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Exam Code: 250-271
Exam Name: Administration of Symantec NetBackup 7.5 for UNIX
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NO.1 A Symantec NetBackup administrator configures a Standardpolicy type for synthetic backups. What is
required for a successful Synthetic Full if the client is offline?
A. successful traditional Full and Synthetic Incremental backup
B. bring the client online, successful traditional Full and Incremental backup
C. bring the client online, successful traditional Full and Synthetic Incremental backup
D. successful traditional Full and Incremental backup
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which command is used to manually register a new media server with the database on the master
server?
A. nbemmcmd
B. nbdevconfig
C. bpminlicense
D. bpsetconfig
Answer: A

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NO.3 A Symantec NetBackup 7.5 administrator needs to prevent all client systems from performing
user-directed restore operations, while maintaining the client administrator's ability to view the contents of
backup images. How should the administrator proceed?
A. add DISALLOW_CLIENT_RESTORE to the Symantec NetBackup configuration settings on the client
systems
B. select the Allow browse only parameter for the clients included in the Client Attributes of the master
server Host Properties
C. select the Allow client browse parameter in the Host Properties of the client system
D. deselect the Allow client restore parameter in the Host Properties of the master server system
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which types of information are backed up by a cumulative incremental backup schedule?
A. files and folders that have changed since the last differential incremental, cumulative incremental, or
full backup
B. files and folders that have changed since the last cumulative incremental or full backup
C. files and folders that have changed since the last full backup
D. files that have changed since the last incremental or full backup
Answer: C

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NO.5 An organization is installing a Symantec NetBackup 7.5 master server and the license key is
unavailable during the installation process. What will be the result of the installation?
A. All features will be enabled for a 30-day evaluation period.
B. Only core functionality will be enabled.
C. Installation of the master server will fail.
D. Symantec NetBackup services will fail to start on the master server until a license key is installed.
Answer: C

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NO.6 A Symantec NetBackup administrator configures a policy to perform file system backups of multiple
client systems using the Allow multiple data streams feature. All other policy attributes are at default
settings. Which master server parameter must be configured to enable the backup jobs from a client to
run concurrently?
A. Target storage unit: Maximum concurrent jobs
B. Global Attributes: Maximum jobs per client
C. Global Attributes: Maximum backup copies
D. Target storage unit: Enable multiplexing
Answer: B

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NO.7 An organization needs to automatically back up a server's data every other Sunday with a backup start
window from 7:00 PM to 10:00 PM. It is expected that manual backups will never be run. How can this
backup schedule be configured to ensure it runs every other Sunday at 7:00 PM?
A. Schedule type: Calendar Calendar Schedule: Recurring Week Days: 1st and 3rd Sunday
B. Schedule type: Calendar Calendar Schedule: Recurring Week Days: 2nd and 4th Sunday
C. Schedule type: Frequency, once per 2 weeks
D. Schedule type: Frequency, once per 13 days
Answer: D

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NO.8 Four jobs enter the Symantec NetBackup 7.5 job queue simultaneously. All jobs require the same
resources and there are resources available to run only one job at a time. All master server Host
Properties are set to default values, as are the attributes of the policies associated with the jobs. Of the
four jobs, which job will run last?
A. Backup job
B. Restore job
C. Import job
D. Duplication job
Answer: A

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Exam Name: Administration of Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for Unix
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NO.1 Which structure records are stored in the private region? (Each correct Answer presents part of the
solution. Select three.)
A.Disk group configuration
B.Disk and disk group ID
C.File system metadata
D.Disk group kernel log
E.Partition tables
Answer: ABD

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NO.2 Which three are the database agents that are supported by Storage Foundation High Availability
version? (Select three.)
A.Informix
B.DB/2
C.Ingress
D.Oracle
E.Sybase
F.SQL
Answer: BDE

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NO.3 You are working with the Storage Foundation Intelligent Storage Provisioning feature, to create a new
mirrored volume. To prevent system failure, you want to ensure that you are able to perform a recovery of
mirrored volumes in minimum response time.
What should you do?
A.Create a Dirty Region Log.
B.Create a Data Change Map log.
C.Create a RAID-5 log.
D.Create a Snap object log.
Answer: A

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NO.4 You want to allow non-layered volume to change to layered stripe-mirror volume while remaining online.
What is the correct procedure to perform this conversion?
A.Convert the volume, stop the volume, remount the file system, and start the volume.
B.Unmount the file system, stop the volume, convert the volume, start the volume, and remount the file
system.
C.Resync the volume, convert the volume, and mirror the volume.
D.Stop the volume and then convert the volume.
Answer: C

