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Exam Code: HP2-H11
Exam Name: Selling HP Thin Clients
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Last Update: 2014-05-06

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Exam Code: HP0-M49
Exam Name: HP Virtual User Generator 11.x Software
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Exam Code: HP0-J65
Exam Name: Designing HP SAN Networking Solutions
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NO.1 To install additional switches, you must determine the ideal ISL ratio. Which ISL ratio range is
recommended for less I/O intensive application requirements (less than 70 MB/s at 2 Gb/s, less than
140 MB/s at 4 Gb/s, less than 280 MB/s at 8 Gb/s)?
A. 3:1 to 1:1
B. 1:1 to 3:1
C. 15:1 to 7:1
D. 7:1 to 15:1
Answer: D

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Explanation:
Recommended core-edge fabric ISL ratios I/O workload Recommended ratios Higher I/O data
intensive application requirements (greater than 70 MB/s at 1:1 to 3:1 2 Gb /s, greater than140
MB/s at 4 Gb /s, greater than 280 MB/s at 8 Gb /s) Lower I/O data intensive application
requirements (<70MB/s at 2 Gb / s, <140 7:1 to 15:1)

NO.2 A single Fibre Channel router is implemented in an existing SAN. What can be accomplished?
A. fabric management service
B. fabric interconnection without merge
C. SAN availability improvement
D. SAN extension across long distances
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which information should be included in the topology map documentation of a SAN design
provided to your support organization? (Select two.)
A. serial numbers of connected servers
B. SAN switch zoning configurations
C. storage controller operating mode parameters
D. IP addresses of the connected servers
E. World Wide Names of all nodes and devices
Answer: B,E

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NO.4 Which Fibre Channel timing variables must match in an interoperable fabric?
A. Timing variables do not need to match.
B. R_A_TOV, E_D_TOV and B_B_TOV
C. R_A_TOV and E_D_TOV
D. R_A_TOV and B_B_TOV
Answer: C

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NO.5 You are preparing an installation plan for implementing a new SAN design and want to ensure
all customer needs are included. Which data collection method requires that you create a process
list and review all relevant stakeholders?
A. Card Arrangement
B. Information Extraction
C. Brainstorming
D. Process Mapping
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which HP tool provides the ability to create a Microsoft Visio diagram of a SAN topology for
your customer documentation?
A. SAN Health
B. SAN Designer
C. SAN Visibility
D. SAN Navigator
Answer: C

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NO.7 You are preparing for a homogeneous fabric merge and notice the customer set the same
domain ID for all fabrics. What will happen if this is not corrected?
A. Enabled zone configurations are immediately disabled.
B. Domain IDs remain unchanged and the fabrics become segmented.
C. Domain IDs are automatically renumbered and the fabrics merge, but port zoning is affected.
D. Domain IDs are automatically renumbered and the fabrics merge without any side effect.
Answer: B

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11. Which method should you use to quickly and easily document a new customer SAN
configuration?
A. Follow all cabling from port to port, write down source and target of the cables, label the cables,
and recordthe labels.
B. Collect the customer's configuration data using SANVisibility, upload the data and verify the
report as soonas you get the documents.
C. Install HP SIM and HP Storage Essentials SRM in 60-day trial mode on a new Windows
CentralManagement Server and collect the site information to evaluate the result with Report
Designer
D. UseFinisar Fibre Channel Sniffer to determine source, destination, quality and performance of
the FibreChannel configuration.
Answer: B

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12. Which tasks are performed in the background by a storage system if write-back caching is
enabled? (Select two.)
A. Rotate
B. Cache data
C. CPU processing
D. Acknowledge to Write
E. Seek
Answer: A,E

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13. Which HP offering most effectively provides customers with SAN management knowledge
and skills?
A. free downloadable documentation
B. web-based and instructor-led training
C. on-site technical HP support engineers
D. proactive and reactive support
Answer: B

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14. Which activity should be done last during the fulfillment of an HP Installation and Startup
Service?
A. infrastructure functionality test
B. customer orientation session
C. documentation preparation
D. Call Home Software (ISEE) installation
Answer: B

