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Exam Code: C2090-417
Exam Name: IBM WebSphere Information Analyzer V8.0
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Exam Code: C4040-124
Exam Name: Power Systems with POWER7 and IBM i Sales Skills -v2
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Exam Code: C2020-180
Exam Name: IBM Cognos 8 BI Professional
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NO.1 What must be installed prior to AuditStage?
A. .NET Framework
B. Information Server
C. Java Run-time Environment
D. Microsoft Data Access Components
Answer: D

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NO.2 A company has embarked on the implementation of a centralized data warehouse.
Data Quality Assessment will be addressed at which two points in the implementation
project? (Choose
two.)
A. periodically during post-implementation
B. during the initial project plan development
C. during the analysis phase before actual design begins
D. during acceptance testing conducted after construction but before the warehouse is turned
over for use
Answer: CD

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NO.3 Which two roles must be assigned to a user to complete the configuration of
Information Analyzer?
(Choose two.)
A. data administrator
B. project administrator
C. database administrator
D. production administrator
Answer: AB

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NO.4 Given a review of a new column analysis, which review processes must be completed
in sequence?
A. domain analysis, then format analysis
B. format analysis, then properties analysis
C. domain analysis, then rebuild inferences
D. properties analysis, then classification analysis
Answer: C

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NO.5 For a data quality assessment project, which three roles are involved throughout the
assessment?
(Choose three.)
A. data modeler
B. data analyst
C. ETL developer
D. business analyst
E. business subject matter expert
Answer: BDE

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NO.6 Which two connectors are automatically available when defining a data source to
Information Analyzer?
(Choose two.)
A. ODBCConnector
B. JDBCConnector
C. DataStageConnector
D. WebSphereMQConnector
Answer: AD

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NO.7 When planning a data quality assessment project, application owners have expressed
reluctance to
provide real-time access to their source systems using Information Analyzer.
Which two concepts should be discussed and understood by the assessment team? (Choose
two.)
A. data standardization needed
B. data transformation rules needed
C. timeliness of data and its effect on structural metadata
D. timeliness of data and its effect on data assessment results
Answer: CD

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NO.8 Which two statements are true when importing metadata describing a data source?
(Choose two.)
A. Column definitions can be changed by the user during import.
B. Metadata can be discovered by using the Identify Next Level function.
C. Discovered metadata is automatically imported into the analysis database.
D. Metadata for table and column definitions can be discovered using the Identify All Levels
function.
Answer: BD

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Exam Code: C2090-312
Exam Name: IBM DB2 11 DBA for z/OS
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Exam Code: A4040-124
Exam Name: Assessment: Power Systems with POWER7 and IBM i Sales Skills -v2
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Exam Code: M2010-727
Exam Name: Cloud and Smarter Infrastructure Cloud & Service Management Sales Mastery v1
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NO.1 What problems does automated discovery solve for your customer?
A. None, developers always communicate with IT to let them know where applications are deployed
B. Automated discovery finds new applications as they are deployed and identifies where they are
running, saving the customer time in tracking and providing an accurate topology in the user
interface in case of system issues
C. None, your customer deploys their applications in the cloud and traditional APM tools cannot
monitor that workload
Answer: B

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NO.2 What are three key benefits of Optimize?
A. Breadth of searchable data, built-in expertise, and embedded analytics
B. Improve user satisfaction, simplify IT administration, and gain operational insight
C. Simplified behavioral learning, heterogeneous environment support and machine learning
algorithms
D. Improve user satisfaction, built-in expertise and machine learning algorithms
Answer: B

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NO.3 Virtualization optimization helps companies tackle the challenges of?
A. Patch
B. Storage
C. Application deployment
D. All of the above
Answer: C

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NO.4 Application Performance Management identifies the early occurrence and root cause of
performance issues throughout the application lifecycle. Which of the following are advantages of
SaaS over on-premise solutions?
A. The ability to download agents and point them to dashboards
B. Application dashboards that give users a quick, intuitive way to assess the health of what matters
most to them, application health.
C. Subscription pricing provides immediate total cost of ownership advantages
D. Diagnose and fix system problems and then notify stake holders
Answer: B

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NO.5 What solutions are the building blocks towards an agile, flexible and optimized environment?
A. Virtualization Optimization
B. Cloud Enabled Data Center
C. Virtualization Optimization and the Cloud Enabled Datacenter
D. None of the above
Answer: D

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NO.6 IBM has identified a market shift in buyers from traditional IT toward what role?
A. Marketing
B. Operations
C. Line of business
Answer: A

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NO.7 The Endpoint and Mobility Management portfolio of solutions and capabilities align with which
IBM division?
A. Collaboration Solutions
B. Cloud & Smarter Infrastructure
C. Smarter Solutions
Answer: B