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NO.5 You place six physical disks under Volume Manager control to create 10GB of volume. You want to
use this volume as an archive directory. You need to create a volume that will store three copies of the
archived data. Which command will you use to create a volume with three plexes?
A.vxassist make archivevol 30g layout=stripe-mirror nmirror=3
B.vxassist make archivevol 30g layout=stripe-mirror ncolumn=3
C.vxassist make archivevol 10g layout=stripe-mirror nmirror=3
D.vxassist make archivevol 10g layout=stripe-mirror ncolumn=3
Answer: C

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NO.6 The vxprint command output for volume vol07 indicates that it has three plexes. How will you
determine which plexes are used for data?
A.Note the lengths. Data plexes are all the same length.
B.Note the STATE field. Non-data plexes will be indicated by the value: LOG.
C.Note the STATE field. Data plexes will be indicated by the value: MIRROR.
D.Note the RECORD TYPE field. Data plexes are designated with PL.
Answer: B

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NO.7 How many free partitions do you need to encapsulate a boot disk?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which two restrictions does relayout place on the administration of a volume while it is in progress?
(Select two.)
A.During a relayout, you cannot create a sparse plex.
B.During a relayout, you cannot change the number of mirrors in a volume.
C.During a relayout, you cannot change the number of subdisks in a volume.
D.During a relayout, you cannot create a snapshot of a volume.
E.During a relayout, you cannot create a backup of a volume.
Answer: AD

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Exam Code: 250-314
Exam Name: Administration of Symantec Backup Exec 2010
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Exam Code: 250-310
Exam Name: Administration of Symantec Enterprise Vault 10.0 for Exchange
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NO.1 What is used to perform database maintenance tasks on the Symantec Backup Exec 2010 database?
A. VXGather.exe
B. DBUtility.exe
C. BEConfigure.exe
D. BEUtility.exe
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which two statements are true about the "Recovered Jobs" Error Handling rule? (Select two.)
A. It is only used in a Central Administration Server (CAS) environment.
B. It is enabled by default.
C. It is used to recover all failed jobs.
D. It retries the job based on the "Recovered Jobs" error handling rule settings.
E. It terminates the active job and sends an alert.
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 Which Restore Selections view displays a list of protected servers regardless of which media contains
the data?
A. View by Computer
B. View by Server
C. View by Resource
D. View Selection Details
Answer: C

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NO.4 In the Job Monitor tab, when is the "Created On" column visible?
A. when Detailed Monitoring is enabled
B. when there is a Central Administration Server (CAS)
C. when the Date field is added to the View properties
D. when the backup job state is Running
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which process is used to install Symantec tape device drivers after attaching a new tape library on a
Symantec Backup Exec 2010 media server?
A. right-click on the device inside the Devices view and choose Install Tape Drivers
B. use Windows Device Manager to install Symantec drivers
C. use the Tape Device Configuration Wizard to install Symantec drivers
D. use the Tape Driver Install Wizard to install Symantec drivers
Answer: C

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NO.6 How is publishing disabled for a remote server on which the Remote Agent for Windows Systems is
installed?
A. run Backup Exec Utility on the media server and clear the "Enable the Remote Agent to publish
information to the media servers" check box under the Publishing tab
B. run the Remote Agent Utility on the media server and clear the "Enable the Remote Agent to publish
information to the media servers" check box under the Publishing tab
C. run Backup Exec Utility on the remote server and clear the "Enable the Remote Agent to publish
information to the media servers" check box under the Publishing tab
D. run the Remote Agent Utility on the remote server and clear the "Enable the Remote Agent to publish
information to the media servers" check box under the Publishing tab
Answer: D

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NO.7 How should an administrator determine why a job failed?
A. review catalogs
B. inspect the Job Monitor
C. review the job log
D. inspect policy history
Answer: D

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NO.8 To ensure that the Symantec Backup Exec database is kept within the maximum database size
limitations, which two options should be set to control the amount of data that is groomed? (Select two.)
A. alert history
B. catalogs
C. install files
D. job history
E. backup-to-disk files
Answer: A,D

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NO.1 Which three features are included in the Standard Infrastructure capacity tier? (Select three.)
A. Library Based Tape Drive
B. OpenStorage Option
C. Vault Option
D. Shared Storage Option
E. Flexible Disk Option
Answer: ACD

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NO.2 In Veritas NetBackup 6.5 there are currently three storage units (STU-A, STU-B and STU-C). STU-A is
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have been created as follows: PolicyA is set up to use storage unit STU-A, PolicyB is set up as Any
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If STU-B fills up, and STU-A and STU-C still have available space, what happens to future backups for
PolicyB?
A. Backups will use STU-A.
B. Backups will use STU-C.
C. Backups will remain queued waiting for available space on STU-B.
D. Backups will fail with an error message indicating media is unavailable.
Answer: B

