2013年6月30日星期日

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Exam Code: 650-752

Exam Name: Cisco (Advanced IP NGN Architecture Sales )

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NO.1 What are the three primary developments that influence modern networks.? (Choose three.)
A. social networks
B. location-based services
C. working from the office
D. instant messaging
E. wireline connectivity
F. use of narrowband access networks
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.2 DRAG DROP
Match the terms on the left to the explanations on the right.
Answer:

NO.3 What is the main portal where Cisco Partners can access the tools and resources they need for their
sales and support efforts?
A. Cisco Partner Talent Network
B. Cisco Partner Education Connection
C. Cisco Partner Central
D. Cisco Interoperability Portal
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which two documents comprise a customer transfer of information? (Choose two.)
A. technical high-level overview
B. technical low-level overview
C. optimization tests
D. implementation and testing plan
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 Which three services will be available in the Connected Life at Move service after the deployment of
LTE access technology? (Choose three.)
A. location-based service
B. audio/video streaming
C. VPN
D. QoS
E. gaming
F. remote control of home appliances
Answer: B,E,F

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Exam Code: 642-883

Exam Name: Cisco (Deploying Cisco Service Provider Network Routing (SPROUTE) )

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NO.1 On Cisco IOS XR Software, which set of commands is used to enable the gi0/0/0/1 interface for OSPF
in area 0?
A. interface gi0/0/0/0 ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0 ! router ospf 1 network 10.1.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0
B. interface gi0/0/0/0 ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0 ! router ospf 1 network 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.255
area 0
C. router ospf 1 area 0 interface GigabitEthernet0/0/0/1
D. interface gi0/0/0/0 ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0 ip ospf 1 area 0
E. router ospf 1 address-family ipv4 unicast interface GigabitEthernet0/0/0/1 area 0
F. router ospf 1 address-family ipv4 unicast interface GigabitEthernet0/0/0/1 area 0
Answer: C

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NO.2 When configuring IPv4 and IPv6 IS-IS routing on Cisco IOS XR routers, which three statements are
correct? (Choose three.)
A. By default, a single SPF is used for both IPv4 and IPv6, so the IPv4 and IPv6 topology should be the
same.
B. By default, the IS-IS router type is Level 1 and Level 2.
C. All IS-IS routers within the same IS-IS area must be configured with the same IS-IS routing process
instance ID.
D. By default, metric-style narrow is used.
E. By default, the IS-IS interface circuit type is Level 1 and Level 2.
F. The area IS-IS address-family configuration command is used to specify the IS-IS area address.
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.3 Which four statements are correct regarding IS-IS operations? (Choose four.)
A. By default, Level 1 routers within an IS-IS area do not carry any routing information external to the area
to which they belong. They use a default route to exit the area.
B. Summarization should be configured on the Level 2 routers, which injects the Level 2 routes into Level
1.
C. IS-IS supports "route leaking" in which selected Level 2 routes can be advertised by a Level 1/Level 2
router into Level 1.
D. The IS-IS backbone is a contiguous collection of Level 1 capable routers, each of which can be in a
different area.
E. With IS-IS, an individual router is in only one area, and the border between areas is on the link that
connects two routers that are in different areas.
F. Cisco IOS XR Software supports multitopology for IPv6 IS-IS unless single topology is explicitly
configured in IPv6 address-family configuration mode.
Answer: A,C,E,F

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NO.4 When troubleshooting OSPF neighbor errors, which three verification steps should be considered.?
(Choose three.)
A. Verify if neighboring OSPF interfaces are configured in the same area.
B. Verify if neighboring OSPF interfaces are configured with the same OSPF process ID.
C. Verify if neighboring OSPF interfaces are configured with the same OSPF priority.
D. Verify if neighboring OSPF interfaces are configured with the same hello and dead intervals.
E. Verify if neighboring OSPF interfaces are configured with the same area type.
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.5 Refer to the PE1 router routing table output exhibit.
What is causing the i su 10.1.10.0/24 [115/30] via 0.0.0.0, 00:40:34, Null0 entry on the PE1 router routing
table?
A. The PE1 router is receiving the 10.1.10.0/24 summary route from the upstream L1/L2 IS-IS router.
B. The PE1 router has been configured to summarize the 10.1.10.x/32 IS-IS routes to 10.1.10.0/24.
C. The 10.1.10.0/24 has been suppressed because IS-IS auto-summary has been disabled on the PE1
router.
D. The 10.1.10.0/24 has been suppressed because of a route policy configuration on the PE1 router.
E. The 10.1.10.0/24 has been suppressed because the more specific 10.1.10.x/32 IS-IS routes have
been configured to leak into the IS-IS non-backbone area.
Answer: B

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NO.6 In comparing IS-IS with OSPF, a Level-1-2 IS-IS router is similar to which kind of OSPF router?
A. ASBR on a normal OSPF area
B. ASBR on NSSA
C. ABR on totally stubby OSPF area
D. ABR on stubby OSPF area
E. ABR on a normal OSPF area
Answer: C