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NO.8 What are the most common challenges that organizations are facing when it comes to mobile
management?
A. Increased severity and frequency of security attacks.
B. Increasing infrastructure complexity and unique mobile requirements are time consuming and
costly.
C. Poor BYOD strategies and incentives are having a greater impact on productivity and can result in
losing potential talent and new recruits.
D. All of the Above
E. B & C only.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: C2090-552
Exam Name: IBM Optim Implementation for Distributed Systems (2009)
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Exam Code: A2010-565
Exam Name: Assess: IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 Implementation
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NO.1 Which two statements are true about installing IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 (ITNMJ on
a Solaris platform? {Choose two.)
A. The ITNM destination directory must be owned as root.
B. If ITNM is installed as a non-root user, all future Tivoli products must be installed as the same user.
C. The setup_setuid_as_root.sh script must be run as root if ITNM is installed and will run as non-root.
D. The setup_setuid_as_root.sh script must be run as non-root if ITNM is installed and will run as
non-root.
E. Multiple ITNM installations on the same server can be installed with both the root account and a
non-root account.
Answer: B,C

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NO.2 What is the primary issue with installing IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 (ITNM) as a root
user on a single UNIX system in combination with other Tivoli products?
A. The system will not run properly as a root user.
B. ITNM might not be compatible with other Tivoli products.
C. There are no issues related to installing as root on a UNIX system.
D. There are extra post-installation configuration steps to complete in order to run the core components
as the root user.
Answer: B

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NO.3 How should an administrator deploy IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 using a command line
installation on a Windows system?
A. console_install.exe
B. launchpad_console.exe
C. launchpad.exe -console
D. install.exe -i console
Answer: D

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NO.4 The scope of the discovery contains the IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 (ITNM) server
and the gateway trace file shows that this is being used successfully as the correct NcpServerEntity.
However, the isolated suppression method is not working. What would cause this?
A. The ITNM server is not being directly polled for status.
B. The ITNM server is not connected to the rest of the topology.
C. There was no SNMP access to the ITNM server so the IP address is not known.
D. The Root Cause Analysis plug-in has not been explicitly configured to use the ITNM server.
Answer: B

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NO.5 In IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 what leads to Fatal messages in the message level log
of a ncp process?
A. process is hung
B. process is terminated
C. process has not started
D. process is running with errors
Answer: B

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NO.6 In IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 given a requirement to discover a new node but not
place it in the topology correctly, which two tasks must be performed when doing partial rediscovery?
(Choose two.)
A. ensure the option Network Discovery Configuration > Advanced > Enable Rediscovery Rebuild Layers
is checked
B. ensure the necessary agents are enabled under Network Discovery Configuration > Partial
Rediscovery Agents tab
C. ensure the option Network Discovery Configuration > Advanced > Enable Rediscovery Rebuild Layers
is unchecked
D. ensure the option Network Discovery Configuration > Advanced > Enable Rediscovery of Related
Devices is checked
E. ensure the option Network Discovery Configuration > Advanced > Enable Rediscovery of Related
Devices is unchecked
Answer: B,C

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NO.7 What does this entry do in the DiscoCollectorFinderSeeds.DOMAIN.cfg in IBM Tivoli Network Manager
IP Edition V3.9 (ITNM).?
insert into collectorFinder.collectorRules ( m_Host, m_Port, m_NumRetries ) values ( "172.16.25.1", 8082,
5 ) ;
A. The collector agent running on the ITNM server connects to the EMS running on port 8082 to collect its
data.
B. The collector agent running on the ITNM server connects to the collector running on port 8082 to
collect its data.
C. The collector agent running on 172 16 25 1 connects locally to the collector running on port 8082 to
collect its data.
D. The collector agent running on the ITNM server connects to the collector running on 172.16.25 1 port
8082 to collect its data.
Answer: D

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NO.8 A customer wants to add some logic around specific IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 poller
generated events. Where would an administrator put this logic?
A. add an exception filter clause to the ncmonitor.noEvent table
B. modify the nco_p_ncpmonitor rules file to include the required logic
C. modify the ncp_poller event generation ruleset to prevent the events from being sent
D. change the EventGatewaySchema.cfg configuration file to prevent the events from reaching the
ObjectServer
Answer: B

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Exam Code: P2070-074
Exam Name: IBM Information Mgmt Content Manager Tech Mastery Test V1
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NO.1 Event logging is stored in:
A. A file
B. The Library Server Database
C. The Resource Manager Database
D. The Websphere Database
Answer: B