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NO.3 An administrator wants to back up a VMware virtual machine using the VMware Consolidated Backup
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Which component is required to enable VCB backups?
A. Database and Application Pack
B. Enterprise Client
C. Desktop and Laptop Option
D. Workstation Client
Answer: B

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NO.4 What are two benefits of using OpenStorage to manage and control the use of disk-based storage by
Veritas NetBackup 6.5? (Select two.)
A. A Storage Unit can be configured to fail over from a Disk Pool to tape.
B. Multiple Media Servers can access and share a Disk Pool.
C. A Data Pool can be created, which allows load balancing of both tape and disk.
D. Load balancing can be performed across the Media Servers for a Disk Pool.
Answer: BD

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NO.5 Which two purchased options of Veritas NetBackup 6.5 enable the additional features found in the
Enterprise Disk Foundation? (Select two.)
A. Enterprise Client Option
B. Advanced Vault Option
C. VCB Integration Option
D. OpenStorage Option
E. Flexible Disk Option
Answer: DE

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NO.6 For Veritas NetBackup 6.5, what is a backup image?
A. a complete copy of an existing backup to tape media (from a disk staging unit or tape media)
B. the subset of NetBackup 6.5 catalog metadata that describes and precisely locates the data from one
client
C. all backup data that is backed up from one client in a single stream during a specific backup session
D. a full backup of the data from one client, plus the Bare Metal Restore system image from that same
client
Answer: C

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NO.7 What happens when a backup is started and there are no tapes in the pool specified in the policy?
A. The backup automatically fails and a status code 96 is shown.
B. The Media Manager tries to move a tape from the Scratch Pool to the specified pool.
C. The oldest Full backup is deleted, and that tape is reused for the backup.
D. The GUI pops up a message asking the administrator which action to take.
Answer: B

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NO.8 What are three options for locating and viewing Veritas NetBackup 6.5 manuals and other
documentation? (Select three.)
A. NetBackup 6.5 media set (the CD-ROMs and/or DVD-ROMs)
B. documentation files in /opt/openv/goodies/hlp (UNIX/Linux)
C. hard copy documentation provided with NetBackup 6.5
D. online on the Symantec Corporation Support website
E. help files in C:\Program Files\Veritas\NetBackup\goodies\help (Windows)
Answer: ACD

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NO.1 }
Which two code fragments, inserted independently at line 5, will compile without warnings? (Choose two.)
A.public void addStrings(List list) {B.public void addStrings(List list) {C.public void addStrings(List list)
{D.public void addStrings(List list) {
Answer: BC

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NO.2 list.add("foo");

NO.3 Given:
10. interface Foo {}
11. class Alpha implements Foo {}
12. class Beta extends Alpha {}
13. class Delta extends Beta {
14. public static void main( String[] args ) {
15. Beta x = new Beta();
16. // insert code here
17. }
18. }
Which code, inserted at line 16, will cause a java.lang.ClassCastException?
A.Alpha a = x;
B.Foo f = (Delta)x;
C.Foo f = (Alpha)x;
D.Beta b = (Beta)(Alpha)x;
Answer:B

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NO.4 A UNIX user named Bob wants to replace his chess program with a new one, but he is not sure where
the old one is installed. Bob is currently able to run a Java chess program starting from his home directory
/home/bob using the command:
java -classpath /test:/home/bob/downloads/*.jar games.Chess
Bob's CLASSPATH is set (at login time) to:/usr/lib:/home/bob/classes:/opt/java/lib:/opt/java/lib/*.jarWhat is
a possible location for the Chess.class file?
A./test/Chess.class
B./home/bob/Chess.class
C./test/games/Chess.class
D./usr/lib/games/Chess.class
E./home/bob/games/Chess.class
F.inside jarfile /opt/java/lib/Games.jar (with a correct manifest)
G.inside jarfile /home/bob/downloads/Games.jar (with a correct manifest)
Answer:C

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NO.5 Given:
11. public class Test {
12. public enum Dogs {collie, harrier, shepherd};
13. public static void main(String [] args) {
14. Dogs myDog = Dogs.shepherd;
15. switch (myDog) {
16. case collie:
17. System.out.print("collie ");
18. case default:
19. System.out.print("retriever ");
20. case harrier:
21. System.out.print("harrier ");
22. }
23. }
24. }
What is the result?
A.harrier
B.shepherd
C.retriever
D.Compilation fails.
E.retriever harrier
F.An exception is thrown at runtime.
Answer:D

