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NO.1 Which major differentiator did version 10 introduce to the IBM Cognos BI interface.?
A. Separate workspaces for distinct roles.
B. Unified workspace for all users.
C. Mobile support for all functionality.
D. Ad hoc reporting capabilities.
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is NOT a major advantage that IBM Cognos BI products have over the
competition?
A. Promotion of self-service.
B. Ability to consume information in a variety of formats, languages, and devices.
C. Consistency and accessibility from a wide range of data sources across the entire
organization.
D. Ability to build and automate business processes.
Answer: D

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NO.3 According to studies by IBM and Gartner, what do CIOs list as their number one
concern?
A. Compliance
B. Business analytics
C. Mobility solutions
D. Risk management
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is a high-yield question when positioning IBM Cognos BI to the CIO of an
organization?
A. Do your users trust the data that they have access to?
B. How do you identify outliers in your business?
C. How do you handle information requests from the business?
D. What happens when management is not able to get information they need quickly?
Answer: D

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NO.1 Which of the following items would suggest that the use of space efficient FlashCopy for the
Global Mirror secondary volume could present an issue?
A. The customer is using Tivoli Storage Productivity Center for Replication to manage Global
Mirror
B. The workload has a large amount of heavy sequential write activity
C. There is a long distance between the primary and secondary sites
D. There are multiple primary disk subsystems in the Global Mirror session
Answer: B

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NO.2 A customer’s IT department has had problems meeting their backup window. They now
mandate
that a fast backup process be in place before an application is deployed. They have a DS8000 as
their disk subsystem and a TS3500 tape library for backups.
What is the simplest and most effective option to satis1i this requirement?
A. Implement TS1 140 drives
B. ImplementFlashCopy
C. Install Solid state Drives
D. Increase cache size
Answer: B

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NO.3 A new D58000 mixed mainframe and open storage customer would like to connect older open
(2
Gbps) and mainframe servers (4 Gbps) to the DS8000 system’s 8 Gbps host adapters.
How can this be done?
A. through the GUI, adjust the required FOP ports for open to 2 Gbps and the FIOON ports for
mainframe to 4 Gbps link speed
B. the DS8OIJO supports 4 Gbps for mainframe connection; the 2 Gbps open systems connection
must be connected via an intermediate SAN
C. the customer needs to change the server’s HBA5 to an 8 Gbps link speed type
D. the D58000 8 Gbps Host Adapter ports auto-negotiate to 4 Gbps and 2 Gbps link speed
Answer: D

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NO.4 A customer has an existing D68800 which is installed in their data center. It now must have an
extra frame added to support additional capacity growth, but there is no room to fit the expansion
frame to the right.
Which option should be taken?
A. Fit the expansion frame to the left of the base frame
B. Configure the expansion frame with the DS8000 Passthrough feature to allow placement of the
frame anywhere
C. Disruptively relocate the D68800 to make space to the right of the base frame for the expansion
frame
D. Create an MES to replace all of the existing capacity with larger drives which support both the
existing workload and the planned increase
Answer: C

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NO.5 On the DS8870, which of the following drive options is a valid Easy Tier hybrid pool?
A. SLO and eMLO SSDs
B. eMLO SSDs and 5,400 RPM drives
C. 7,200 RPM drives
D. 15,000 RPM and 7,200 RPM drives
Answer: D

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NO.6 The output of what tool is used as input to Disk Magic to most accurately model a Windows
host
that will be used with an IBM D38000?
A. Jetstress
B. Perimon
C. IOSTAT
D. NMON
Answer: B

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NO.7 A customer has recently decommissioned their DS8700 wants to use the same data center
floor
space for a new D38 870.
What is an important fact for the technical specialist to discuss with the customer as it relates to
data center requirements?
A. The DS8870 uses more power than the DS8700 so more power cords will need to be ordered.
B. The DS8870 uses a different power connector than the D68700 so new cords will need to be
supplied.
C. Air circulation in the DS8870 has changed and flows back to front so cooling vent locations will
need to be adjusted.
D. The rack dimensions on the DS8870 are larger than the D38700 so more floor space will be
needed.
Answer: B

