command run on the
workstation scheduled to run the job would execute the job?
A.none, because the workstation fence is 0
B.conman "altpri ; 10"
C.conman "deldep job ; priority"
D.conman "fence ; 10"
Answer: B

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NO.11 In which file are the local options stored for a Tivoli Workload Scheduler workstation?
A./Localoptions.txt
B./mozart/localopts
C./localopts
D./mozart/globalopts
Answer: C

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NO.12 Consider the following workstation definition:
cpuname ibm_cpu4
os unix
domain cpu4
for maestro
type manager
autolink on
behindfirewall off
fullstatus on
end
Which type of Tivoli Workload Scheduler (TWS) workstation is this?
A.UNIX Extended Agent
B.UNIX Domain Manager
C.Master Domain Manager
D.UNIX Fault Tolerant Agent
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which utility encrypts the Extended Agent's password?
A.riddle
B.enigma
C.r3batch
D.encrypt
Answer: B

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NO.14 On a Tivoli Workload Scheduler (TWS) agent, in which file is the current installed TWS fix pack level
documented?
A./localopts
B./log/install.log
C./config/TWSver
D./version/patch.info
Answer: D

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NO.15 A customer needs to implement a high degree of TWS security in their environment.
What is the best way to achieve this objective?
A.implement a "Centralized Security" model
B.force all logins to use SSH instead of telnet
C.assign umask a value of 000 to all users on all servers
D.remove "world writable" permissions from all of the Tivoli Workload Scheduler (TWS) binary files
Answer: A

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NO.16 What is the source for the most current list of required fix packs and kernel parameter settings required
by Tivoli Workload Scheduler (TWS) V8.4?
A.Google
B.Release Notes
C.TWS Software Support
D.TWS Product Documentation CD
Answer: C

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NO.17 How can you prevent a job stream from launching without confirmation by an operator?
A.specify the Requires Confirmation parameter
B.define a prompt dependency on that job stream
C.specify a start time when the operator can monitor the job stream
D.specify an external dependency on the job stream that is never submitted to the plan
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which three can Tivoli Workload Scheduler (TWS) V8.4 use as its database? (Choose three.)
A.DB2 RDBMS
B.a local Oracle RDBMS
C.a remote DB2 RDBMS
D.a local Informix RDBMS
E.a remote Sybase RDBMS
F.a local TWS 8.2 database
Answer: ABC

IBM   000-011   000-011

NO.19 On which three operating systems is the Master Domain Manager supported on Tivoli Workload
Scheduler V8.4? (Choose three.)
A.Tru 64
B.AIX 5.3
C.SUN Solaris 9
D.IBM i5/OS 5.3
E.Ubuntu Linux Server
F.Microsoft Windows 2003 Server
Answer: BCF

IBM   000-011   000-011

NO.20 What is the earliest version of Tivoli Workload Scheduler (TWS) engine that can be upgraded to V8.4
as documented in the Planning and Installation Guide?
A.TWS V7.0
B.TWS V8.2.1
C.TWS V8.2 at fix pack 10
D.TWS V8.1 at fix pack 11
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-R15
Exam Name: IBM (IBM AnyPlace Kiosk Models 5xx, 7xx, and 9xx Technical Mastery)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 66 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 On which IBM AnyPlace Kiosk models is the Service Processor feature standard?
A.all models
B.only the 19 inch models
C.only the models with the Turion microprocessor
D.only the models with the Sempron microprocessorWArialTimes New RomanZ
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which three operating systems are supported by IBM on the IBM AnyPlace Kiosk? (Choose three.)
A.IBM PC DOS 7.0
B.Microsoft Windows 2000
C.IBM Retail Environment for SUSE Linux
D.Microsoft Windows Vista Business (32-bit)
E.Microsoft Windows XP Professional Edition (32-bit)
F.Microsoft Windows Embedded for Point of Service (WEPOS)WArialTimes New RomanZ
Answer: DEF