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15. What are the best SAN topologies for a one-to-one local data locality? (Select two.)
A. meshed fabric
B. ring fabric
C. fat tree backbone fabric
D. cascaded fabric
E. skinny tree backbone fabric
Answer: B,D

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NO.8 You are implementing a SAN infrastructure including an HP StorageWorks EVA4400 at Your
customer site. The customer is interested in using three-site cascaded replication functionality.
What should you recommend to accomplish this? (Select two)
A. HPStorageWorks FlexCopy
B. HP Continuous Access EVA
C. additional disks in the EVA
D. HP Virtual Replicator
E. HP Business Copy EVA
Answer: B,E

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Exam Code: HP2-E59
Exam Name: Introduction to Selling Servers, Storage, Networking and Services
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Exam Code: HP0-003
Exam Name: HP OpenView Service Desk 5.x
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Exam Code: HP2-K30
Exam Name: Technical Introduction to the HP Storage SMB
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NO.1 Your healthcare customer wants to add a separate location for a family practice. They want
the new location to have seamless integration into the main location network and support a
maximum of five users. Which cost-effective HP networking solution should you recommend?
A. HP FlexManagement with an HP OfficeConnect switch
B. HP FlexFabric with an HP 2920 series switch
C. HP FlexFabric with an HP M220 access point
D. HP FlexBranch with an HP MSR930-series router
Answer: A

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Explanation:
HP OfficeConnect switch is for the small home or business network.

NO.2 Which HP series of network switches is unmanaged?
A. HP 1400-series switches
B. HP 1800-series switches
C. HP 1900-senes switches
D. HP 2500-series switches
Answer: A

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Explanation:
The HP 1410 Switch series swicthes are fixed configuration fanless, unmanaged Gigabit and Fast
Ethernet switches.

NO.3 Which benefit does an HP Care Pack offer that the HP standard product warranty does not?
A. Firmware and software upgrades
B. Replacement of defective parts
C. Support outside of standard business hours
D. Troubleshooting support
Answer: D

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Explanation:
HP Care Pack Service include: Software Technical Support Receive software support for HP and
select third-party vendors directly from experienced response center engineers. HP Software
Support Service provides comprehensive software services for HP software and select third-party
products.
Reference: http://h71016.www7.hp.com/html/helpmechoose/carepacks/care_packs_psg.asp

NO.4 Why does HP use the term polymorphic storage to describe HP 3PAR StoreServ storage?
A. Because it is future proof in that it exists in several forms and can grow with freedom in any
direction
B. Because it includes patented variable chunking with intelligent container matching for faster
backups
C. Because it can achieve twice the VM density in physical VMware vSphere environments
D. Because it reduces storage capacity by up to 50% thus increasing free disk capacity, while
decreasing service and support costs
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Unlike the dozens of fragmented storage products provided by other vendors, HP Converged Storage
provides a single storage system architecture with common data services for block, object and file
applications-delivering "polymorphic" simplicity-capable of meeting any need at any scale.
Note: Polymorphic Existence in several forms, shapes, & sizes
Redefining Storage Simplicity with HP Converged Storage

NO.5 What is the difference between a network switch and a network router?
A. A network switch connects devices for communication via Ethernet; a network router connects
networks to enable communication between them.
B. A network switch enables device connections over wireless networks; a network router enables
network communications over wireless networks.
C. A network switch enables multiple devices to share the same monitors; a network router enables
devices to use multiple monitors.
D. A network switch connects networks to enable communication; a network router connects
devices for communication over Ethernet.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which statement about types of care available from HP Technology Services is true?
A. HP Foundation care offers only hardware services while HP Core Services care offers hardware
and software services.
B. HP Reactive care offers only the standard warranty and on site services while HP Core Services
care offers full solution support
C. HP Foundation care offers only reactive support while HP Proactive care offers reactive support
and proactive support.
D. HP BreakFix care offers only hardware repairs while HP Core Services care offers software and
hardware support.
Answer: C