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NO.8 When configuring LUNs for IBM i which is not using VIOS, which of the following is true?
A. LUNs have 512 byte sectors and must match the size of internal drives.
B. LUNs have 520 byte sectors and must match the size of internal drives.
C. LUNs have 512 byte sectors and are limited to 2 TB.
D. LUNs have 520 byte sectors and are limited to 2 TB.
Answer: B

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NO.1 The IBM SOA Foundation includes services that support business innovation and
optimization.
What should be found in an SOA solution compliant with the SOA Foundation?
A. Automatic recognition of marketplace trends and dynamic reconfiguration of services in
support
B. Business process simulation to predict the effect that process changes might have on the
business
C. Alerts generated whenever business efficiency drops below a predefined threshold
D. An SOA dashboard for executives showing new business opportunities categorized by
Return on
Investment (ROI)
Answer: B

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NO.2 A company wants to integrate a number of existing best-of-breed applications by
implementing service
facades and an Enterprise Service Bus (ESB). The initial scenario involves the transfer of
order
information between a number of these backend services depending on business rules.
An SOA Designer is asked to capture the functional requirements.
What is the most appropriate starting point.?
A. Analysis of the information requirements of the existing applications
B. Investigation into appropriate industry standards for transferring data
C. Creation of use cases to understand what the services may be and how they interact
D. Define the component model associated with the existing applications and specify the
service
interfaces
Answer: C

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NO.3 Why is it necessary to enforce policies and monitor services within SOA Services
Management?
A. To insure data integrity and correlate business processes
B. To trace transactions and diagnose problems
C. To collect key performance metrics
D. To ensure service availability
Answer: D

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NO.4 An engineering services company is being asked by its customers to provide solutions
that cross Line
of Business (LOB) areas. Each LOB is independent and is measured on its own profitability.
The Chief
Operating Officer plans to make some organizational changes.
How could SOA enable this business transformation?
A. Provide an abstraction layer for each LOB application that will allow flexible composition of
services
tailored to each LOB business model. Create an Enterprise Service Bus (ESB) that supports
integration of
systems across the LOBs for reuse.
B. Provide shared business services by migrating to a commercial Enterprise Resource
Planning (ERP)
system that can be service-enabled for access through an enterprise portal or from existing
individual
LOB applications.
C. Implement information as a service to consolidate data models and sharing across LOBs.
Support
governance of the service portfolio at an enterprise level.
D. Create an architecture board for each LOB to introduce SOA processes and drive service
identification,
goal modeling and business process re-engineering in support of mapping services to
business
capabilities.
Answer: C

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NO.5 How can a designer most effectively integrate components developed in various
technologies at
different companies into a composite application within an SOA?
A. Through careful coordination to ensure compatible interfaces
B. Through the use of industry standards such as SOAP over HTTPS
C. By placing the components in a service repository which will mediate the differences in
their interfaces
D. By providing code mediation and transformation functions through a business process
modeling effort
Answer: B

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NO.6 A mortgage loan provider currently has legacy applications utilized by a network of
branches and
franchised agents. They want to expand by adding a new channel to allow independent
mortgage brokers
to submit mortgage loan applications. They realize they must provide a differentiating offering
to the
independent mortgage brokers to attract participants and grow the new channel.
How can SOA benefit their requirement?
A. By building an SOA with a secure connectivity layer, they could quickly enable the
mortgage broker
channel to use their applications without any changes to the legacy system.
B. They could reduce the cost to develop new applications needed for each independent
broker by
reusing services as integration code that is written for each broker's system to expedite
development.
C. By service enabling the legacy applications and offering a Web-based portal for
independent brokers,
they can minimize the impact to existing channels, minimize changes to existing code, and
quickly create
an offering for the new channel.
D. By implementing security and governance as part of an SOA deployment, they can control
access to
the current system to determine which brokers are using the system and personalize their
marketing to
the high usage brokers.
Answer: C