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NO.7 What is function of the RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:PE1(config-ospf)#distance Cisco IOS-XR command?
A. To modify the administrative distance of the OSPF routes
B. To modify the default seed metric of the OSPF external routes
C. To modify the OSPF default reference bandwidth
D. To modify the OSPF cost
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which three statements are true regarding the OSPF router ID? (Choose three.)
A. The OSPF routing process chooses a router ID for itself when it starts up.
B. The router-id command is the preferred procedure to set the router ID.
C. If a loopback interface is configured, its address will always be preferred as the router ID over any
other methods.
D. After the router ID is set, it does not change, even if the interface that the router is using for the router
ID goes down. The router ID changes only if the router reloads or if the OSPF routing process restarts.
E. In OSPF version 3, the OSPF router ID uses a 128-bit number.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.9 Which two OSPF network scenarios require OSPF virtual link configuration? (Choose two.)
A. to connect an OSPF non-backbone area to area 0 through another non-backbone area
B. to connect an NSSA area to an external routing domain
C. to connect two parts of a partitioned backbone area through a non-backbone area
D. to enable route leaking from Level 2 into Level 1
E. to enable route leaking from Level 1 into Level 2
F. to enable OSPF traffic engineering
Answer: A,C

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NO.10 Refer to the OSPF command exhibit.
Which effect does the no-summary command option have?
A. It will cause area 1 to be able to receive non-summarized inter-area routes.
B. It will cause area 1 to not receive any inter-area routes and will use a default route to reach networks in
other areas.
C. It will cause area 1 to not receive any external routes and will use a default route to reach the external
networks.
D. It will convert the NSSA area into a NSSA totally stubby area.
E. It will convert the stubby area into a NSSA.
F. It will disable OSPF auto-summary.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 646-580

Exam Name: Cisco (Advanced Security for Account Managers-ASAM)

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NO.1 Cisco's security solutions allow organizations to protect productivity gains, reduce overall
operating costs and enable mission critical deployment of new and existing technologies. Which
government regulation makes it possible to sell a Cisco Security Solution to companies collecting
financial information?
A. HIPAA
B. AS/NZS 4360
C. BS7799/ISO 17799
D. GLBAct
Answer: D

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NO.2 How does business case alignment improve the overall success of network integration?
(Choose
two.)
A. by increasing customer satisfaction
B. by recommending change to the customer
C. by defining project milestones
D. by assessing the realization of ROI and other benefits of the security system
E. by assessing the current state of customer operations
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 In which two ways does a Cisco solution directly reduce the cost of operation? (Choose two.)
A. by minimizing the number of vendors that supply security
B. by improving competitive advantage
C. by reducing overall management complexity
D. by addressing security pain points
E. by avoiding information theft
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 How does the Cisco Security Agent work in conjunction with third-party antivirus software?
A. Cisco Security Agent checks the status ofthird-partyantivirus software and makes a decision
about compliance.
B. Cisco Security Agent checks the status ofthird-partyantivirus software and forwards it to
thethird-partyantivirus policy server.
C. Cisco Security Agent checks the status ofthird-partyantivirus software and forwards it to the
policy server (ACS).
D. Cisco Security Agent enhances the security by sandboxing the applications and the system in
addition to the antivirus protection offered by the antivirus software.
E. Cisco Security Agent makes the antivirus software superfluous.
Answer: D

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NO.5 What are two outcomes of preparing for the business requirements workshop? (Choose two.)
A. defining detailed customer requirements
B. aligning the solution with customer business needs
C. discovering which requirements conflict with the solution
D. defining stakeholders
Answer: A,D

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NO.6 Which two of these statements describe why it is important to have a proactive security
solution
when dealing with data centers and security? (Choose two.)
A. Applications being attacked account for 75 percent of network downtime.
B. Data centers are becoming more virtual and automated.
C. Data center traffic is inherently secure.
D. Data center traffic is decreasing.
E. Attacks are becoming more sophisticated.
Answer: B,E

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NO.7 Which two of these best describe how the Cisco Lifecycle Services approach provides value for
partners? (Choose two.)
A. improves network availability
B. reduces risk in deploying and supporting technologies
C. increases ROI
D. improves customer satisfaction ratings
E. increases staff productivity
Answer: B,D

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NO.8 How do you begin a meaningful security discussion with a customer?
A. Identify customer security needs and assets that need protection.
B. Discuss individual products such as the firewall.
C. Install security agents and IPS.
D. Explain that there are many products that will meet customer needs.
Answer: A

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NO.9 You are meeting with a customer who is concerned about remote employees connecting to
the
network with infected systems and spreading infection across the corporate network. How should
you position the Cisco SDN with this customer?
A. The Cisco Self-Defending Network provides technologies that have intelligent insight into what
is running oncomputers, so there is no possible way for remote employees to connect to the
network with infected systems.
B. The Cisco Self-Defending Network is adaptive, distributing security technologies throughout
every segment of thenetwork to enable every network element as a point of defense.
C. The Cisco Self-Defending Network includes NAC, which evaluates devices that may not have
the latest antivirussoftware or operating system patch, and either denies access to those devices
or quarantines them.
D. The Cisco Self-Defending Network includes integration, which enables a more proactive
response to threats withgreater operational efficiency through the consolidation of multiple
security
services on the devices.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which threat can be traced back to the application abuse pain point?
A. Day Zero worms and viruses
B. unauthorized user access
C. protocol manipulation
D. operational complexities
E. DoS attacks
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 642-980

Exam Name: Cisco (Troubleshooting Cisco Data Center Unified Fabric (DCUFT))