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NO.6 Given:
21. class Money {
22. private String country = "Canada";
23. public String getC() { return country; }
24. }
25. class Yen extends Money {
26. public String getC() { return super.country; }
27. }
28. public class Euro extends Money {
29. public String getC(int x) { return super.getC(); }
30. public static void main(String[] args) {
31. System.out.print(new Yen().getC()+ " " + new Euro().getC());
32. }
33. }
What is the result?
A.Canada
B.null Canada
C.Canada null
D.Canada Canada
E.Compilation fails due to an error on line 26.
F.Compilation fails due to an error on line 29.
Answer:E

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NO.7 Given:
3. import java.util.*;
4. public class Hancock {
5. // insert code here

NO.8 }

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NO.1 Which command displays the attributes of a device?
A. df(C)
B. du(C)
C. devattr(C)
D. format(C)
Answer: C

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NO.2 By default, which crontab file in /usr/spool/cron/crontabs is used to manage process
accounting in
SCO OpenServer Release 6?
A. adm
B. root
C. sys
D. uucp
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which utility do you use to install a CD-ROM drive?
A. mkdev cdrom
B. Software Manager
C. Automatic recognition
D. Hardware/Kernel Manager
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which command clears the contents of a system log file without deleting the file itself?
A. > /usr/adm/messages
B. < /usr/adm/messages
C. clear /usr/adm/messages
D. rm /usr/adm/messages
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which filesystems are created by default in the active unix partition when installing an SCO
OpenServer Release 6 system?
A. /dev/boot, /dev/root, /dev/recover, and /dev/swap
B. /dev/boot, /dev/root, /dev/recover, and /dev/u
C. /dev/boot, /dev/root, and /dev/swap
D. /dev/boot, /dev/root
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which one of the following is NOT stored in the inode of a file?
A. The files permissions.
B. The files disk address.
C. The files name.
D. The files last access time.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following can you NOT use the Boot Command Processor to accomplish?
A. Display or change default boot parameters
B. Enter single-user state
C. Load another UNIX kernel
D. Start the print service
Answer: D

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NO.8 When using an Emergency Boot cdrom, how do you restore your root filesystem?
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B. With a tar backup tape.
C. With an emergency_rec tape.
D. With a dd backup tape.
Answer: C

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NO.1 NGX Wire Mode allows:
A. Peer gateways to establish a VPN connection automatically from predefined preshared secrets.
B. Administrators to verify that each VPN-1 SecureClient is properly configured, before allowing it access
to the protected domain.
C. Peer gateways to fail over existing VPN traffic, by avoiding Stateful Inspection.
D. Administrators to monitor VPN traffic for troubleshooting purposes.
E. Administrators to limit the number of simultaneous VPN connections, to reduce the traffic load passing
through a Security Gateway.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which files should be acquired from a Windows 2003 Server system crash with a Dr. Watson error?
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B. vmcore.log
C. core.log
D. memory.log
E. info.log
Answer: A

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NO.3 The list below provides all the actions Check Point recommends to troubleshoot a problem with an NGX
product.
A. List Possible Causes
B. Identify the Problem
C. Collect Related Information
D. Consult Various Reference Sources
E. Test Causes Individually and Logically
Select the answer that shows the order of the recommended actions that make up Check Point's
troubleshooting guidelines?
F. B, C, A, E, D
G. A, E, B, D, C
H. A, B, C, D, E
I. B, A, D, E, C
J. D, B, A, C, E
Answer: A

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NO.4 You modified the *def file on your Security Gateway, but the changes were not applied. Why?
A. There is more than one *.def file on the Gateway.
B. You did not have the proper authority.
C. *.def files must be modified on the SmartCenter Server.
D. The *.def file on the Gateway is read-only.
Answer: C

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NO.5 VPN debugging information is written to which of the following files?
A. FWDIR/log/ahttpd.elg
B. FWDIR/log/fw.elg
C. $FWDIR/log/ike.elg
D. FWDIR/log/authd.elg
E. FWDIR/log/vpn.elg
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which statement is true for route based VPNs?
A. IP Pool NAT must be configured on each gateway
B. Route-based VPNs replace domain-based VPNs
C. Route-based VPNs are a form of partial overlap VPN Domain
D. Packets are encrypted or decrypted automatically
E. Dynamic-routing protocols are not required
Answer: E

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NO.7 Which of the following types of information should an Administrator use tcpdump to view?
A. DECnet traffic analysis
B. VLAN trunking analysis
C. NAT traffic analysis
D. Packet-header analysis
E. AppleTalk traffic analysis
Answer: D