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NO.2 What are the different Item Types that can be created in IBM Content Manger v8?
A. Item and Document
B. Resource and File
C. Item, Document, Resource and Document Part
D. Item, Document, Resource and File
Answer: C

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NO.3 In IBM Content Manager v8.4, the WEBi Client is available as well as the eClient. What
would
determine your choice of a client as of the Webi version 1.0.3?
A. eClient can do email
B. Client for Windows cannot do email
C. WEBi does not yet recognize advanced document routing decision making
D. eClient can recognize versions in CM
Answer: C

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NO.4 Event logging is set in the System Administration tool for: .?
A. Each itemtype part
B. All itemtypes alike
C. An itemtype
D. Worknode
Answer: C

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NO.5 IBM Content Manager v8.4.1 added an important functionality. What is it?
A. Ability to call out to FileNet BPM processes
B. LDAP integration capability with Microsoft Active Directory
C. Integration with TSM DR-550 Server
D. Use of Tivoli Total Access Manager in lieu of AD
Answer: A

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NO.1 How can discovery be configured to run at 7:00 p.m. every night?
A. run the script $PRECI`SION_HOME/scripts/perl/scripts/ncp_autodiscovery.pl 1900
B. edit the SPRECISIONJHOMBdisco/stitchers/FullDiscovery.stch file and add in the line within
the StitcherTrigger section:
ActOnDemand(( m_TimeOfDay) values (1900););
C. edit the $PRECISION_HOME/disco/stitchers/FullDiscovery.stch file and add in the line within
the StitcherTrigger section:
ActOnTimedTrigger(( m_TimeOfDay) values (1900););
D. edit the $PRECISION_HOME/disco/stitchers/FullDiscovery stch stitcher and add in the line
within the StitcherRules section:
ActOnDemand(( m_TimeOfDay) values (1900););
Answer: C

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NO.2 In IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 given a requirement to discover a new node but not
place it in the topology correctly, which two tasks must be performed when doing partial rediscovery?
(Choose two.)
A. ensure the option Network Discovery Configuration > Advanced > Enable Rediscovery Rebuild Layers
is checked
B. ensure the necessary agents are enabled under Network Discovery Configuration > Partial
Rediscovery Agents tab
C. ensure the option Network Discovery Configuration > Advanced > Enable Rediscovery Rebuild Layers
is unchecked
D. ensure the option Network Discovery Configuration > Advanced > Enable Rediscovery of Related
Devices is checked
E. ensure the option Network Discovery Configuration > Advanced > Enable Rediscovery of Related
Devices is unchecked
Answer: B,C

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NO.3 A customer wants to deploy IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 (ITNM) in their environment.
They plan to discover and monitor specific various network devices and servers that are throughout their
enterprise. The customer wants to ensure that they manage only a list of devices in their network with a
specific naming convention. They currently keep track of these devices using a CSV file of IP addresses,
hostnames and locations and have SNMP and ping access to these systems. Currently their DNS server
and SysName naming conventions are not consistent. The customer also wants to ensure that they do
not discover IP addresses outside the CSV list.
Which discovery seeding method best suits their ITNM configuration?
A. configure the Collector Finder by seeding the discovery and converting the CSV file to an XML file
B. configure the Ping Finder by adding a list of subnets from the list of IP addresses using the CSV file
C. configure the File Finder to point to the CSV file on the Network Manager server with a comma
delimiter
D. ensure Feedback is enabled and then configure the Ping Finder and the File Finder by adding a list of
subnets using the CSV file
Answer: C

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NO.4 A custom event has been added requiring the creation of a new EventMap. How is this EventMap
associated with the RCA plug-in?
A. register the EventMap with the RCA plug-in using the ncp_gwplugins.pl script
B. ensure that the Eventld is mapped to the EventMap in the NcoGatelnserts.cfg file
C. edit the EventGatewaySchema.cfg and include the EventMap in the ncp2nco section
D. no action needed - any EventMap in the EventGatewaySchema.cfg file will be passed to the RCA
plug-in by default
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is the primary issue with installing IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 (ITNM) as a root
user on a single UNIX system in combination with other Tivoli products?
A. The system will not run properly as a root user.
B. ITNM might not be compatible with other Tivoli products.
C. There are no issues related to installing as root on a UNIX system.
D. There are extra post-installation configuration steps to complete in order to run the core components
as the root user.
Answer: B

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NO.6 How should an administrator deploy IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 using a command line
installation on a Windows system?
A. console_install.exe
B. launchpad_console.exe
C. launchpad.exe -console
D. install.exe -i console
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which restriction is in place when using a silent install mode?
A. The installation process cannot be canceled at any time
B. The silent install file cannot be edited after it has been created.
C. The silent install file cannot be moved between hosts and then reused.
D. The silent install mode is only suitable for a default standard installation
Answer: A