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NO.1 Which command is used to check for potential vPC configuration consistency problems?
A. showvpc brief interface
B. show vpc global config
C. show vpc consistency-parameters global
D. showvpc config
Answer: C

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NO.2 There is an ARP storm in VDC 1. Some users on VDC 2 notice that ARP is not resolving for their
gateways on the Cisco Nexus core. What is the cause?
A. The ARP traffic in VDC 1 is copied to the host ports in VDC 2,causing overutilization and output
discards.
B. Because the ARP process in the default VDC (VDC 1) is responsible for processing ARPtraffic
for all VDCs, VDC 2 will be affected.
C. The administrator has not correctly configured the ARP CoPP class in VDC 2.
D. The ARP CoPP class committed information rate is exceeded, resulting in ARP lossin all VDCs.
Answer: D

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NO.3 You customer is an ISP providing service to thousands of end customers. Its main concern are
focused on using up the total number of 4096 VLANs per VDC, wasting an unused block of IP
addresses, and IP address management. Which technique will address these concerns?
A. create mapping between the VLAN and VSAN to run FCoE to consolidate VLAN and IP
address
B. segment VLANs using secondary IP addresses, which will reduce the management domain
C. create a separate VDC to scale VLAN limitation and upgrade to Cisco Nexus 7018 Switch
D. use PVLANs,which will solve the scalability problem and provide IP address management
Answer: D

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NO.4 A customer is deploying multihop FCoE in its network. Which guideline must the customer
follow
with respect to VE ports to make this deployment possible?
A. VE-port interface binding to MAC addresses is supported.
B. AVE port is disabled for trunk mode by default.
C. Auto mode on the vFC interface is supported.
D. VE-port trunking is supported over FCoE-enabled VLANs.
Answer: D

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NO.5 A customer is troubleshooting FCoE in its network. They have discovered that vFC is currently
down and there is no active STP port state on the bound Ethernet interface. What should the STP
port state be to correct this issue?
A. The bound interface should be in an STP forwarding state for both the native VLANand the
member FCoE VLAN that is mapped to the active VSAN.
B. The bound interface should be in an STP blocking state for both the native VLANand the
member FCoE VLAN that is mapped to the active VSAN.
C. The bound interface should be in an STP learning state for both the native VLANand the
member FCoE VLAN that is mapped to the active VSAN.
D. The bound interface should be in an STP forwarding state for the native VLAN only.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which command would you use to find the AED of an extended VLAN in a dual-homed site of
an
OTV network?
A. show otv aed on the AED
B. show otvvlan on any edge devices in the site
C. show otv vlan on the AED
D. show otvaed on any edge devices in the site
E. show otv site on any edge devices in the site
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which statement is true regarding FHRP considerations for an OTV network?
A. Filtering FHRP across the OTV network is recommended to avoid a suboptional path due to the
election of a single default gateway.
B. Using an AED eliminates the need for FHRP .
C. VRRP is recommended over HSRP or GLBP .
D. FHRP should be limited to only the internal OTV interfaces.
Answer: A

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Exam Name: Cisco (CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNA (803))

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NO.1 A receiving host computes the checksum on a frame and determines that the frame is
damaged.
The frame is then discarded. At which OSI layer did this happen?
A. session
B. transport
C. network
D. data link
E. physical
Answer: D

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NO.2 A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a newly installed host by establishing
an
FTP connection to a remote server. What is the highest layer of the protocol stack that the network
administrator is using for this operation?
A. application
B. presentation
C. session
D. transport
E. internet
F. data link
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)
A. A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
B. A modem terminates a digital local loop.
C. A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
D. A modem terminates an analog local loop.
E. A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
F. A router is commonly considered a DCE device.
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.4 Which layer in the OSI reference model is responsible for determining the availability of the
receiving program and checking to see if enough resources exist for that communication?
A. transport
B. network
C. presentation
D. session
E. application
Answer: E

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NO.5 A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared
twisted
pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?
A. This is a 10 Mb/s switch port.
B. This is a 100 Mb/s switch port.
C. This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.
D. This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex.
E. This is a port on a network interface card in a PC.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 156-310

Exam Name: CheckPoint (Check Point CCSE NG)

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NO.1 If you are using SIP or SIP_ANY, and the Source or Destination is Any, which of the following
statements are TRUE concerning SIP Services? (Choose two)
If the Service is:
A. SIP_Any, and the Source is Any, the object represented by Any (internal or external) is SIP Proxy.
B. SIP_Any, and the Destination is Any, the object represented by Any (external only) is not a SIP Proxy.
C. SIP, and the Source is Any, the object represented by Any is allowed to redirect the connection, unless
it is a
SIP Proxy.
D. SIP, and the Destination is ANY, the object represented by Any is allowed to redirect the connection, so
it
must be a SIP Proxy.
E. SIP_Any, and the Source or Destination is Any, the object represented by Any (internal or external) is
always a SIP Proxy.
Answer: B, C

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NO.2 If the Use Aggressive Mode check box in the IKE Properties dialogue box is
enabled:
A. The standard six-packet IKE Phase 1 exchange is replaced by a three-packet
exchange.
B. The standard three-packet IKE Phase 2 exchange is replaced by a six-packet
exchange.
C. The standard three-packet IKE Phase 1 exchange is replaced by a six-packet
exchange.
D. The standard six-packet IKE Phase 2 exchange is replaced by a three-packet
exchange.
E. The standard three-packet IKE Phase 3 exchange is replaced by a six-packet exchange.
Answer: A