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NO.8 fw monitor packets are collected from the kernel in a buffer. What happens if the buffer becomes full?
A. The information in the buffer is saved and packet capture continues, with new data stored in the buffer.
B. Older packet information is dropped as new packet information is added.
C. Packet capture stops.
D. All packets in it are deleted, and the buffer begins filling from the beginning.
Answer: D

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NO.1 Significant changes were introduced for CA Customer Experience Manager (CA CEM) version 5.0. A
new CA CEM server deployment model is:
A. software only
B. v5.0 appliance only
C. legacy appliance only
D. virtual appliance only
Answer: A

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NO.2 You are viewing a dashboard that displays data from 10 different Agents. You want to isolate and view
data from three Agents, which you suspect may be affected by a problem. What must you do to enable
this?
A. Activate the Console Lens feature
B. Activate the Historical Query feature and select multiple time periods
C. Select the Show Module and Domain names with Dashboard Name option
D. Create multiple copies of Dashboards, each one designed to show data from a different Agent
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which metrics are MOST suitable for building alerts? (Choose three)
A. Stall Count
B. Errors Per Interval
C. Responses Per Interval
D. Concurrent Invocations
E. Average Response Time (ms)
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.4 A group of business transactions in a CA Customer Experience Manager (CA CEM) domain is known as
a:
A. business service
B. business transaction
C. transaction parameter
D. transaction component
Answer: A

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NO.5 CA Introscope ChangeDetector configuration properties are stored in: A. Change-detector.xml
B. IntroscopeAgent.properties
C. ChangeDetector-config.xml
D. ChangeDetector-properties.xml
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is the name of the .jar file containing the CLW.?
A. CLW.jar
B. CLWorkstation.jar
C. CommandLine.jar
D. CommandLineWorkstation.jar
Answer: B

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NO.7 An element that is a logical grouping of metrics treated as a single element is known as a:
A. Report
B. Calculator
C. Dashboard
D. Metric Grouping
Answer: D

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NO.8 When default metrics are generated during application execution, the probes:
A. Retain data until agents collect it.
B. Report data directly to the Enterprise Manager.
C. Report data to agents, which in turn pass it to the Enterprise Manager.
D. Report data to agents, which retain it until the Enterprise Manager collects it.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 9L0-314
Exam Name: Apple Hardware Recertification exam
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Last Update: 2014-04-29

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Exam Code: 9L0-406
Exam Name: Mac Integration Basics Exam
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Exam Code: 9L0-619
Exam Name: Mac OS X Deployment v10.5 Exam
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NO.1 As an Apple Certified System Administrator in Apple.com .You are defining a workflow in Automator
that will automate the creation of custom NetBoot service images. Which statement is true?
A. The workflow must use actions available in Automator's System library.
B. Workflow creating NetInstall images can use The "Add User Account" action.
C. The results of one Automator action become the input to the next action in the workflow.
D. The workflow can branch based on the results of an action, causing just one of several defined actions
to be performed next.
Answer: C

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NO.2 A Mac OS X Server v10.5 computer has the MAC address 0020114dbcef,the serial number
ABCD1234XYZ, and the IP address 10.0.0.4, which resolves to myserver.Apple.com. Which file will Mac
OS X Server use to automatically configure the computer?
A. 10.0.4.plist
B. ABCD12.plist
C. myserver.plist
D. 0020114d.plist
Answer: C

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NO.3 As an Apple Certified System Administrator in Apple.com. What can you perform with an Apple Remote
Desktop task server?
A. You can check the client information.
B. You can check the local network for ARD client computers.
C. You can arrange tasks for offline client computers.
D. You can turn on powered-down client computers using the Lights Out Management protocol.
Answer: C

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NO.4 As an Apple Certified System Administrator in Apple.com.Your company has two Mac OS X Server
v10.5 computers as Software Update servers. You want the Software Update service on one computer to
retrieve available software updates from the other, instead of both computers downloading updates from
Apple's public Software Update servers.What should you do?
A. You should edit the file /etc/swupd/swupd.conf
B. You should edit the file /etc/swupd/swupd.plist
C. You should edit the file /usr/share/swupd/html/index.sucatalog
D. You should edit the file /Library/Preferences/com.apple.SoftwareUpdate.plist
Answer: B

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NO.5 As an Apple Certified System Administrator in Apple.com.Your company has a Mac OS X Server
v10.5 computer. And a metapackage is an installation package that contains or references other
installation packages.
A. TRUE
B. FASLE
Answer: A