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NO.7 A large airline has decided to use SOA as a means to reduce costs through the use of
an Enterprise
Service Bus (ESB) based infrastructure. The IT strategy group has purchased sophisticated
messaging
middleware and prototyped some services related to accessing passenger information. The
airline needs
to decide what to do next.
Which recommendation should be made?
A. Move the prototype to production to assess the impact on the enterprise architecture.
B. Identify a governance method to define policies and procedures for sharing the ESB
infrastructure.
C. Align an SOA project with a business initiative and select high-value services through
process analysis.
D. Add a process server to the infrastructure to provide a means to use the passenger
information
services.
Answer: C

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NO.8 The SOA reference architecture identifies core services including Interaction, Process,
Information,
Partner, Access, and Infrastructure.
What is one valid reason for excluding one or more of these services in an SOA?
A. The application is predominantly middleware in nature, eliminating the need for
presentation services.
B. The consumer and the provider belong to different companies.
C. The business sponsor has set budget constraints on solution architecture and the
architectural
components to be included have to be prioritized.
D. The customer's internal politics make the specification too difficult.
Answer: A

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NO.1 What is the main purpose of the work item discussion section?
A. to add notes and exchange information about the work item
B. to assign the owner of the work item
C. to move the work item through its lifecycle to the resolved state
D. to associate a work item with a release
Answer: A

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NO.2 What are configurable items for the process template?
A. timelines, iterations, roles, and operational behaviors
B. plugins, cheat sheets, and dependencies
C. Java source code, source comments, and event handlers
D. categories, releases, and access control
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. The Deliver operation copies change sets from the repository workspace to the flow target.
B. The Check-In operation copies files modified from the local sandbox to the repository workspace.
C. The Check-Out operation copies files from the repository workspace into the local sandbox.
D. The Accept operation copies change sets from the flow target into the repository workspace and
local sandbox.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.4 In an iteration plan, which value is represented by the length of the progress bar
A. The amount of work estimated
B. The amount of work completed
C. The amount of work on schedule
D. The amount of active work
Answer: B

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NO.5 An organization uses the Formal Project Management process template for a project. Some
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A. high severity
B. high priority
C. on the critical path
D. unassigned
Answer: C

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NO.6 When does the RTC SCM detect conflicts? (Choose two.)
A. When incoming and outgoing change sets are coming from the same user
B. When incoming and outgoing change sets include changes to the same file
C. When incoming and outgoing change sets include changes to the same folders
D. When incoming and outgoing change sets are coming from two different users
Answer: B,C

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NO.7 A team wants to make some attributes mandatory when work items are created. In order to
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A. Work item attributes are all optional by design and there is no way to define mandatory
attributes for work items
B. Add a precondition to the Work Item Save operation to define which fields in a work item must
be filled in before it can be saved
C. Work item attributes are all mandatory by design. Users who create a work item are required to
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D. Add a follow-up action to the Work Item Save operation to define the error message to display
when mandatory attributes are not filled in
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is the velocity for a development team following the Scrum process template?
A. the average number of hours the team can deliver in an iteration
B. the average number of stories the team can deliver in an iteration
C. the average number of story points the team can deliver in an iteration
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NO.1 A client node's file is bound to a management class that has an archive retention set to one year. The
file on that client is archived once a month for one year. At the end of one year how many copies of the
archived file exist in IBM Tivoli Storage Manager?
A. 7
B. 12
C. 19
D. 30
Answer: B

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NO.2 A new IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) Backup-Archive client must be set up on a TSM Server. This
client requires a new policy with three generations of backups for existing files, two generations of deleted
files, and the older generations to be kept for two months. This new client, called NEWCLT, will be part of
policy domain POLDOM. Which sequence of commands will accomplish this?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: B