CheckPoint   156-310   156-310   156-310 original questions

NO.3 Which of the following encryption algorithms supports a key length from 128-bits to 256-bits and is
outlined in the new Federal Information Processing Standard publication?
A. AES (Ridndael)
B. CAST Cipher
C. 3DES
D. DES
E. Blowfish
Answer: A

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NO.4 Ann would like to deploy H.323 with a gatekeeper and gateway on her internal network. This network
is
behind a VPN-1/FireWall-1 Enforcement Module. Which of the following objects is NOT required to
configure VPN-1/FireWall-1 for H.323 in this scenario?
A. Address Range representing internal IP-addressed phones
B. Gatekeeper Node Object
C. Address range of external IP-addressed phones
D. Voice over IP (VoIP) Gateway Node Object
E. Voice over IP (VoIP) Domain Object
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following statements about IKE Encryption are TRUE? (Choose three
)
A. The final packet size is increased after it is encrypted.
B. TCP and IP headers are encrypted, along with the payload.
C. IKE uses in-place encryption.
D. IKE can use the FWZ1 encryption algorithm.
E. IKE uses tunneling encryption.
Answer: A, B, E

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NO.6 Vered is a Security Administrator preparing to migrate her organization's IKE VPNs from pre-shared
secrets to PKI with certificates. Vered's organization has client-to-site VPNs between SecureClients and
Enforcement Modules, and site-to-site VPNs between Enforcement Modules. Vered will use the
VPN-1/FireWall-1 Internal Certificate Authority (ICA), to generate and maintain certificates. Which of
the following statements is TRUE?
Vered can:
A. Install and configure an OPSEC-certified Certificate Authority product. Vered cannot use the Internal
Certificate Authority (ICA) to accomplish this task.
B. Migrate the organization's site-to-site VPNs, but she cannot migrate the organization's client-to-site
VPNs.
C. Either migrate the PKI with certificates for her VPNs, or use the ICA for certificate generation and
maintenance. Vered cannot do both.
D. Migrate both the site-to-site VPNs and the client-to-site VPNs. She can use the ICA to generate and
maintain
certificates.
E. Migrate the organization's client-to-site VPNs, if she moves from SecureClient to SecuRemote. She
cannot
migrate the site-to-site VPNs.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following is NOT a method of Load Balancing with
VPN-1/FireWall-1?
A. Domain Load Balancing
B. Round Robin
C. Server Load
D. Round Trip
E. Quantum Load Balancing
Answer: E

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NO.8 VPN-1/FireWall-1 can be configured to enable Voice over IP (VoIP) traffic in which
of the following environments? (Choose two)
A. SIP
B. Q.931
C. G.723
D. DiffServ QOS
E. H.323
Answer: A, E

CheckPoint test answers   156-310   156-310

NO.9 Which of the following FTP Content Security settings prevents internal users from sending corporate
files to external FTP Servers, while allowing users to retrieve files?
A. Use an FTP resource, and enable the GET and PUT methods.
B. Use an FTP resource and enable the GET method.
C. Use an FTP resource and enable the PUT method.
D. Block FTP_PASV.
E. Block all FTP traffic.
Answer: B

CheckPoint   156-310   156-310 test questions   156-310

NO.10 Dr Bill is setting up a new VPN-1/FireWall-1 Enforcement Module. The Rule Base
is configured to allow all traffic, and the Enforcement Module is set up as shown in
the screen capture below. Dr bill cannot get the new system to pass any traffic.
What is the MOST likely cause of the problem?
System specifications:
1. Processor: 2.2 GHz
2. RAM: 256 MB
3. Hard Disk: 10 GB
4. OS: Windows 2000 Server
Results of ipconfig/all
View the following exhibit for the results of ipconfig/all.
A. Routing is not properly configured.
B. The machine does not have enough RAM.
C. The processor is not fast enough.
D. The operating system is not supported.
E. The Rule Base is blocking traffic.
Answer: A

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NO.11 Mark is preparing to install VPN-1/FireWall-1 and has created the installation plan below.
1. Perform the following operations below in sequential order.
2. Install the operating system.
3. Configure routing and IP forwarding.
4. Configure name resolution.
5. Patch the operating system.
6. Set $FWDIR and $CPDIR environment variables.
7. Install VPN-1/FireWall-1.
8. Patch VPN-1/FireWall-1,
Which step in Mark's installation plan is NOT necessary?
A. Operating-system patches should not be applied, until after VPN-1/FireWall-1 is installed. Applying
operating-system patches before VPN-1/FireWall-1 is installed will result in an unsecured system.
B. VPN-1/FireWall-1 configures name resolution automatically. Name resolution should not be part of the
installation plan.
C. There is nothing wrong with Mark's installation plan.
D.
Routing and IP Forwarding should be configured after VPN-1/FireWall-1 is installed. Configuring routing
and
IP forwarding before VPN-1/FireWall-1 is installed will result in an unstable system.
E. VPN-1/FireWall-1 configures environment variables automatically. Configure environment variables
should
not be part of the installation plan.
Answer: E