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NO.6 What is the main difference between a sparse bundle disk image and a sparse disk image?
A. The image data in a sparse bundle disk image is stored in single file, but the image data in a sparse
disk image is stored in multiple files.
B. The image data in a sparse bundle disk image is stored in multiple files, while the image data in a
sparse disk image is stored in a single file.
C. A sparse bundle disk image must be formatted as an HFS volume, while a sparse disk image may use
any format available for a Mac OS X volume.
D. As more files are added to a sparse bundle disk image, its file size increases, unlike a sparse disk
image, whose file size remains static as files are added.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Your organization has 100 Intel iMac computers. You are creating a NetInstall image on a Mac OS X
Server v10.5 computer. Which Automator action should you add if you want to specify that the finished
image can be accessed only by a specific subset of your iMac computers?
A. Define Image Source
B. Filter Computer Models
C. Filter Clients by IP Address
D. Customize Package Selection
E. Filter Clients by MAC Address
F. Apply System Configuration Settings
Answer: E

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NO.8 Which statement best defines the term "bundle" as it applies to the Mac OS X v10.5 file system?
A. A folder that is invisible in the Finder
B. A folder of files that the Finder displays as a single file
C. A folder of files that have been gathered and organized for deployment
D. A hierarchical directory structure containing resources geared for a specific purpose
Answer: D

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Exam Code: DU0-001
Exam Name: Data Center University Associate Certification
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NO.1 What does the term "5-nines" availability mean?
A. 5 minutes of downtime per year
B. 9 minutes of downtime per year
C. 14 minutes of downtime per year
D. 45 minutes of downtime per year
Answer: A

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NO.2 What describes the number of times AC current is switched back and forth over a period of 1 second?
A. Voltage
B. Frequency
C. Amperage
D. Power factor
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is the purpose of grounding?
A. To protect against electric shock
B. To step down 208 V power to 120 V power
C. To maintain the voltage during neutral wire bonding
D. To provide a path for the Ground Fault Interrupt (GFI) circuit
Answer: A

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NO.4 Click the Exhibit button.
Which air distribution method is displayed in this picture?
A. Fully ducted supply, flooded return
B. Flooded supply, fully ducted return
C. Flooded supply, locally ducted return
D. Locally ducted supply, flooded return
Answer: A

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NO.5 What are three power distribution components found in data centers? (Choose three.)
A. Ground loop
B. Branch circuit
C. Metered outlet strip
D. Power distribution unit (PDU)
E. Valve regulated lead acid (VRLA) battery
Answer: BCD

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NO.6 What is required for the transfer of heat from one object to another?
A. A difference in airflow
B. A difference in volume
C. A difference in pressure
D. A difference in temperature
Answer: D

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NO.7 What is the highest cost UPS configuration?
A. System + system
B. Parallel redundant
C. Isolated redundant
D. Distributed redundant
Answer: A

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NO.8 Click the Exhibit button.
Which air distribution method is displayed in this picture?
A. Flooded supply, fully ducted return
B. Flooded supply, locally ducted return
C. Locally ducted supply, flooded return
D. Locally ducted supply, flooded return
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 4A0-M02
Exam Name: Alcatel-Lucent Mobile Gateways for the LTE Evolved Packet Core
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Exam Code: 4A0-102
Exam Name: Alcatel-Lucent Border Gateway Protocol
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Exam Code: 4A0-108
Exam Name: Alcatel-Lucent Multicast Protocols
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NO.1 Which of the following are Link State protocols?
A. BGP
B. RIP
C. OSPF
D. IS-IS
Answer: C, D

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NO.2 The state of one BGP neighbor shows Established, which of the following is false?
A. The router has established a complete session with that neighbor.
B. BGP can exchange update, notification and keepalive messages with that neighbor
C. If the keepalive timer expires, the local system sends a keepalive message and restarts
its
keepalive timer
D. If the local system receives a notification message, it changes its state to OpenConfirm
E. Established is the operational state
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following is not exchanged in a BGP Open message?
A. BGP version number
B. The local AS number
C. The hold time
D. The keepalive timer
E. The Router ID
Answer: D

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NO.4 What items are carried in a typical classless routing update? Select the best answer.
A. Network address, mask and metric
B. Network address and metric
C. Prefix and mask
D. prefix, next-hop and metric
E. prefix and next-hop
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following is true, based on the AS Path list shown here? 65206 65111 65100
A. AS 65206 originated the route
B. AS 65111 is a transit AS
C. AS 65100 is a transit AS
D. AS 65100 originated the route
E. (b) and (d)
F. (a) and (c)
Answer: E