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NO.3 The customer tells the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) administrator that a Windows file server has
to be upgraded and therefore is put into maintenance. The manager wants to have the data immediately
available for restore in the event of problems. What is one of the actions of the TSM administrator?
A. move data
B. export node
C. copy activedata
D. prepare backupset
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which two statements are true about a point-in-time restore? (Choose two.)
A. Point-in-time restores can be performed for image backups and the system state data for Windows.
B. Files which were deleted from the client workstation prior to the point-in-time specified will be restored.
C. Selective or incremental-by-date backups must be used to restore the state that existed at a specific
date and time.
D. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) restores file versions from the most recent backup before the
specified point-in-time date.
E. If the requested point-in-time restore date and time is prior to the oldest version maintained by TSM,
the object will be restored.
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 Which protocol can be used to back up network attached storage file systems efficiently with IBM Tivoli
Storage Manager V6.3?
A. Write Anywhere File Layout (WAFL)
B. Network Data Backup Protocol (NDBP)
C. Network Data Management Protocol (NDMP)
D. Network Attached Storage Backup Protocol (NASBP)
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which statement about the Wheel of Life is true?
A. Expiration is a prerequisite for reclamation.
B. Migration frees wasted space on sequential volumes.
C. Backup storage pool moves the backup data to the next storage pool.
D. The daily administrative tasks should run in a specific order because it speeds up the whole
housekeeping process
Answer: A

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NO.7 What are two benefits of an adaptive subfile backup? (Choose two.)
A. Large backup window
B. Limited connection time
C. Incremental forever backup
D. Longer Windows file retention
E. Reduced bandwidth requirements
Answer: B,E

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NO.8 All client data has been backed up to the primary pools. What is the recommended flow of data within
the storage hierarchy?
A. The storage pool data is backed up.
B. The storage pool data is backed up and then migrated and reclaimed.
C. The storage pool data is migrated to the next pool and then backed up.
D. The data stays in the pool, and the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager database is backed up
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NO.1 Which two pieces of information must be collected in order to select the appropriate
monitoring agent? (Choose two.)
A. The applications to be monitored.
B. The firewalls in the company's network.
C. The size of the data warehouse database.
D. The operating system of the servers to be monitored.
E. The operating system of the Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server.
Answer: A,D

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5. According to the IBM Tivoli Monitoring V6.2.2 Installation and Setup Guide, what is the
maximum number of agents that a remote Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server (RTEMS) can handle?
A. 500
B. 1500
C. 2500
D. 3500
Answer: B

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6. When planning to deploy a KDE Gateway, which two IBM Tivoli Monitoring components must
be configured to add the KDE Gateway configuration? (Choose two.)
A. Warehouse Proxy Agent
B. Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server
C. Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Agent
D. Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server
E. Summarization and Pruning Agent
Answer: C,D

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7. Which protocol can an agent use to send messages to an event management system when the
agent is running in Autonomous mode?
A. XML
B. SSH
C. SOAP
D. SNMP
Answer: D

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8. An agentless monitoring server is installed with these active agentless monitor instance types
started: 2AIX, 2 Linux, 2 Solaris, 2 Windows.What is the maximum number of systems that can be
monitored?
A. 8
B. 80
C. 800
D. 8000
Answer: C

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9. Which three database products are supported for the Tivoli Data Warehouse database?
(Choose three.)
A. Derby
B. Oracle
C. Sybase
D. MS SQL
E. IBM DB2
F. IBM Informix
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.2 A customer wants fully autonomous monitoring for their operating systems which are based in
a place with these restrictions:
The traditional operating system agents (the knt, klz, and kux agents that monitor the Windows,
Linux, and UNIX operating environments) cannot be used directly.
Which statement is true in order to meet the customer's requirements?
A. IBM Tivoli Monitoring (ITM) will not be the right solution because of the relatively large agent
footprint.
B. ITM will not be the right solution because Java is required for all ITM agents to operate.
C. The traditional ITM operating system agents must be configured for Autonomous Mode.
D. The customer will have to deploy the System Monitor Agents which provide autonomous-only
monitoring for their operating systems.
Answer: D