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NO.12 Static passwords such as VPN-1 & FirwWall-1 and operating system passwords are cached on the
desktop and users are not required to re-authenticate. Which of the following does NOT clear the
password cache?
A. Receives a policy update.
B. Perform a disconnect from a connect mode.
C. Selects the Stop VPN 1 SecuRemote option from the File menu.
D. Selects the Erase Passwords option from the Passwords menu.
E. Reboots the computer.
Answer: A

CheckPoint   156-310   156-310

NO.13 Exhibit
Jacob configured a meshed VPN Community, with VPN properties set as shown below. Which of the
following statements are TRUE? (Choose two)
A. Jacob is using the default VPN property settings for a VPN-1/FireWall-1 meshed VPN Community.
B. Jacob's community will perform IKE Phase 1 key-exchange encryption, using the longest key
VPN-1/FireWall-1 supports.
C. Jacob must change the data-integrity settings for this VPN Community. MD5 is incompatible with AES.
D. If Jacob changes the setting Perform IPsec data encryption with: from AES-128 to 3DES, he will
increase
the encryption overhead.
E. If Jacob changes the setting, Perform key exchange encryption with: from 3DES to DES, he will
enhance the
VPN Community's security and reduce encryption overhead.
Answer: A, B

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NO.14 You are importing a URI specification file from the Match tab on the URI Resource Properties screen.
Where is the editable URI specification file stored?
A. Policy Server
B. SmartView Monitor
C. Enforcement Module
D. SmartCenter Server
E. Enterprise Log Module
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-310   156-310 test questions   156-310

NO.15 When upgrading a configuration to NG with Application Intelligence: (Choose the
FALSE answer)
A. Upgrade the SmartConsole.
B. Upgrade each module's version in SmartDashboard manually.
C. Upgrade the VPN-1/Firewall-1 Enforcement Modules.
D. Copy $FWDIR/state from one version of VPN-1/FireWall-1 to another version of
VPN-1/FireWall-1.
E. Upgrade the SmartCenter server. The version is set during the upgrade.
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which of the following does NOT require definition for a Voice over IP (VoIP)
Domain SIP object?
A. SIP Proxy
B. IP Address Range
C. VoIP Gateway
D. Related Endpoint Domain
E. Name
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which of the following is TRUE of the relationship between the RemoteAccess VPN
Community and the Security Policy Rule Base?
A. The RemoteAccess VPN Community defines VPN connection parameters for
SecuRemote connections. The Security Policy Rule Base is used to allow access to
protected resources.
B. The RemoteAccess VPN Community is used to allow access to protected resources.
The Security Policy Rule Base is used to define VPN connection parameters for
SecuRemote connections.
C. The Security Policy Rule Base is used to define VPN connection parameters for
SecuRemote connections and is used to allow access to protected resources. The
RemoteAccess VPN Community applies only SecureClient.
D. The RemoteAccess VPN Community defines VPN connection parameters for
SecuRemote connections and is used to allow access to protected resources. Security
Policy Rules are not defined for SecuRemote.
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which of the following is NOT a function of the Internal Certificate Authority (ICA)?
A. Provides certificates for users and Security Administrators.
B. Generated certificates for HTTPS Web server.
C. Establishes SIC between OPSEC applications and Check Point products.
D. Authentications SecureClient traffic to Enforcement Modules for VPNs.
E. Establishes SIC between Check Point products.
Answer: B

CheckPoint   156-310 test questions   156-310

NO.19 Which of the following statements BEST describes the difference between VPN Domains and VPN
Communities?
A. A VPN Domain is a network, or group of networks, protected by and Enforcement Module. A VPN
Community is a collection of VPN Domains and the VPN tunnels between them.
B.
A VPN Domain is a remote-access VPN, consisting of a group of SecureClients and their associated
Enforcement Module. A VPN Community is a collection of Enforcement Module-to-Enforcement Module
VPNSs.
C. VPN Domains are used in Microsoft environments, and allow VPN-1/FireWall1- to communicate with
Domain Controllers. VPN Communities are used in Unix environments, to allow VPN-1/FireWall-1 to
communicate with authentication servers.
D. VPN Domains specify encryption properties and access restrictions for users. VPN Communities detail
encryption properties and access restrictions, for machines and processes.
E. VPN Domains are used for Security Policies created in traditional mode. VPN Communities are used in
simplified mode. VPN Domains are not available, if simplified mode is used.
Answer: A

CheckPoint   156-310 test questions   156-310

NO.20 Ken us assisting a user whose SecurityClient password has expired. The SecureClient user can no
longer
access resources in the VPN Domain. Which of the following solutions is likely to resolve the issue?
A. Ken must ask the VPN-1/FireWall-1 Security Administrator to change the setting Password Expires to a
date
in the future. Users cannot adjust their SecureClient passwords.
B. Ken should as the user to change his password, using the New Password option on SecureClient's
Passwords
menu. The user can change his password, then stop and start SecureClient.
C. If the SecureClient password is allowed to expire, the software will no longer function. Ken should help
the
user uninstall and reinstall SecureClient. The user will be prompted to supply a new password during
installation.
D. When the SecureClient password expires while a session is in progress, the session will not exit
properly.
Ken should ask the user to shut down and restart his computer. The user will be prompted to supply a
new
password after login.
E. The user must edit the userc.C file, to change the expiration date on his password. Ken should help the
user
make the necessary modifications to the userc.C file, using a text editor that does not insert Unicode
characters.
Answer: A