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NO.3 What is the maximum amount of memory that can be factory installed on the IBM AnyPlace Kiosk?
A.1GB
B.2GB
C.4GB
D.512MBWArialTimes New RomanZ
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which cash drawer configuration is enabled when the IBM AnyPlace POS Hub is attached to the IBM
AnyPlace Kiosk?
A.The POS Hub provides a port for one 24-volt cash drawer.
B.The POS Hub provides ports for two 24-volt cash drawers.
C.The POS Hub provides a port for one 12-volt cash drawer.
D.The POS Hub provides ports for one 12-volt cash drawer and one 24-volt cash drawer.WArialTimes
New RomanZ
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is the standard RAM configuration on all IBM AnyPlace Kiosk models?
A.1GB
B.2GB
C.256MB
D.512MBWArialTimes New RomanZ
Answer: D

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NO.6 How much power can the IBM AnyPlace Kiosk lose without needing an uninterruptible power supply
(UPS) to continue functioning?
A.10%
B.15%
C.20%
D.50%WArialTimes New RomanZ
Answer: C

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NO.7 How many USB 2.0 ports are standard on all models of the IBM AnyPlace Kiosk?
A.two
B.six
C.four
D.fiveWArialTimes New RomanZ
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which two customizations can a customer choose for IBM AnyPlace Kiosk models? (Choose two.)
A.stereo or mono speakers
B.one of two AMD processors
C.one of three display sizes
D.a touch or non-touch display
E.a color or monochrome displayWArialTimes New RomanZ
Answer: BC

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NO.9 Which three features are standard on all IBM AnyPlace Kiosk models? (Choose three.)
A.1GB memory
B.tabletop mount
C.presence sensor
D.ExpressCard slot
E.internal CDROM drive
F.80GB SATA II 3.5-inch hard disk driveWArialTimes New RomanZ
Answer: CDF

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NO.10 Although the normal electrostatic discharge is ______ volts, IBM tests to make sure the IBM AnyPlace
Kiosk can withstand _________ volts without damage.
A.700 and 1,500
B.1,500 and 7,000
C.7,000 and 15,000
D.15,000 and 25,000WArialTimes New RomanZ
Answer: C

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Exam Code: LOT-801
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Lotus Notes Domino 8 Application Development Update)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Samir wants to design and deploy a Composite Application that consists of components from two Lotus
Notes databases that both reside on the same Domino Server. He would like to include the Composite
Application definition inside one of the Lotus Notes databases, to make it easier to deploy and replicate.
Can he do this?
A. No, a Composite Application definition must be hosted on a WebSphere Portal server.
B. No, a Composite Application definition must reside in a Lotus Notes database that is based on the
"Blank Composite Application" template.
C. Yes, he simply needs to click the "New Composite Application" button in the Composite Applications -
Application section of the Database design and begin writing the definition.
D. Yes, but first he needs to define the Composite Application in the Composite Application Editor and
save the resulting XML file. Then he can create a new definition in the Composite Applications -
Application section of the Database design and import the XML.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Linda has selected the database property Support Response Thread History for her Call Log
application. When she looks at the document fields in the Document Properties dialog box, she notices a
new field has been added to each new document. What field does Linda see?
A. $TUA
B. $REF
C. $SRTH
D. $REF2
Answer: A

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NO.3 Thomas has utilized the right-click menu option feature in his application to show his custom actions.
He would like to present users with just the custom actions when they right-click with their mouse. How
can he accomplish this?
A. Remove the default menu items from the Action Bar of the view.
B. Deselect include action in Action Bar in the Action button properties of the view.
C. Deselect show default items in right-mouse menu in the Action Bar properties of the view.
D. Select emove default items in right-mouse menu?in the Action button properties of the view.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Myrtle is modifying the design of a View in a Notes database, so it can update a published Property that
the other components in a Composite Application can respond to. Where does she write code that
updates a Property?
A. In a view action
B. In the OnSelect event of the view
C. In the QueryModeChange event of the view
D. In the Initialize subroutine of the Global section of the view
Answer: B