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NO.3 What are two considerations before installing any IBM Tivoli Monitoring component in an
environment where a single or multiple firewall(s) exist? (Choose two.)
A. Open only one port on the firewall(s).
B. Opening as few ports on the firewall(s) as possible.
C. The existing firewall(s) must be moved and/or uninstalled.
D. Location of components to be installed relation to existing firewall(s).
E. If a single or multiple firewall exists then the KDE gateway must be used.
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 What information must be collected in order to plan a Hub Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server
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A. The location of the servers to be monitored.
B. Which applications are running on the monitored servers?
C. The number of servers and applications monitored by ITM.
D. How many users are logged into each of the monitored servers?
Answer: C

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NO.1 In the proposed HP APM on SaaS Partner Led Delivery model, the HP partner will assume
responsibility for which project phase?
A. implementation and on-going configurations maintenance throughout the course of the
relationship with the end customer
B. initial implementation of the project
C. on-going configurations maintenance only
D. HP APM on SaaS core product setup, implementation, and on-going maintenance throughout the
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Answer: D

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NO.2 Which statement is true about the protocols that are supported on HP SaaS Global Business
Process Monitors?
A. All protocols that are already supported in the latest HP Vugen Software version are supported.
B. The up-to-date list of supported protocols in published on the HP APM User Guide, in the End
User Management section.
C. The list of supported protocols is not public and can be obtained only through the HP SaaS 24 /7
Server Operations Center (SOC).
D. Only HTTP is supported.
Answer: A

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NO.3 According the ALM Partner Handbook, the PC RACI chart Onboarding phase lists the task user
management. Who is responsible for defining the customer project users in the ALM add-on?
A. HP SaaS SOC
B. HP SaaS operations engineers
C. Partner CSM
D. Partner Success Manager
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which statements accurately describe the scope of the HP APM on SaaS partner Delivery
Handbook? (Select two.)
A. It describes how to integrate BSM on premises installation to the HP APM on Saas.
B. The APM on SaaS partner handbook document provides a step-by-step guide on how to install,
configure, and maintain HP APM on SaaS.
C. The handbook provides guidelines for support and indicates reference materials that will allow
you to effectively manage your HP APM Software engagement with your Customers.
D. The APM on SaaS partner handbook describes the APM on SaaS partner-led delivery offering with
descriptions of your roles and responsibilities in the offering.
E. The APM on SaaS partner handbook document is a list of definitions and key terminologies used
by HP SaaS personnel.
Answer: C,D

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NO.5 For any valid HP SaaS contracts, you will receive a unique service agreement ID (SAID), or SaaS
SAID. As an HP software partner you will also have one or more valid software product SAIDs. When
contacting Hp SaaS support which assumption is true?
A. The SaaS SAID is an identifier for HP-internal use only. You will contract the HP Software Support
helpdesk using your existing Software Products SAID. The HP engineers will then dispatch the
requests appropriately depending on the type of requests or incidents.
B. You will use your SaaS contract SAID primarily for HP SaaS infrastructure related issues. For HP
Software products related issues. You will submit other requests using your Software product SAID.
C. For the duration of the HP SaaS Contract, you will use the SaaS SAID for SaaS infrastructure
related issues and HP Software Products related issues.
D. You will contract the Generic HP Software Support helpdesk using either the SaaS SAID or your
existing Software Product SAID. The HP engineers will then dispatch the requests appropriately
depending on the type of request or incident.
Answer: D

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NO.6 How do you find the requirements and process document to connect your BPM software
on-premises (or internal BPMs) to HP APM on SaaS?
A. Find this document on the HP Partner Central Repository Portal.
B. Access the SaaS Library repository form the HP SaaS APM Admin tab.
C. Log a service request with HP SaaS Support to supply the documentation and process support.
D. Contact your HP Partner Success Manager to get you a copy of the documentation and process
support.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which integration can be categorized as non-standard HP APM on SaaS? (Select two.)
A. Integration of on-premises HP data collectors such as HP BPM Software
B. Data exports via FTP
C. Monitoring alert event integration out of HP APM
D. Enterprise management System (EMS) to HP APM on SaaS
E. Integrations requiring a site-to- site VPN
Answer: A,D