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NO.7 What does ease of integration mean as one of the important IT trends for small and medium
business?
A. Full integration between security, ease of use, and scalability in computing
B. Integration toward the right computing environment to meet future requirements
C. Integration toward simplified growth with cost controls
D. A totally integrated solution across server, storage, and network infrastructures
Answer: B

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Explanation:
HP Transformation and Integration Services:
*HP Transformation and Integration Services provides consulting, custom development and
integration services to bring your IT services up to date with modern architectures and platforms.
*We modernize your applications to create a streamlined, agile environment that adapts quickly to
business needs.
*Transformation and Integration Services transforms your application environment to modern
platforms and architectures. We assess your IT environment to determine what you have and the
strategic value of your applications portfolio to the business. Then we help you transform to reach
your agility goals.

NO.8 What is the difference between computer memory and computer storage?
A. Computer memory is the storage hierarchy; computer storage is a subset of the computer
memory.
B. Computer memory handles data from input devices; computer storage handles data from output
devices.
C. Computer memory is the fast, volatile data-retention technologies; computer storage is the
slower, permanent data-retention technologies.
D. Computer memory includes the arithmetic unit of the CPU; computer storage includes the
control unit of the CPU.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: TMPTE
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Exam Code: SCNP
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NO.1 What is not an advantage of applying a test design technique and recording it in the test specifications?
A. that the tests are reproducible
B. that the test specifications are transferable
C. that coverage of 100% is achieved
D. that it provides a justified elaboration of the test strategy
Answer: C

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NO.2 See the definition below:
Tests in which the supplying party demonstrates that the product particularly meets the functional and
non-functional specifications and the technical design, among other things.
Of which test level is this the definition?
A. acceptance test
B. development test
C. system test
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which defect has an internal cause that can be solved within the test team?
A. a defect in the test basis
B. a defect in the test specification
C. a defect in the test object
Answer: B

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NO.4 Under which circumstance can Exploratory Testing be used effectively?
A. when experienced testers with domain knowledge are available
B. when testing must be as brief as possible on the critical path of the project
C. when critical functionality, failure of which can cause severe damage, must be tested
Answer: A

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NO.5 In which Map phase activity does the pre-test take place?
A. Defining central starting points
B. Intake of the test object
C. Specifying the test object intake
D. Executing (re)tests
Answer: B

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Exam Code: EX0-110
Exam Name: Foundation Bridge Exam IT Service Management ISO/IEC 20000
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NO.1 What are the categories of event described in the UIL service operation book?
A. Informational, scheduled, normal
B. Scheduled, unscheduled, emergency
C. Informational, warning, exception
D. Warning, reactive, proactive
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following service desk organizational structures are described in service
operation?
1.Local service desk
2.Virtual service desk
3.IT help desk
4.Follow the sun
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 only
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following should be documented in an incident model?
1.Details of the service level agreement (SLA) pertaining to the incident
2.Chronological order of steps to resolve the incident
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both of the above
D. Neither of the above
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following options is a hierarchy that is used in knowledge management?
A. Wisdom - Information - Data - Knowledge
B. Data - Information - Knowledge - Wisdom
C. Knowledge - Wisdom - Information - Data
D. Information - Data - Knowledge - Wisdom
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following types of service should be included in the scope of service portfolio
management?
1.Those planned to be delivered
2.Those being delivered
3.Those that have been withdrawn from service
A. 1 and 3 only
B. All of the above
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following is NOT an objective of service transition?
A. To ensure that a service can be operated, managed and supported
B. To provide training and certification in project management
C. To provide quality knowledge and information about services and service assets
D. To plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a release
Answer: B

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NO.7 What is the result of carrying out an activity, following a process or delivering an IT service
known as?
A. Outcome
B. Incident
C. Change
D. Problem
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which two processes will contribute MOST to enabling effective problem detection?
A. Incident and financial management
B. Change and release and deployment management
C. Incident and event management
D. Knowledge and service level management
Answer: C