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NO.5 Maxie is using the new "Defer index creation until first use" option in her views that have sortable
columns, in order to delay creation of these extra indices until they are needed. She notices that the extra
column indices are still being built immediately instead of being deferred. Why is this?
A. This option works only for categorized columns.
B. This option is related to the database's full-text index, not the view index.
C. This option is valid only when the view is used in a composite application.
D. The server administrator needs to set the ENABLE_ON_DEMAND_COLLATIONS=1 setting in the
server's Notes.ini file.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Kyle is designing a Composite Application that can send a user name from a form to a view, by clicking
a button on the form. He knows he wants to define a Wiring property called ReceiveUserName that will be
used when the view is receiving a user name string that is published by the form. When he opens the
Property Broker Editor to define "ReceiveUserName", what does he define it as?
A. Type
B. Action
C. Event
D. Property
Answer: B

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NO.7 Barry has just closed the Property Broker Editor after specifying input and output Action parameters for
his Composite Application Editor (CAE). He notices a curved arrow icon in Domino Designer next to the
name of the Wiring Property. What should Barry do to ensure that his changes are saved within his
Domino application?
A. Click the "Refresh" button, and then click the "Open" button in the window that displays.
B. Nothing. The Property Broker automatically saves changes inside the Domino application.
C. Click the "Merge WSDLs" button and click "OK" in the confirmation prompt that then displays.
D. Open the Wiring Property properties and ensure that the "Store in NSF" option is selected. The
changes will be saved within the Domino application when Domino Designer is closed.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Beatrice created a new Composite Application database in the Notes 8 client, but when she opens it up
she sees a grey page that says "This Application page does not contain any content." What does she
have to do next?
A. Click the menu option "View - Design" to open the database in Domino Designer to edit the Composite
Application definition.
B. Click the menu option "Actions - Edit Application" to open the database in the Composite Application
Editor to edit the Composite Application definition.
C. Double-click the grey page to open the database in the Composite Application Editor to edit the
Composite Application definition.
D. Right-click the grey page to open the database in Domino Designer to edit the Composite Application
definition.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Timmy is designing a View and he wants to use the new "Split Action Button" option for one of his
Actions. He creates an Action with sub-actions and checks the "Display as split button" box, but the Action
doesn't work as a Split button when he looks at the view in his Notes client. Why is this?
A. Split Action buttons work only for Shared Actions.
B. Split Action buttons work only for Forms.
C. Split Action buttons work only for Composite Applications.
D. The "Enable Advanced Action Bar" setting in the View properties has not been checked.
Answer: C

IBM   LOT-801   LOT-801

NO.10 Clarisa's agent needs to run every time the APP012 server is rebooted. There is no harm to data if the
agent runs repeatedly, but Clarisa would like to minimize the impact to server performance. How should
Clarisa trigger the agent to run?
A. Set the Runtime Trigger option to "On event", and select "When server starts".
B. Set the Runtime Trigger option to "On event", and select "On agent manager start".
C. Set the Runtime Trigger option to "On schedule". Select "Run once", and select the schedule option
"On server boot".
D. Set the Runtime Trigger option to "On schedule". Select "More than once a day". Clarisa should
determine how soon after a server boot the agent must be run. The schedule frequency should be set to
that amount of time.
Answer: A

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NO.11 When Bert is designing his Composite Application, he wants to have a Notes view that publishes a
UserName property to another view and also to a Notes form that is open in edit mode. How does he do
this?
A. He simply uses the Composite Application Editor to wire all three components together.
B. He creates one Composite Application that wires the two views together, and then a second
Composite Application that incorporates the first one, with the first view wired to the form.
C. Because each component can only publish a single property, he has to wire the first view publish the
user name to the second view, and then wire the second view to publish the user name to the form.
D. Because he can publish a property only to a single component, he has to make his first view publish
two properties (e.g. UserName1 and UserName2) that both have the same data, so that one of the
properties is wired to the second view and the other is wired to the form.
Answer: A