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NO.8 A customer wants to add some logic around specific IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 poller
generated events. Where would an administrator put this logic?
A. add an exception filter clause to the ncmonitor.noEvent table
B. modify the nco_p_ncpmonitor rules file to include the required logic
C. modify the ncp_poller event generation ruleset to prevent the events from being sent
D. change the EventGatewaySchema.cfg configuration file to prevent the events from reaching the
ObjectServer
Answer: B

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Exam Code: M2110-670
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NO.1 What steps should a Primary Support Provider take before escalating an issue to IBM
Customer Support1?
A. Ask the customer to download product documentation
B. Forward emails from the customer to IBM Customer Support
C. Run IBM Support Assistant Lite, get all MustGather information, search the IBM Knowledge Base
D. All of the above
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is the recommended IBM technology that may be used to view and control remote
environments in order to troubleshoot an issue?
A. Same time
B. Fix Central
C. Assist On-Site
D. Electronic Service Request
Answer: C

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Reference:http://www-304.ibm.com/support/assistonsite/

NO.3 Which party owns the responsibility of communicating a Problem Management Record (PMR)
solution to the end customer?
A. The Primary Support Provider will provide the final solution to the customer because they own
the relationship with the customer
B. Since they are most familiar with the code, the IBM Developer will provide the final solution to
the customer
C. The IBM Customer Support engineer will provide the final solution to the customer, because they
own the relationship with the customer.
D. Because both parties have a case open on the issue, the Primary Support Provider and the IBM
Customer Support engineer are required to jointly present the final solution to the customer
Answer: A

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Reference:https://public.dhe.ibm.com/partnerworld/pub/swg/tivoli/lessons/lesson_1_ibm_softwar
e _support_provider_overview_v11.03.21.pdf(slide 11)

NO.4 When should a Primary Support Provider use the telephone to communicate with a customer
that has logged a support call with them?
A. When the customer has to be told bad news
B. When the customer is in a different time zone
C. When the message includes links to documentation
D. When the message has to be conveyed to more than one person
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which upload protocols are supported by the ECuRep Tool?
A. SCP , TCP , FTP and Secure FTP
B. TCP , UUCP , HTTP and HTTPS
C. E-mail, HTTP and HTTPS, FTP and Secure FTP
D. E-mail, UUCP , SCP , TCP
Answer: C

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Reference:http://www-05.ibm.com/de/support/ecurep/send.html

NO.6 Which of these best describes a Primary Support Provider's Level 1 Customer Support
responsibilities?
A. Taking the first support call from their customer and escalating it to IBM
B. Logging all calls in a call tracking system and utilizing the tools available to troubleshoot the issue.
C. Testing new software versions of IBM products and communicating the release of said software
to customers that have purchased the software from IBM.
D. Incorporating and testing any program fix provided by IBM Customer Support (as appropriate),
and delivering or communicating the problem resolution, bypass, circumvention, or other notice of
restriction to the customer.
Answer: B

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Reference:https://public.dhe.ibm.com/partnerworld/pub/swg/tivoli/lessons/lesson_1_ibm_softwar
e _support_provider_overview_v11.03.21.pdf

NO.7 What is required of the customer when a Primary Support Provider wishes to escalate an issue
to IBM Customer Support?
A. The customer must open a Problem Management Report (PMR) through the Service Request (SR)
Portal.
B. The customer must grant IBM Customer Support access to their systems so they can upgrade
their software.
C. There is no customer requirement, the Primary Support Provider will escalate the issue to IBM
Customer Support
D. The customer must install the latest version and patches of the software before IBM Customer
Support can be engaged.
Answer: C

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NO.8 When troubleshooting, it is imperative to gather log files from what time period?
A. After the issue occurred
B. Before the issue occurred
C. When the issued occurred
D. One month before and one month after the issue occurred
Answer: B

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NO.1 The Director of Sales wants a report that meets the following criteria:
All accounts in NY, MA, PA and NJ Account rating of "Hot" or Annual Rev over $8M .The report must
meet the state criteria but can optionally meet the account rating or the annual revenue.
Which report format would you use to create this custom report?
A. The Tabular Report
B. The Summary Report
C. Matrix Report.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following statements are true concerning email activation? (Select one)
A. The email activation feature requires that the user click an activation link before logging onto a
new computer.
B. The email activation feature cannot be disabled.
C. The email activation feature can be disabled by request to Salesforce.com support.
D. The email activation feature can be disabled through the UI.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following is not a Roll Up summary field operation?
A. SUM
B. MAX
C. MIN
D. COUNT
E. Average
Answer: E