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NO.21 Which of the following is NOT a feature or quality of a hash function?
A. It is mathematically infeasible to derive the original message from the message digest.
B. The hash function is irreversible.
C. It is mathematically infeasible for two different messages to produce the same message digest.
D. The hash function forms a two-way, secure communication.
E. Encrypted with the sender's RSA private key, the hash function forms the digital signature.
Answer: D

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NO.22 Which of the following is NOT a method used to configure SIP?
A. With SIP Proxies.
B. With a SIP Gatekeeper to a network without a proxy.
C. From a network without a proxy to a network with a proxy.
D. With a proxy for internal communications.
E. Without SIP Proxies.
Answer: B

CheckPoint   156-310   156-310

NO.23 Ann is a VPN-1/FireWall-1 Security Administrator. Her organization's solution for remote-access
security is SecureClient. Ann's organization is undergoing a security audit. The auditor is concerned,
because static passwords, such as VPN-1 & FireWall-1 and operating system passwords are cached on
the desktop, and users are not required to re-authenticate. Which of the following explanations addresses
the auditor's concerns?
A. The auditor has incorrect information. SecureClient caches all passwords. A strong encryption
algorithm
protects the proprietary database used for password caching, so there is never a need to purge cached
passwords.
B. The auditor has incorrect information. SecureClient never cached passwords. SecureClient users are
forced
to re-authenticate for each new connection, regardless of the type of password used.
C. Cached passwords are purged when SecureClient receives Policy and Topology updates. Most
installation
update Security Policies frequently, so cached passwords are rarely stored for longer than six to eight
hours.
Renaming the userc.C file to userc.old will also purge the password cache.
D. Cached passwords are purged at an interval specified in the Desktop Security Policy. As long as the
user.C
file is encrypted, users cannot tamper with the interval setting. The interval time is in seconds from the
time to
SecureClient software is launched.
E. Cached passwords are purged when SecureClient is stopped, when a connect mode is disconnected,
and
when the computer is rebooted. SecureClient users can manually purge the cache, by choosing the Erase
Passwords option from the Passwords menu.
Answer: E

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NO.24 All of the following are steps for implementing UFP, EXCEPT:
A. While the UFP Server is analyzing the requests, the Enforcement Module HTTP Proxy Server initiates
a
request to the destination. The HTTP Proxy server then waits for a response from the UFP Server before
allowing the request.
B. The client invokes a connection through the VPN-1/FireWall-1 Enforcement Module.
C. The Content Server inspects the URLs and returns the validation result message to the Enforcement
Module.
D. The Enforcement Module takes the action defined in the Rule Base for the resource.
E. The Security Server uses UFP to send the URL to a third-party UFP Server categorization.
Answer: A

CheckPoint   156-310   156-310   156-310

NO.25 You are using Hybrid IKE for Client Authentication. SecureClient produces the error Certifcation is
badly signed. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem and the appropriate
solution?
A. Under the firewall object > VPN > IKE Properties > Support Authentication Methods, Hybrid Mode is
not
selected. Select the Hybrid Mode option, and stop and restart the Enforcement Module.
B. The Distinguished Name used is too long. Change it to a shorter name in the Manage Certificate
Properties screen.
C. The certificate created by the Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) is corrupt. Create a new certificate.
D. The SecureClient and VPN-1/FireWall-1 Enforcement Module to which it is attempting to connect are
running incompatible versions. Upgrade the SecureClient to NG with Application Intelligence.
E. The digital signature is missing. Add the digital signature to the certificate in the Manage Certificate
Properties screen.
Answer: A

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NO.26 Which of the following statements BEST explains the difference between VPN-1/FireWall-1 logs and
alerts?
The difference between VPN-1/FireWall-1 logs and alerts is that:
A. Log entries contain detailed information about traffic. Alerts contain only brief descriptions of problems.
And links to the appropriate log entries.
B. Log entries are recorded in SmartView Tracker, and are persistent. Alerts appear only in SmartView
Status,
and are not persistent.
C. Logs are recorded sequentially, by date and time received. Alerts are arranged by priority and
magnitude.
D. Logging allows a Security Administrator to view historical connection information. Alerts are real-time
and
can be applied to a Security Policy's predefined tracking properties.
E. Logs are generated for explicit rules, defined by Security Administrators in the Security Policy. Alerts
are
automatically generated by implicit rules, created as a result of Global Properties settings.
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-310 original questions   156-310 braindump

NO.27 When you upgrade VPN-1/FireWall-1, what components are carried over to the new
version? (Choose two)
A. Licenses
B. VPN-1/FireWall-1 database
C. OPSEC database
D. Backward Compatibility
E. Rule Base
Answer: A, B

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NO.28 Which of the following is NOT a valid VPN configuration option available in the
VPN Manager of the Simplified Rule Base?
A. Point-to-Point
B. Mesh
C. Remote Access
D. Star with Meshed Center
E. Star
Answer: A

CheckPoint questions   156-310   156-310 braindump

NO.29 The
_______ algorithm determines the load of each physical server and requires a Load Measuring
Agent be installed on each server.
A. Server Load
B. Server Relay
C. Round Robin
D. Domain
E. Round Trip
Answer: A

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NO.30 Diffie-Hellman uses which type of key exchange?
A. Static
B. Dynamic
C. Symmetric
D. Asymmetric
E. Adaptive
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 156-915.65