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NO.8 You open a severity critical issue and have been working with an SOC engineer to solve the
problem. The time to resolve exceeds the SLO defined in the support datasheet, and you believe
you are not making progress. You feel you need to escalate further. According to the ALM Partner
Handbook, what is the protocol?
A. Send an email to SaaS Support with the subject line: 911.
B. Call the SOC and ask to speak to the lead manager on duty.
C. Contact the sales representative to help you resolve the issue.
D. Contact your Partner Success Manager as your first management escalation point.
Answer: D

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NO.1 The Job Create feature in the Job Storage application in legacy firmware is now what feature in
HP FutureSmart?
A. Quick Sets
B. Save to Device Memory
C. Copy
D. Job Status
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which feature can be enabled through the Initial Setup menu?
A. Email
B. Job Status
C. Save to Device Memory
D. Copy
Answer: B

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NO.3 What two fields in the Map Utility are used to locate features in HP FutureSmart? (Select two.)
A. Search
B. Comments
C. Applications
D. Legacy firmware
E. HP FutureSmart firmware
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 Which reset options are accessed in the pre-boot menu? (Select two.)
A. Clean Disk
B. Restore Factory Settings
C. Cold Reset Paper
D. Cold Reset
E. Reset Supplies
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 How do HP FutureSmart error codes differ from legacy firmware error codes? (Select two.)
A. HP FutureSmart error codes are a combination of hex and decimal values.
B. HP FutureSmart error codes are in a consistent format.
C. HP FutureSmart error codes are product-specific.
D. HP FutureSmart error codes are similar between products.
E. HP FuturesSmart has fewer error codes.
Answer: B,C

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NO.6 Which feature/menu provides access to downloading firmware and resets?
A. Pre-boot
B. Service
C. Device maintenance
D. Administration
Answer: C,D

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NO.7 Which reset options are accessed through the standard control-panel menus? (Select two.)
A. Clean Disk
B. Partial Clean
C. Cold Reset Paper
D. Cold Reset 3 Reset Supplies
Answer: C,D

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NO.8 What is the recommended action before and after replacing a hard disk drive or solid state
memory?
A. Save/Recover
B. Save/Restore
C. Initial Setup
D. Backup/Restore
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP5-B02D
Exam Name: Delta-Selling HP Imaging and Printing Supplies
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Exam Code: HP2-B100
Exam Name: Selling HP Imaging and Printing Solutions (HP2-B100)
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Exam Code: HP0-Y49
Exam Name: HP ATP FlexNetwork Solutions
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NO.1 Which feature is included in a Laser printing system?
A. Tri-color cartridge
B. Charging roller
C. Print head
D. Adaptive lighting
Answer: B

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NO.2 Where can you find more information about supplies questions that relate to topics such as
expiration, warranty, and yields?
A. The HP Product Bulletin
B. The HP cartridge selection offline tool: www.hp.com/HP_Supplies_At_Hand
C. The HP Supplies Website: www.hp.com/page/yield
D. The Clever Sales Portal for Resellers
Answer: A

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NO.3 What results when a non-HP cartridge is used on an HP printer?
A. If the non-HP cartridge is the direct cause of a printer's failure, it will not be covered under
HP-warranty.
B. If the printer senses the cartridge it will report this back to HP so the printer is excluded from
warranty.
C. The original HP Universal Print Driver will not support the printer anymore.
D. The printer will print at a lower quality but at a higher speed
Answer: A

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Reference:http://www.hp.com/sbso/product/supplies/whybuy_warranty.html(see Non-HP laser
cartridges)

NO.4 What are the hidden costs in the framework of printing?
A. Wasted toner, ink,and paper due to reprints
B. Costs of an intern
C. Price of the printer after tax
D. Price of the cartridge after discounts
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which program provides a full service contract to the customer?
A. HP Channel Lead Pay Per Use
B. HP Supplies Big Deal
C. HP Planet Partner Program
D. HP Win-Back
Answer: B