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NO.6 Which of the following is a Well Known Mandatory attribute?
A. Origin Code
B. Local Preference
C. MED
D. AS Path
E. (a) and (d)
F. (b) and (d)
Answer: E

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NO.7 ECMP supports which of the following. Choose the best answer.
A. 8 equal-cost paths per destination learned from any protocol
B. 16 equal-cost paths per destination learned from any protocol
C. 8 equal-cost paths per destination learned from the same protocol and preference
D. 16 equal-cost paths per destination learned from the same protocol and preference
E. 4 equal-cost paths per destination
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following statements best describes the function of the RTM?
A. From the router's route table, select the best routes to be installed in the FIB for
forwarding
data.
B. Based on the metrics of the routing protocol, chose the lowest cost route to be installed in
the
route table.
C. Apply the BGP route selection criteria to select the best route to be installed in the route
table.
D. Select the preferred route from the various routing protocols to be installed as the active
route
in the route table.
E. Apply the assigned import and export policies to determine the routes to be advertised to
the
router's neighbors.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: A30-327
Exam Name: AccessData Certified Examiner
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NO.1 When using FTK Imager to preview a physical drive, which number is assigned to the first logical
volume of an extended partition?
A.2
B.3
C.4
D.5
Answer: D

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NO.2 In FTK, which search broadening option allows you to find grammatical variations of the word "kill" such
as "killer," "killed," and "killing"?
A.Phonic
B.Synonym
C.Stemming
D.Fuzzy Logic
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which type of evidence can be added to FTK Imager?
A.individual files
B.all checked items
C.contents of a folder
D.all currently listed items
Answer: C

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NO.4 When previewing a physical drive on a local machine with FTK Imager, which statement is true?
A.FTK Imager can block calls to interrupt 13h and prevent writes to suspect media.
B.FTK Imager can operate from a USB drive, thus preventing writes to suspect media.
C.FTK Imager can operate via a DOS boot disk, thus preventing writes to suspect media.
D.FTK Imager should always be used in conjunction with a hardware write protect device to prevent
writes to suspect media.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which three items are displayed in FTK Imager for an individual file in the Properties window? (Choose
three.)
A.flags
B.filename
C.hash set
D.timestamps
E.item number
Answer: ABD

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NO.1 You are installing an HP A Series switch that requires a backup power supply as well as extra power for
Power over Ethernet (PoE) devices. Which device should you connect to this switch?
A. RPS 1200 A
B. RPS 1000 A3
C. RPS 800 A
D. RPS500 A3
Answer: B

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NO.2 You are troubleshooting a connection on an HP A Series switch that has one LED per-port. You want to
know if the port is operating in the wrong duplex mode. How do you use the LED to obtain relevant
information?
A. Click the Mode button until the mode LED is blinkinggreenand thencheck the port LED.
B. Click the Mode button until the mode LED is yellow and thencheck the port LED.
C. Check if the port LED is blinking,which indicates its duplex status (while its color indicates speed).
D. Check the color of the port LED, which indicates its duplex status (while its blinking indicates speed).
Answer: B

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NO.3 You are servicing an HP A Series switch, which is currently using a file call myconfig.cfg for the
startup-config. You want to preserve your new configuration changes in the switch's startup config.
Which command should you use?
A. write memory
B. save
C. save startup.cfg
D. copy running-config startup-config
Answer: D

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NO.4 You are installing a redundant power supply in an HP E8212 zl switch. Which procedures are
recommended when installing the new power supply?(Select two.)
A. Remove the copper RFI shielding.
B. Attach the new power supply to a different AC power source than the existing power supply to provide
true redundancy.
C. Tighten the retaining screws on the new power supply until they are snug but not over-tight.
D. Connect the redundant power supply to the AC power source before installing it in the switch.
E. Remove the grounding tap from the console port before installing the power supply.
Answer: B,C

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NO.5 A faulty configuration on an HP A Series switch locked a customer out of the management interface.
You bypass the configuration and gain access to the switch's CLI.Your manager asks
you to send her the configuration to examine.
What must you do?
A. Establish IP connectivity between the switch and a BackUp the Startup-Config to a TFTP Server server
and issue the backup command
B. Use the copy command to copy the configuration to your management station.
C. Establish IP connectivity between the switch and your management station and use the save
command to save the configuration.
D. Use the saved-configuration command to select the startup-config and save it out to your management
station.
Answer: A

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NO.6 You have been sent to a customer site to check an HP E8212 zlswitch. When you arrive, you notice
that the Fault and Fan Status LEDs are flashing. What is the most likely cause of this LED behavior?
A. The cooling fan is no longer functional
B. The switch is brand new and needs to have the most current firmware installed.
C. The external power supply has failed, causing the fan to malfunction.
D. The switch has failed its self-test
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which area of the network is considered the backbone?
A. data center
B. core
C. distribution layer
D. LAN access layer
Answer: B