Exam Name: CheckPoint (Accelerated CCSE NGX R65 )

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NO.1 When launching SmartDashboard, what information is required to log into VPN-1 NGX R65?
A.User Name, Password, SmartCenter Server IP
B.User Name, SmartCenter Server IP, certificate fingerprint file
C.Password, SmartCenter Server IP, LDAP Server
D.Password, SmartCenter Server IP
Answer:B

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NO.2 When a user selects to allow Hotspot, SecureClient modifies the Desktop Security Policy and/or Hub
Mode routing to enable Hotspot registration. Which of the following is NOT true concerning this
modification?
A.The modification is restricted by time.
B.The number of IP addresses accessed is not restricted.
C.IP addresses accessed during registration are recorded.
D.Ports accessed during registration are recorded.
Answer:B

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NO.3 Which of the following would NOT be a reason for beginning with a fresh installation of VPN-1 NGX R65,
instead of upgrading a previous version to VPN-1 NGX R65?
A.You see a more logical way to organize your rules and objects.
B.You want to keep your Check Point configuration.
C.Your Security Policy includes rules and objects whose purpose you do not know.
D.Objects and rules' naming conventions have changed over time.
Answer:B

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NO.4 How do you block some seldom-used FTP commands, such as CWD, and FIND from passing through
the Gateway?
A.Use FTP Security Server settings in SmartDefense.
B.Add the restricted commands to the aftpd.conf file in the SmartCenter Server.
C.Configure the restricted FTP commands in the Security Servers screen of the Global properties.
D.Enable FTP Bounce checking in SmartDefense.
Answer:A

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NO.5 In ClusterXL, which of the following are defined by default as critical devices?
A.Security Policy status
B.fw.d
C.protect.exe
D.PROT_SRV.EXE
Answer:A

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NO.6 Match each of the following commands to their correct function. Each command only has one function
listed.
A.C1>F6; C2>F4; C3>F2; C4>F5
B.C1>F4; C2>F6; C3>F3; C4>F2
C.C1>F2; C2>F4; C3>F1; C4>F5
D.C1>F2; C2>F1; C3>F6; C4>F4
Answer:A

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NO.7 Where do you enable popup alerts for SmartDefense settings that have detected suspicious activity?
A.In SmartView Monitor, select Tools > Alerts
B.In SmartView Tracker, select Tools > Custom Commands
C.In SmartDashboard, edit the Gateway object, select SmartDefense > Alerts
D.In SmartDashboard, select Global Properties > Log and Alert > Alert Commands
Answer:A

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NO.8 Your online bookstore has customers connecting to a variety of Web servers to place or change orders,
and check order status. You ran penetration tests through the Security Gateway, to determine if the Web
servers were protected from a recent series of cross-site scripting attacks. The penetration testing
indicated the Web servers were still vulnerable. You have checked every box in the Web Intelligence tab,
and installed the Security Policy. What else might you do to reduce the vulnerability?
A.Configure the Security Gateway protecting the Web servers as a Web server.
B.Check the "Products > Web Server" box on the host node objects representing your Web servers.
C.Configure resource objects as Web servers, and use them in the rules allowing HTTP traffic to the Web
servers.
D.The penetration software you are using is malfunctioning and is reporting a false-positive.
Answer:C

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NO.9 When upgrading to NGX R65, which Check Point products do not require a license upgrade to be
current?
A.None, all versions require a license upgrade
B.VPN-1 NGX (R64) and later
C.VPN-1 NGX (R60) and later
D.VPN-1 NG with Application Intelligence (R54) and later
Answer:C

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NO.10 Which operating system is not supported by SecureClient?
A.MacOS X
B.Windows XP SP2
C.Windows 2003 Professional
D.IPSO 3.9
Answer:D

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NO.11 How do you recover communications between your SmartCenter Server and Security Gateway if you
"lock" yourself out via a rule or policy mis-configuration?
A.cpstop
B.fw unload policy
C.fw delete all.all
D.fw unloadlocal
Answer:D

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NO.12 Which Check Point product is used to create and save changes to a Log Consolidation Policy?
A.Eventia Reporter Client
B.SmartDashboard Log Consolidator
C.SmartCenter Server
D.Eventia Reporter Server
Answer:B

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NO.13 A security audit has determined that your unpatched web application server is revealing the fact that it
accesses a SQL server. You believe that you have enabled the proper SmartDefense setting but would
like to verify this fact using SmartView Tracker. Which of the following entries confirms the proper blocking
of this leaked information to an attacker?
A."Fingerprint Scrambling: Changed [SQL] to [Perl]"
B."HTTP response spoofing: remove signature [SQL Server]"
C."Concealed HTTP response [SQL Server]. (Error Code WSE0160003)"
D."ASCII Only Response Header detected: SQL"
Answer:C

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NO.14 Which command line interface utility allows the administrator to verify the name and timestamp of the
Security Policy currently installed on a firewall module?
A.fw ver
B.fw stat
C.fw ctl pstat
D.cpstat fwd
Answer:B

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NO.15 You are reviewing the Security Administrator activity for a bank and comparing it to the change log.
How do you view Security Administrator activity?
A.SmartView Tracker in Active Mode
B.SmartView Tracker in Audit Mode
C.SmartView Tracker cannot display Security Administrator activity; instead, view the system logs on the
SmartCenter Server's Operating System.
D.SmartView Tracker in Log Mode
Answer:B