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Exam Name: Delta - Selling HP Enterprise Storage Solutions
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Exam Code: HP2-Z26
Exam Name: Fast Track - Implementing HP Network Technologies
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NO.1 Your customer has several remote offices with only one or two application servers.
They use Symantec NetBackup. Which HP product would you recommend?
A. Run HP Data Protector on a server with spare capacity in each remote office
B. Select the smallest of the HP StoreOnce appliances, such as the HP StoreOnce 2620 Series for
each remote office
C. Use HP StoreOnce Open Storage Technology (OST) plug-in on remote office servers
D. Use HP StoreEver LTO-6 Ultriun tape products with LTFS for fast and easy access in each of the
remote offices
Answer: C

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Reference:
http://h18004.www1.hp.com/products/quickspecs/13218_div/13218_div.HTML (What's new, 4th
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NO.2 Your customer has 60,000 users on a dedicated SAN that wish to migrate to Exchange 2010 on
a virtualized SAN environment with HP 3PAR StoreServ. The 140,000 user HP 3PAR StoreServ
configuration using the Microsoft Exchange Solution Reviewed Program framework required 28 SAN
Fabric Fiber Channel ports. How many Fiber channel ports will your customer need?
A. Six Fiber channel ports
B. Eight fiber channel ports
C. Ten fiber channel ports
D. Twelve fiber channel ports
Answer: D

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NO.3 Your financial enterprise customer has a Microsoft Exchange implementation.
Which statement most accurately describes the importance of this system to them?
A. It is not important. If it is down for a couple of days, it will not matter to the users of the business
B. It is important. If it is down for a day, some users might be concerned, but the business will not
be impacted
C. It is mission-critical. If it is down for even an hour, most users and the business will be impacted
D. It is core to their business, but typically it transacts only a small percentage of their revenue.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Your customer has a number of servers with dedicated storage running windows applications.
Which software is designed specifically for virtualized environment with HP 3PAR StoreServ 7000?
A. HP 3PAR StoreServ Security Suite
B. HP 3PAR StoreServ Application Suite for VMware
C. HP 3PAR StoreServ Data Optimization Suite
D. HP 3PAR StoreServ Application Suite for Exchange
Answer: C

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Reference:
http://www.hp.com/hpinfo/newsroom/press_kits/ 2012 /HPDiscoverFrankfurt2012 / 3P
AR7000_DataOptimize_DS.pdf (page 1, 3rd para)

NO.5 Your customer wishes to implement a data archive along with their HP StoreOnce backup
system.
What would you say to the customer about archiving data on LTO 6 tape?
A. LTO 6 tape gives data longevity; it has a shelf life of 30 years, but has power consumption issues
B. LTO 6 tape provides a long, stable 30 year shelf life for the data and is power efficient
C. You should not use tape; HP StoreOnce provides a better facility to quickly access archive data
D. Tape is out of data and will be superseded by backup, which provide much faster restores and
easier management
Answer: B

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NO.6 How does source side data deduplication with HP StoreOnce catalyst deliver benefits to the
customer?
A. The last backup results are kept on the central commend server
B. HP StoreOnce catalyst has the awareness of what data is already in the deduplication storage
C. The source server has the most powerful processor to perform the operation
D. HP StoreOnce catalyst applies the best data compression and encryption algorithm
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP2-Z32
Exam Name: Implementing HP MSM Wireless Networks
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Exam Code: HP3-C36
Exam Name: HP LaserJet Enterprise 600 M601, M602, and M603 Series Printer Service and Support
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NO.1 Why Is the Hardware Integration Packet included on some models of the HP LaserJet
Enterprise 600 M601, M602. and M603 Series Printer?
A. It stores one unopened ream of paper for quick retrieval
B. It allows administrators to connect third-party solutions directly to the product
C. It displays the current status of all the integrated hardware on the product
D. It functions as a back-up port for firmware upgrades
Answer: B