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NO.4 The Create New Folder link will only be visible to users with which permission
A. Manage Public Documents
B. Manage Documents
C. Edit Documents
D. Create Public Documents
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following statements are true about Data Validation?
A. Validation rules apply to all new and updated records for an object.
B. Validation rules can update fields which are not included in a page layout.
C. Validation rules can referrence fields which are not included in a page layout.
D. If an error message is not set, a default message will be prompted instead.
E. All of the above.
F. None of the Above.
Answer: A,C

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NO.6 The formula editor may be used all of the following places EXCEPT:
A. S-Control
B. Formula Field
C. Default Values on Standard Fields
D. Workflow Field Updates
Answer: C

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NO.7 When configuring Customizable Forecasting, you can set which of the following Forecast Dates
for determining which opportunities contribute to the forecast?
A. Opportunity Close Date Only
B. Product Date Only
C. Schedule Date Only
D. Commit Date
E. Opportunity Close Date, Product Date, Schedule Date
Answer: A

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NO.8 Organization-Wide Default Sharing Rule for Calendar Access Default is as Follows:
A. Hide Details
B. Hide Details and Add Events
C. Show Details
D. Show Details and Add Events
Answer: B

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NO.1 An administrator would like to add a new travel preferences section in the Miscellaneous
section of the user form.
The travel preferences are stored as custom fields.
The recommended way to implement the solution using a hook plugin is to:(Please select all correct
answers.)
A. Modify html/portlet/users_admin/edit_user.jsp to add the travel preferences section to
theMiscellaneous section
B. Set the portal property "users.form. my.account, miscellaneous"to "travel-preferences" and add
the corresponding JSP
C. Create a Struts action hook to persist the Expando value to the database
D. Add the custom fields to the relevant JSP using <liferay-ui;custom-attribute>
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 Liferay's core JavaScript framework is:
A. jQuery
B. Dojo
C. MooTools
D. AlloyUI
E. YUI
Answer: D

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NO.3 Service Builder does not generate:
A. SQL statements to create tables
B. Hibernate and Spring configuration files
C. Axis web services
D. The view layer
Answer: D

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NO.4 Public render parameters are of the type:
A. List
B. RenderParameter
C. String
D. Object
E. RenderRequest
Answer: C

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NO.5 A hook plugin can extend and override:(Please select all correct answers.)
A. Core portal Struts actions
B. CoreportletStruts actions
C. Portletplugin Struts actions
D. Layout template Struts actions
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 The recommended way to add new functionality in Liferay is to:
A. Create Ext plugins
B. Createportlet, theme, layout template or hook plugins
C. Modify Liferay's source code directly
D. All of the above
Answer: B

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NO.7 In portal.properties:
login,events.post=\ com.liferay.portal.events.ChannelLoginPostActionA,\
com.liferay.portal.events.Defaultl_andingPageAction,\ com.liferay.portal.events.LoginPostAction
A hook plugin can insert a new class between DefaultLandingPageAction and LoginPostAction.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.8 When adding new users to Liferay, the form will display the Details, Organizations and
Personal Site sections based on the following property in portal.properties:
users.form.add.main =detaiIs,organizations,personal-site The "users.form.add.main" property is
listed in the liferay-hook_6_l_0.dtd as a portal property that can be overridden with a hook.
Deploying a hook with the following property in the portal.properties file will remove the Personal
Site section: users.form.add.main =details,organizations
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.1 You observed that the number of spilled records from Map tasks far exceeds the number of
map output records. Your child heap size is 1GB and your io.sort.mb value is set to 1000MB. How
would you tune your io.sort.mb value to achieve maximum memory to disk I/O ratio?
A. For a 1GB child heap size an io.sort.mb of 128 MB will always maximize memory to disk I/O
B. Increase the io.sort.mb to 1GB
C. Decrease the io.sort.mb value to 0
D. Tune the io.sort.mb value until you observe that the number of spilled records equals (or is as
close to equals) the number of map output records.
Answer: D

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NO.2 For each YARN job, the Hadoop framework generates task log file. Where are Hadoop task log
files stored?
A. Cached by the NodeManager managing the job containers, then written to a log directory on the
NameNode
B. Cached in the YARN container running the task, then copied into HDFS on job completion
C. In HDFS, in the directory of the user who generates the job
D. On the local disk of the slave mode running the task
Answer: D

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NO.3 Your Hadoop cluster is configuring with HDFS and MapReduce version 2 (MRv2) on YARN. Can
you configure a worker node to run a NodeManager daemon but not a DataNode daemon and still
have a functional cluster?
A. Yes. The daemon will receive data from the NameNode to run Map tasks
B. Yes. The daemon will get data from another (non-local) DataNode to run Map tasks
C. Yes. The daemon will receive Map tasks only
D. Yes. The daemon will receive Reducer tasks only
Answer: A