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NO.16 Users are not prompted for authentication when they access their Web servers, even though you have
created an HTTP rule via User Authentication. Why?
A.Users must use the SecuRemote Client, to use the User Authentication Rule.
B.You have forgotten to place the User Authentication Rule before the Stealth Rule.
C.You checked the "cache password on desktop" option in Global Properties.
D.Another rule that accepts HTTP without authentication exists in the Rule Base.
Answer:B

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NO.17 Match the remote-access VPN Connection mode features with their descriptions:
A.A 3, B 4, C 2, D 1
B.A 2, B 3, C 4, D 1
C.A 2, B 4, C 3, D 1
D.A 1, B 3, C 4, D 2
Answer:B

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NO.18 When configuring numbered VPN Tunnel Interfaces (VTIs) in a clustered environment, what issues
need to be considered? (1) Each member must have a unique source IP address (2) Every interface on
each member requires a unique IP address (3) All VTIs going to the same remote peer must have the
same name. (4) Custer IP addresses are required.
A.2 & 3
B.1, 3, & 4
C.1, 2, 3 & 4
D.1, 2, and 4
Answer:C

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NO.19 Where is it necessary to configure historical records in SmartView Monitor to generate Express reports
in Eventia Reporter?
A.In SmartDashboard, the SmartView Monitor page in the VPN-1 Security Gateway object
B.In Eventia Reporter, under Express > Network Activity
C.In Eventia Reporter, under Standard > Custom
D.In SmartView Monitor, under Global Properties > Log and Masters
Answer:A

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NO.20 When configuring VPN High Availability (HA) with MEP, which of the following is correct?
A.The decision on which MEP Security Gateway to use is made on the remote gateway's side (non-MEP
side).
B.MEP Gateways must be managed by the same SmartCenter Server.
C.MEP VPN Gateways cannot be geographically separated machines.
D.If one Gateway fails, the synchronized connection fails over to another Gateway and the connection
continues.
Answer:A

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NO.1 John is the Security Administrator in his company He installs a new R70 Security Management Server
and a new R70 Gateway He now wants to establish SIC between them.After entering the activation key,
the message "Trust established" is displayed in SmartDashboard, but SIC still does not seem to work
because the policy won't install and interface fetching still does not work.What might be a reason for this?
A.This must be a human error.
B.The Gateway's time is several days or weeks in the future and the SIC certificate is not yet valid.
C.SIC does not function over the network.
D.It always works when the trust is established.
Answer: B

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NO.2 A Security Policy installed by another Security Administrator has blocked all SmartDashboard
connections to the stand-alone installation of R70.After running the fw unloadlocal command, you are
able to reconnect with SmartDashboard and view all changes.Which of the following change is the most
likely cause of the block?
A.A Stealth Rule has been configured for the R70 Gateway.
B.The Allow control connections setting in Policy > Global Properties has been unchecked.
C.The Security Policy installed to the Gateway had no rules in it
D.The Gateway Object representing your Gateway was configured as an Externally Managed VPN
Gateway.
Answer: B

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NO.3 You have blocked an IP address via the Block Intruder feature of SmartView Tracker How can you view
the blocked addresses'?
A.Run f wm blockedview.
B.In SmartView Monitor, select the Blocked Intruder option from the query tree view
C.In SmartView Monitor, select Suspicious Activity Rules from the Tools menu and select the relevant
Security Gateway from the list
D.In SmartView Tracker, click the Active tab.and the actively blocked connections displays
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which command displays the installed Security Gateway version?
A.fw stat
B.cpstat -gw
C.fw ver
D.tw printver
Answer: C

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NO.5 You are installing a Security Management Server Your security plan calls for three administrators for this
particular server.How many can you create during installation'?
A.Depends on the license installed on the Security Management Server
B.Only one with full access and one with read-only access
C.One
D.As many as you want
Answer: C

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NO.6 You are installing your R70Security Gateway.Which is NOT a valid option for the hardware platform?
A.Crossbeam
B.Solaris
C.Windows
D.IPSO
Answer: B

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NO.7 What are you required to do before running upgrade__ export?
A.Run cpconfig and set yourself up as a GUI client.
B.Run a cpstop on the Security Management Server
C.Run a cpstop on the Security Gateway.
D.Close all GUI clients
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.8 In previous version, the full TCP three-way handshake was sent to the firewall kernel for inspection.How
is this improved in current Flows/SecureXL?
A.Only the initial SYN packet is inspected The rest are handled by IPSO
B.Packets are offloaded to a third-party hardware card for near-line inspection
C.Packets are virtualized to a RAM drive-based FW VM
D.Resources are proactively assigned using predictive algorithmic techniques
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which statement defines Public Key Infrastructure? Security is provided
A.by authentication.
B.by Certificate Authorities, digital certificates, and two-way symmetric-key encryption.
C.by Certificate Authorities, digital certificates, and public key encryption.
D.via both private and public keys, without the use of digital Certificates.
Answer: C

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NO.10 A digital signature:
A.Provides a secure key exchange mechanism over the Internet
B.Automatically exchanges shared keys
C.Guarantees the authenticity and integrity of a message
D.Decrypts data to its original form.
Answer: A

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