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NO.2 What does it mean when a device supply reaches the <Supply> Very Low state?
A. The user must replace the specified supply
B. The HP Premium Protection warranty on that supply has ended
C. The specified supply is at or below 20%.
D. The device will not accept any new print jobs until the specified supply is replaced
Answer: B

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Reference:http://h10025.www1.hp.com/ewfrf/wc/document?cc=us&lc=en&docname=c02184434

NO.3 Before replacing the hard disk or performing a remote firmware upgrade, what should you ask
the customer to do to ensure their settings and stored jobs are saved?
A. perform a Save/Restore
B. perform a Backup/Restore
C. print a Configuration Page and a menu map
D. select the Cold Reset option from the pre-boot menu
Answer: B

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NO.4 For which reason should a used inter-connect board (ICB) never be installed in another engine'?
A. Each ICB contains device-specific data, which would corrupt critical values in another engine.
B. The ICB is hard-keyed tothe device it is installed onand attempting to install it in another engine
could damage the ICB
C. The ICB installs an encrypted Key on the formatter Replacing theICB corrupts the formatter
Keynrequiring a formatter replacement.
D. There is a risk that the low voltage power supply would burn an ICB that is not factory calibrated
to it.
Answer: A

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NO.5 The fuser is designed to last the life of the product However, when might customers receive a
low fuser life message? (Select two.)
A. when the devices routinely experience fuser wrap jams
B. when customers mainly print or copy color documents
C. when customers mainly print or copy on narrow media
D. when the fuser frequently fails to reach optimum fusing temperature
E. when customers routinely output copy or print jobs with fewer than four pages
Answer: A,B

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Exam Name: Management of Value® Foundation
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Exam Code: EX0-001
Exam Name: ITIL Foundation (syllabus 2011)
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Exam Code: MOPF
Exam Name: Management of Portfolio® Foundation
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NO.1 Identify the missing word in the following sentence. The Portfolio Management [ ? ] are the
key foundations on which effective portfolio management is based.
A. practices
B. principles
C. cycles
D. techniques
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which is a main element in the resource management practice?
A. Understanding the demand for constrained resources
B. Motivating people to commit to the delivery of shared goals
C. Scheduling portfolio initiatives to avoid adversely impacting operational performance
D. Emphasising the need to operate as one team
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which statement about multi-level portfolios is true?
A. There should be clearly defined rules for delegation
B. Investment decisions are only reviewed at corporate level
C. Management of sub-portfolios is independent of the portfolio governance body
D. All current and planned change initiatives must be included in one of the sub-portfolios
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which is a 'key to success' of the stakeholder engagement practice?
A. Use of contemporary communications
B. Evidence-based forecasting
C. Clarity about governance structures and roles
D. Involve risk experts
Answer: A

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NO.5 Identify the missing words in the following sentence. A consequence of a well-functioning
portfolio delivery cycle is a portfolio [?] by enabling resource re-allocation when required.
A. that remains strategically aligned
B. that has clarity on its high-level scope
C. where the portfolio governance body makes informed decisions on composition
D. that matches planned changes with its capacity to deliver
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following is a main element of the financial management practice?
A. Application of staged release funding linked to stage/phase gates
B. Categorization of benefits as cashable and non-cashable
C. Consideration of financial liabilities arising from performance and guarantee bonds
D. Sub-portfolios are periodically reviewed
Answer: B

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NO.7 Identify the missing word in the definition of portfolio management. A coordinated collection
of [ ? ] processes and decisions that together enable the most effective balance of organizational
change and business as usual.
A. business
B. strategic
C. programme
D. delivery
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following refers to the 'one version of the truth' technique?
A. Referring variances beyond control limit from plan to the portfolio governance body
B. Reporting via a documented route and schedule
C. Specifying points at which reviews of initiatives are linked to funding release
D. Deriving forecasts of costs, duration and benefits of an initiative from similar previous projects
Answer: B

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