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NO.12 The new "Composite Settings" option in a View column Properties box allows you to specify what?
A. An Action to perform when a row in the view is selected
B. A Property to publish when a row in the view is selected
C. Whether or not to display the column when the view is used in a Composite Application
D. An alternate font type, size, and color to use for that column when the view is used in a Composite
Application
Answer: B

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NO.13 Bonnie has a Customer view in her application that has the following columns (in order): Customer
Name, Customer Address, Customer Phone, Customer Comments, Last Contacted. She would like to
maximize the amount of column space for the Customer Comments field. How would Bonnie accomplish
this in Designer?
A. Select the "Maximum Width" property for the Customer Comment column.
B. Set the Height indicator to 9 lines for the Customer Comments column.
C. Select the extend to use available window width property for the Customer Comment column
D. Add the column name to the xtend to use available window width property in the Customer view.
Answer: C

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NO.14 The default view in the Notes 8 Contacts database allows you to display the information in the view
either on a single line (as with a traditional Notes view) or in a "business card" style format with each entry
displayed in an individual box and the boxes arranged in columns, scrolling vertically. To create a view
that allows this sort of "business card" format, what type of Layout Viewer do you need to specify in the
View Properties?
A. Tiled
B. Boxed
C. Vertical
D. Composite
Answer: A

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NO.15 The new Rich Text Lite "Thumbnail" input type allows you to specify the height and width of the
thumbnail image, along with what other attribute?
A. File type
B. Color depth
C. Image resolution
D. Attachment name
Answer: D

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NO.16 Luigi has created a view for his mail file that shows the size of the document. In that column, he would
like to display the size as either kilobytes or megabytes. How can Luigi accomplish this?
A. Set the number format for the column to Size(K/M/G)
B. Set the number format for the column to Bytes(K/M/G)
C. Set the Preferences For Display format for the column to Size(K/M/G)
D. Set the Additional Display Formatting for the column to Bytes(K/M/G)
Answer: B

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NO.17 Kristen has been asked to develop a Composite Application to "wire" the Customer, Orders, and
Inventory applications together. She understands that this will result in communication among the
different pieces of the new application. How does this communication work?
A. Components use the Composite Application Broker to communicate with each other. The Composite
Application Editor is used to define Actions
and their parameters, and to configure Property Broker options.
B. Components use the Composite Application Broker to communicate with each other. The Composite
Application Editor is launched from Domino
Designer to define Broker Properties and configure Actions and their parameters.
C. Components use the Property Broker to communicate with each other. The Property Broker Editor is
launched directly from Domino Designer (or
can be launched via the CAE) to define Properties and configure Actions and their parameters.
D. Components use the Property Broker to communicate with each other. Domino Designer must first be
used to define the Wiring Properties.
Composite Application Broker options can then be configured using the Composite Application Editor or
from within Domino Designer.
Answer: C

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NO.18 Victor has a Movie Rental Notes application with a Movie Inventory view. The database is not full-text
indexed, and users are complaining about the long search times when they attempt to search the
database. How can Victor prevent searching in this database if no full-text index has been created?
A. Select the don't allow simple search option in the Database properties.
B. Deselect the allow simple search option in the Movie Inventory view properties.
C. Deselect the allow simple search option in the Movie Inventory document properties.
D. Select the ponfirm full text index before search option in the Database properties.
Answer: A

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NO.19 Scott has just created a new NSF-based Composite Application. He has added two components to his
application and is about to close the Composite Application Editor (CAE). What does he need to do if he
now wants to see how his Composite Application appears in the user interface?
A. Scott will not be able to open the Composite Application within the user interface yet. The database
launch properties must first be set to "Launch as Composite Application".
B. Nothing. The CAE is opened from within the Composite Application. When Scott exits the CAE, he is
automatically presented again with the Composite Application, open in the user interface.
C. Scott will not be able to open the Composite Application within the user interface yet. He will first need
to open the Composite Application using Domino Designer and set the Wiring Properties.
D. When Scott exits the CAE, he is back at the Notes Workspace, just as when exiting other NSF-based
applications. Double-click on the Composite Application's icon on the Workspace to open it in the user
interface.
Answer: B