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NO.8 How can you check the status of the ports that are providing Power over Ethernet (PoE) on an HP
E2610-PWR switch?
A. Use the Mode button to selectPoE and then view the port Link and Mode LEDs
B. Use the Port Locator button to selectPoE and then view the port Status and Link LEDs.
C. View the portPoE LED.
D. Use the switch'sPoE LED and the PoE LED for each port.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which switch is specifically designed for networks that require basic connectivity and have little or no IT
support?
A. fixed-port switch
B. light Layer 3 switch
C. modular switch
D. unmanaged switch
Answer: D

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NO.10 You log in to an HP A Series switch over a console session in order to establish IP connectivity
between the switch and the rest of the network. What is the minimum user privilege level needed to
complete this task?
A. Operator
B. Monitor
C. System
D. Manage
Answer: C

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NO.11 You are troubleshooting an HP A Series switch. You attempt to log in to both the CLI and the Web
browser interface in several different ways, but you are always prompted for credentials. The customer
tells you that the person who created the passwords is no longer employed by the company. What can
you do to access the switch?
A. Use the failsafe credentials, admin for username and password for password.
B. Press the Reset and Clear buttons on the switch's front panel, holding them for at least 5 seconds, to
clear the password
C. Access the Boot ROM menu and bypass the configuration, starting the switch at factory default
settings.
D. Access the switch over a direct console connection, which always permits access without a password.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Several HP A Series switches are distinguished by a dual-personality (or combo) port. What is an
accurate description of this port?
A. It can accept either Ethernet Base-T cable or fiber optic cable
B. It can accept either Ethernet Base-T cable or a small form-factor pluggable (SFP) transceiver
C. It is a pair of ports. One accepts Ethernet Base-T cable and one accepts a small form-factor pluggable
(SFP) transceiver. Both can be used simultaneously.
D. It is a pair of ports. One accepts Ethernet Base-T cable and one accepts a small form-factor pluggable
(SFP) transceiver. Only one can be used at a time.
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which E Series switches require two power supplies to be completely operational? (Select two.)
A. HP E4200vl switch
B. HP E5406zl switch
C. HP E5412zl switch
D. HP E2900 al switch
E. HP E8212zl switch
Answer: C,E

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NO.14 Which HP A Series switches provide Layer 2 functionality and a Web browser interface but no CLI?
A. HP A5800 Series switches
B. HP NJ2000GIntelliJack switches
C. HP A3600-E1 Series switches
D. HP A3100 Series switches
Answer: B

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NO.15 You are installing an SFP transceiver in an HP A Series switch's SFP port. Which steps should you
perform? (Select two.)
A. Connect the fiber optic cable to the SFP transceiver before installing the transceiver.
B. Slide the transceiver into the SFP port until the spring clips catch.
C. Rotate the clasp, if present on the front of the transceiver, until it catches the knob.
D. Press and hold the spring clips on the SFP port
E. Press and hold the release button below the SFP port.
Answer: B,C

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NO.16 Which HP E Switch Series is specifically designed to be deployed in a data center?
A. E4200vl
B. E6200yl
C. E6600
D. E8200zl
Answer: C

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NO.17 You check the startup-config on an HP A Series switch and find that the switch uses myconfig.cfg as
the main startup-config and has no backup config. What happens if you use the undo startup
savedconfiguration command?
A. The myconfig.cfg file is deleted, and the switch returns to factory default settings at the next reboot.
B. The myconfig.cfg file becomes the backup startup-config, and the switch returns to factory default
settings at the next reboot.
C. The myconfig.cfg file becomes the backup startup-config, and is booted at the next reboot unless you
set another main startup-config
D. The myconfig.cfg file is retained in the switch's memory, but the switch returns to factory default
settings at the next reboot
Answer: D

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NO.18 DRAG DROP
Match the HP A Series switch user interface with the type of access that it controls.
Answer:

NO.19 The exhibit shows the Power and seven-segment LEDs of an HP A Series switch. What is the switch's
status?
Exhibit:
A. The switch has member ID 8 in the cluster.
B. The switch has member ID 8 in the cluster, but its attempt to join the cluster has failed.
C. The switch has failed the power on self test (POST) with ID 8.
D. Port number 8 has failed the switch's power on self test (POST).
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which device forwards network traffic based only on Layer 2 information?
A. router
B. switch
C. hub
D. firewall
Answer: C

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