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NO.4 You have installed a cluster HDFS and MapReduce version 2 (MRv2) on YARN. You have no
dfs.hosts entry(ies) in your hdfs-site.xml configuration file. You configure a new worker node by
setting fs.default.name in its configuration files to point to the NameNode on your cluster, and you
start the DataNode daemon on that worker node. What do you have to do on the cluster to allow
the worker node to join, and start sorting HDFS blocks?
A. Without creating a dfs.hosts file or making any entries, run the commands
hadoop.dfsadmin-refreshModes on the NameNode
B. Restart the NameNode
C. Creating a dfs.hosts file on the NameNode, add the worker Node's name to it, then issue the
command hadoop dfsadmin -refresh Nodes = on the Namenode
D. Nothing; the worker node will automatically join the cluster when NameNode daemon is started
Answer: A

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NO.5 You are running a Hadoop cluster with a NameNode on host mynamenode, a secondary
NameNode on host mysecondarynamenode and several DataNodes.
Which best describes how you determine when the last checkpoint happened?
A. Execute hdfs namenode -report on the command line and look at the Last Checkpoint
information
B. Execute hdfs dfsadmin -saveNamespace on the command line which returns to you the last
checkpoint value in fstime file
C. Connect to the web UI of the Secondary NameNode (http://mysecondary:50090/) and look at the
"Last Checkpoint" information
D. Connect to the web UI of the NameNode (http://mynamenode:50070) and look at the "Last
Checkpoint" information
Answer: B

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Reference:https://www.inkling.com/read/hadoop-definitive-guide-tom-white-3rd/chapter10/hdfs

NO.6 Choose three reasons why should you run the HDFS balancer periodically?
A. To ensure that there is capacity in HDFS for additional data
B. To ensure that all blocks in the cluster are 128MB in size
C. To help HDFS deliver consistent performance under heavy loads
D. To ensure that there is consistent disk utilization across the DataNodes
E. To improve data locality MapReduce
Answer: D

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Explanation:
NOTE: There is only one correct answer in the options for this question. Please check the following
reference:
http://www.quora.com/Apache-Hadoop/It-is-recommended-that-you-run-the-HDFSbalancer-period
ically-Why-Choose-3

NO.7 On a cluster running MapReduce v2 (MRv2) on YARN, a MapReduce job is given a directory of
10 plain text files as its input directory. Each file is made up of 3 HDFS blocks. How many Mappers
will run?
A. We cannot say; the number of Mappers is determined by the ResourceManager
B. We cannot say; the number of Mappers is determined by the developer
C. 30
D. 3
E. 10
F. We cannot say; the number of mappers is determined by the ApplicationMaster
Answer: E

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NO.8 You are planning a Hadoop cluster and considering implementing 10 Gigabit Ethernet as the
network fabric.
Which workloads benefit the most from faster network fabric?
A. When your workload generates a large amount of output data, significantly larger than the
amount of intermediate data
B. When your workload consumes a large amount of input data, relative to the entire capacity if
HDFS
C. When your workload consists of processor-intensive tasks
D. When your workload generates a large amount of intermediate data, on the order of the input
data itself
Answer: A

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NO.1 Which description most accurately describes Full-processing Data Sources?
A. Each row represents one visitor; each column represents one metric.
B. Each row represents one visitor; each column represents one data dimension and/or metric.
C. Each row represents one classification; each column represents one or multiple metrics.
D. Each row represents one server call; each column represents one data dimension and/or one or
multiple metrics.
Answer: D

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NO.2 In which situation can processing rules access the value of a cookie?
A. When a context data variable is added with a namespace of cookie.cookie_name
B. When JavaScript is used to put the value of a cookie into a variable
C. When VISTA is used to put the value of a cookie into a variable
D. When a processing rule uses the Cookie attribute, and a cookie name is specified
Answer: D

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NO.3 What are Processing Rules?
A. Custom logic applied to my SiteCatalyst reports to control how reports are run in the user
interface.
B. Custom logic applied in the Admin Console to control how data is handled after data collection.
C. Code applied to my JavaScript file to control how data is handled prior to data collection.
D. Custom logic written by Adobe Engineering Services and applied to my report suites at my
request to control how data is handled after data collection.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which represents the character limits for Context Data variables, eVars, and props
A. eVars: 255 bytes, props: 255 bytes, Context Data Variables: 255 bytes
B. eVars: 255 bytes, props: 100 bytes, Context Data Variables: 2k bytes
C. eVars: 255 bytes, props: 100 bytes, Context Data Variables: 255 bytes
D. eVars: 255 bytes, props: 255 bytes, Context Data Variables: 100 bytes
Answer: C