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NO.20 Nina has been asked to add several views to the Sales.nsf database, many of which are to include
multiple sorted columns and multiple user-sortable columns. How can she help minimize the impact to the
server from these new views?
A. Select the "Defer index creation until first use" Advanced Option from the Advanced tab of the
database properties.
B. Open each view that includes sorted or user-sortable columns. Select the "Defer index creation until
first use" Index option from the Advanced tab of the view properties.
C. Open each view that includes sorted columns. From the Sorting tab of the column properties of each
sorted column, select the "Defer index creation until first use" option.
D. Open each view that includes a user-sortable column. From the Sorting tab of the column properties of
each user-sortable column, select the "Defer index creation until first use" option.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: LOT-982
Exam Name: IBM (Administering IBM LotusQuickr8.1 Services for WebShperePortal)
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Total Q&A: 95 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Vince has configured People Awareness in Lotus Quickr for WebSphere Portal. When users click a
person link, the Person menu displays a set of contact information about the selected person, such as his
or her telephone number. In which of the following locations is the information configured?
A. wsawareness.pref
B. qpconfig.properties
C. membermgr.preferences
D. CSEnvironment.properties
Answer: D

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NO.2 While creating user IDs for your users, you are receiving requests for usernames that do not follow the
normal company standards. Which of the following are NOT supported characters in normal
circumstances for a valid user ID?
A. Dash
B. Period
C. Umlauts
D. Underscore
Answer: C

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NO.3 You have configured multiple instances of Lotus Quickr on a single WebSphere Application Server. To
configure each, you must access Lotus Quickr via a Web browser to a fully qualified domain name,
followed by the port. Which of the following is the default transport port that is created by WebSphere
Application Server?
A. 80
B. 8088
C. 10038
D. 18808
Answer: C

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NO.4 Before installing Lotus Quickr for WebSphere Portal, which of the following permissions and rights are
NOT required for the system logon user ID you will use during installation?
A. The user ID must already exist prior to installation
B. The user ID must contain a password that is not shorter than 8 characters
C. The user ID must be a local Windows user ID that is in the Administrators group
D. The user ID must have specific security access rights if you intend to run Lotus Quickr as a service
Answer: B

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NO.5 Users of the connector for Lotus Sametime and the connector for Lotus Notes can invite others through
which of the following default methods?
A. By sending URL links via email to the users
B. By adding the user as an editor to any place
C. By creating a connector room in the places they manage
D. By creating connector documents in the main.nsf of the place where they are managers
Answer: B

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NO.6 To support Portal Search in a clustered architecture, the search service should be installed in which of
the following?
A. Locally
B. Remotely
C. On each node
D. On the Web server
Answer: B

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NO.7 Before retrieving the LTPA key from the Lotus Quickr server, for single sign-on and importing it into the
Lotus Domino servers, which of the following options must be disabled?
A. Minimal user authentication
B. Global authentication mechanisms
C. Web inbound security attribute propagation
D. LTPA Global Security Enforcement authentication
Answer: C

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NO.8 The Departmental/Express installation uses a predefined user ID, along with the password you enter,
to configure DB2 and create an account on the local system. What is the default name on this account?
A. wpdb2ins
B. wasadmin
C. db2admin
D. quickradmin
Answer: A

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NO.9 You have configured your Lotus Quickr environment for integration with Lotus Sametime. Once the
Lotus Quickr server is configured to recognize the Lotus Sametime server, the Chat command is
supported by an applet with which of the following names?
A. QPLink
B. STLinks
C. STAware
D. QPAware
Answer: B

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NO.10 You have chosen to establish a demonstration environment for Lotus Quickr for WebSphere Portal.
You have selected Microsoft Windows as the operating system for this installation. Which of the following
will be installed with Lotus Quickr on this server by default?
A. IBM Lotus Domino Server
B. IBM Tivoli License Manager
C. IBM WebSphere eCommerce Server
D. IBM DB2 Universal Database Enterprise Server Edition
Answer: D