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NO.5 Consider the processing rule shown in the image. Data is sent to this report suite via a
JavaScript file that contains the getQueryParam plugin. The plugin is configured to populate
campaign with the cid query string parameter. No other processing or VISTA rules are running on
this report suite.
Given the following page URL: http://example.com/index.html?dd=adl001&cpid=ad2002 What is
the value of campaign, after the processing rule has run?
A. Ad1001
B. cid
C. cpid
D. ad2002
E. [no value]
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is the best way to roll-back a set of processing rules to a previous state?
A. View the rule history and copy the last good set of rules to the current rule set, then save them
B. Have your Account Manager reset the rules
C. Call ClientCare
D. Re-create the rules based on notes you've kept
Answer: B

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NO.7 Given an eVar with Most Recent expiration that is copied into another variable, what value is
copied?
A. The original value of the eVar, UNLESS a new value was set on the page
B. The value that has persisted from a prior page, UNLESS a new value was set on the page
C. The value set on the page, NOT the value that persists from a prior page
D. The value that has persisted from a prior page, NOT the value on the current page
Answer: A

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NO.8 In which situation could a processing rule fail to pull the query string parameter from the page
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A. If the destination variable already contains a value
B. If the referrer and the page URL both have the same query string parameter
C. If the query string parameter and value are after the location where the page URL is truncated by
the browser
D. If the query string parameter begins with Adobe's reserved namespace
Answer: B

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NO.1 The amount of memory required for Steelhead Mobile installation varies between 81 MB to
228 MB.What is the reasons for the variation?
A. Number of TCP connections
B. Types of application
C. Datastore size
D. Bandwidth
E. All of the above
Answer: C

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NO.2 Can you optimize FTP using Steelhead Mobile?
A. Yes, this is possible on all FTP modes
B. When using active FTP
C. When using passive FTP
D. It is not possible to optimize FTP traffic
E. Only when there is no firewall enabled
Answer: C

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NO.3 Why should you use promiscuous mode on each in-path virtual NIC for Virtual Steelhead
appliance? (Select 2)
A. For LAN/WAN Virtual NICs to intercept traffic not destined for the virtual machine
B. This configuration is mandatory for traffic optimization
C. Promiscuous mode is not required
D. Only verbose mode should be configured
E. Only regular mode should be configured
Answer: A,B

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6. What are the possible ways to downgrade a Virtual Steelhead appliance after it has been
upgraded?
A. Remove the upgrade license and restart the virtual Steelhead appliance
B. Reinstall the original model license
C. Reduce the amount of CPU and RAM allocated to the Virtual Steelhead appliance and it will
automatically downgrade at the next startup
D. It is not possible to downgrade after an upgrade
Answer: D

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7. What deployment type supports fail-to-wire?
A. Physical in-path
B. Virtual in-path
C. Out-of-path
D. Virtual Steelhead appliance
E. Proxy file server
Answer: A

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8. What information does the OVA package include about the Virtual Steelhead appliance?
(Select 4)
A. Virtual disks
B. CPU
C. Memory
D. License
E. Storage
Answer: A,B,C,E

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9. Which of the following features are available with the Virtual Steelhead appliance? (Select 2)
A. RSP
B. HSTCP
C. Fail-to-wire
D. PFS
E. Datastore synchronization
Answer: B,E

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10. What platform is supported by SMC-VE?
A. ESX 3.5
B. ESX 4.0
C. ESX 4.1
D. RSP
E. HyperV
Answer: D

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11. What happens to traffic when a Steelhead appliance reports admission control?
A. Traffic will be interrupted
B. The Steelhead stops the interception of new connections for optimization for as long as it is in
admission control
C. This is just a report and the Steelhead will continue to optimize traffic
D. The Steelhead will start optimizing faster any new connections
E. The Steelhead will shut down in less than a minute
Answer: B

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12. Where are SDR references maintained on a Steelhead appliance?
A. Persistent storage
B. USB keys
C. Flash storage
D. RSP partition
E. Configuration file
Answer: A

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13. When deploying a Virtual Steelhead appliance, how much extra memory should be allocated
for the extra VMware overhead?
A. 3%
B. 4%
C. 5%
D. 10%
E. 2%
Answer: C

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14. You can monitor your Steelhead appliance disk performance using which reports? (Select 2)
A. Data Store Cost
B. Data Store Performance
C. Disk Load
D. SDR Hit
E. Disk Pressure
F. Disk Alarm
Answer: A,C

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15. What of the following are true when deploying the Virtual Steelhead appliance? (Select 2)
A. Only use 10 Gbps link
B. Never reserve virtual CPU
C. Do not over provision physical RAM
D. Always use SSD drives
E. Do not share physical NICs
Answer: C,E