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NO.11 Lotus Quickr has the ability to be installed on a single server or in a cluster. Which of the following is
NOT a single-server installation option?
A. Developmental
B. Departmental/Express
C. Advanced Single Server
D. Advanced Enterprise Cluster
Answer: D

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NO.12 Terrance has successfully created a Web SSO configuration document to integrate his Lotus Domino
domain with the WebSphere Application server running Lotus Quickr. Even after replicating the document
to all the other Lotus Domino servers in that domain, however, he is unable to successfully pass
authentication across the servers. Which of the following is the cause for this issue?
A. All servers are part of the same DNS domain
B. All the servers are connected to the same LDAP source
C. The WebSphere Application Server was used to export the LTPA token into Lotus Domino
D. Enabling multi-server authentication must be done individually for every Lotus Domino server
Answer: D

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NO.13 To simplify default role assignments to be propagated to all individual resources through inheritance,
which of the following would you utilize?
A. Role ranges
B. Domain XMLAccess
C. Virtual resources
D. Image propagation
Answer: C

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NO.14 Policies for Lotus Quickr are grouped in which of the following manners?
A. According to alphabetical order
B. According to the types of resources
C. According to who created the policies
D. According to the sort order for the Lotus Quickr libraries
Answer: B

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NO.15 Oscar has been given the task of integrating Lotus Quickr with Lotus Sametime. He has successfully
navigated to the correct directory on the server. Which of the following files must he edit to continue with
the integration?
A. qpconfig.xml
B. wpconfig.properties
C. stlinks.preferences
D. lcc_sametime.properties
Answer: B

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NO.16 Tim is a member of the Parking Team group. This group has been assigned Delegator rights to the
Parking Layout page. Under the Parking Layout page is a group of pages with a parking layout per
building. Tim is assigned as Editor to the Building A page with the rest of the building pages set to
inheritance. Which of the following rights will Tim have to the Building A page?
A. Editor_Building_A_Page
B. Building_A_Page@Editor
C. Delegator@Building A Page
D. Building A Page_Delegator
Answer: C

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NO.17 Gregory is configuring the People Finder for his company's Lotus Quickr environment. He is assigning
fields to be shown by the People Finder. In which of the following locations are the fields that correspond
to the attributes defined?
A. qpconfig.xml
B. Member Manager
C. CSEnvironment.properties
D. Person Attribute Service Object
Answer: B

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NO.18 Dave is removing the ability for users to download and install the connectors for Lotus Quickr from the
server. He has already marked the Connector page inactive. Which of the following steps is also
recommended?
A. Uninstall the connectors from the Lotus Quickr server
B. Delete the connector.ear file from the Lotus Quickr server
C. Update the CSEnvironment.properties file to exclude the lines that allow Lotus Quickr connector
downloads
D. Remove the home page graphics, remove the graphic from the library, and remove links from the page
footers
Answer: D

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NO.19 To enable single sign-on between the WebSphere Application Server and Lotus Domino environments,
which of the following is required?
A. The WebSphere LTPA token generated by WebSphere Application Server is imported into Lotus
Domino
B. The Lotus Domino LTPA token generated by Lotus Domino is imported into the WebSphere Application
Server
C. The LTPA token is created locally by the administrator in the LTPA.properties file and imported into
both WebSphere Application Server and Lotus Domino
D. The LTPA token installer must be run on all WebSphere Application Server and Lotus Domino servers
that will participate in the same single sign-on domain
Answer: A

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NO.20 The Lotus Quickr server in your organization is being integrated with Lotus Sametime. You have
successfully edited the necessary files on the Lotus Quickr server and need to copy over the required
feature files from the Lotus Sametime server. Which of the following folder locations is correct for placing
these files?
A. sametime
B. installedApps
C. node-awareness
D. wasadmin_presence
Answer: A

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