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NO.4 Which of the following are Steelhead Mobile Controller alarms? (Select 2)
A. Memory paging
B. Datastore errors
C. Peer version mismatch
D. SSL errors
E. File system full
Answer: A,E

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NO.5 When upgrading a Virtual Steelhead appliance, what steps can be taken to preserve the
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A. When upgrading a Virtual Steelhead appliance, it is not possible to preserve the existing
datastore
B. Detach the existing datastore and re-attach to the new Virtual Steelhead appliance
C. Run vMotion and move the datastore to a different ESX host before performing the upgrade and
then bring it back afterwards
D. Move the existing datastore to an NFS share and move it back after the upgrade
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NO.1 Which action is required for using structural authorizations?
A. Configure and run the profile generator.
B. Implement the organizational key.
C. Create and activate authorization objects.
D. Assign authorization profiles to users.
Answer: D

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NO.2 An organization has the need to reduce their headcount. Therefore they need to identify jobs
and positions that have to be retained based on critical business processes.
How can you determine what jobs and positions are critical?
A. Execute Complete Job Description (S_AHR_61016501) from Organizational Management Info
System.
B. Execute Infotype Reporting (S_AHR_61016532) from Organizational Management Info System
using Spec. Position Characteristics (infotype 1958).
C. Execute Profile Matchup (PEPM) from Personnel Development Info System.
D. Execute Complete Position Description (S_AHR_61016511) from Organizational
Management Info System.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Your customer needs to manage their employees' performance by developing Key
Performance Indicators (KPIs) that support the Cascading Goals functionality in SAP ECC 6.0 EhP4.
How can you do this?(Choose two)
A. Install the application available in the portal for Business Package 1.40, configure the setting
Organizational Goals using the wizard and assign the 'Talent Management Specialist' role to
appropriate users.
B. Implement a BAdI to add Cascading Goals for all types of goals and three fixed enhancements for
adding Corporate Goals, Team Goals and Core Values.
C. Assign the Performance Management Specialist role to appropriate users to establish the
Corporate goals and Core Values, and cascade them through all levels of the company.
D. Configure the goal details and the KPI measurement on the appraisal template in the predefined
Performance Management Process User Interface.
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 After having set up structural authorizations, your customer is experiencing slow system
response times.
How can you improve system response times?
A. Delete all entries of structural authorization indexes and recreate each structural authorization
profile.
B. Generate indexes for users assigned to these structural authorizations using RHBAUS00.
C. Increase database storage capacity to better process the complex indexing associated with
building and maintaining structural authorizations.
D. Reduce the number of structural authorization profiles to allow fewer users access to the
structural authorization objects.
Answer: B

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NO.5 HR wants to monitor the maintenance of Personal Development (PD) master data.
Which methods are available to audit this?(Choose two)
A. Program RPUAUD00 for logged changes to standard infotypes 0001-0999.
B. Log of report starts accessing logical database PCH.
C. Log of report starts accessing logical database PNP .
D. Transaction PPOME for organization structure changes.
E. Program RHDOC_DISPLAY for logged changes to standard infotypes 1000-1999.
Answer: D,E

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NO.6 Your customer needs a 'Special Exempt' indicator on 'Job Attributes' (Infotype 1610).
What do you recommend?
A. Change the data dictionary definition of a standard text field.
B. Change the field attribute on Dialog Database Assignment Table (T777D).
C. Configure the Screen Modification Table (T588M) and set the field as a radio button.
D. Customize the Infotype to add a radio button for the additional field.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Your customer has implemented SAP Learning Solution (LSO) with Enhancement Pack 4,
Organizational Management (OM) and Performance Management (PM) and requires that the
managers are able to assign courses to their team member's performance appraisal document.
How do you provide this functionality?
A. Configure the integration of the performance appraisal template with the course catalogue.
B. Install the business package HCM_LSO_VLR and set up the parameter for the Add Course from
LSO BAdI.
C. Configure the performance appraisal template using the ORG_PM_APPR and add course to PM
Template BAdI.
D. Set up custom evaluation path and mandatory relationships to assign trainings to employees via
selected organizational units.
Answer: B

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NO.8 The Recruiter is searching for candidates using TREX search, but the system does not return
any results.
How do you test the TREX search function?(Choose two)
A. Check the free text search and the Boolean search in the E-Recruiting frontend.
B. Execute transaction KRPO IMS: Monitoring (SKPR07).
C. Execute transaction Retrieval: Search Server Relation Monitor (SRMO).
D. Check the free text search and the Boolean search in the E-Recruiting backend.
Answer: A,B

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