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NO.1 When a TimeFinder/Snap session is terminated, what happens to the allocated space on the save
devices?
A. Data on the save devices is maintained for the target host
B. Tracks on the save devices are reclaimed.
C. Tracks on the save devices are replicated to snap target devices
D. Data on the save devices is maintained for the source host
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is the status of the R1 and R2 devices after performing an SRDF split operation?
A. R1 and R2 Not Ready
B. R1 Write Disabled; R2 Read/Write
C. R1 Read/Write; R2 Read/Write
D. R1 Read/Write; R2 Write Disabled
Answer: C

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NO.3 When a TimeFinder/Snap session is terminated, what happens to the allocated space on the save
devices?
A. Data on the save devices is maintained for the target host.
B. Tracks on the save devices are reclaimed.
C. Tracks on the save devices are replicated to snap target devices.
D. Data on the save devices is maintained for the source host.
Answer: B

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NO.4 You need to perform an SRDF fallback operation and must ensure the integrity of the data on the R2
volume which step must be taken.?
A. Suspend the RDF link
B. Unmount the tile system
C. Remove entries horn the file system table
D. Disable journaling on the file system
Answer: D

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NO.5 A storage administrator wants to map some Symmetrix devices to an FA port for use by the Sales group
and finds that someone placed reservations on the devices for a project that no longer needs them. What
should theStorage administrator does to use those devices?
A. Use the password that was used at the time of creation to release the reservations
B. Use symconfigure to release the reservation
C. Map the devices from a host that has Symmetrix Access Control administrator privileges.
D. Use symconfigure with the force option to map the devices
Answer: B

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Exam Code: E20-918
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NO.1 An enterprise has decided to implement a new service that will process credit card information. They
will deploy this service within their private cloud. They have a relationship with a public cloud provider that
claims to be PCI compliant.
The enterprise wishes to implement a service that is PCI compliant with the least amount of effort. The
service is protected by a policy-based intrusion detection system. Cardholder data is securely transmitted
to the web interface.
Which additional design elements would best be suited for this implementation?
A. The card number is masked as it is typed and is immediately encrypted and securely sent directly to
the credit card processing system. No credit card information is stored within the application.
B. The card number is masked as it is typed and is immediately encrypted, stored, and securely sent
directly to the credit card processing system. Credit card information is stored within the public cloud
provider using AES 128 encryption.
C. The card number is masked as it is typed and is immediately encrypted and securely sent directly to
the credit card processing system. Credit card information is backed up to the private cloud system and
stored using AES 128 encryption.
D. The card number is masked as it is typed and is immediately encrypted and securely sent to both the
credit card processing system and to private cloud for historical tracking and reporting only.
Answer: A

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NO.2 A large enterprise has several applications deployed in a hybrid cloud. Ever since the hybrid cloud was
deployed, the enterprise network operations center has never been able to fully reconcile network and
audit logs.
What should be investigated first as the possible source of the issue?
A. Confirm time is synchronized between locations
B. Filtering false positives
C. Exposing management APIs
D. Tenant in-control versus provider in-control differences
Answer: A

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NO.3 A large service provider is designing a solution to protect itself against malicious content, such as
viruses in a SOAP attachment, and denial of service attacks.
Which type of firewall is most appropriate for their needs?
A. Linked VPNs
B. Federated
C. Reverse proxy servers
D. XML
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which metric measures the time taken to realize benefits from an ITaaS solution?
A. Time-to-value
B. Time-to-live
C. Time-to-deliver
D. Time-to-deploy
Answer: A

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NO.5 An enterprise company has a large, virtualized data center. They are currently in the process of auditing
their virtual servers to ensure they are in compliance with regulatory requirements.
They want to be able to check new and existing virtual servers for compliance and automatically
remediate any virtual machines that are found to be out of compliance.
As a Cloud Architect, which product would you recommend for this purpose?
A. Cisco Intelligent Automation for Cloud (CIAC)
B. VMware vCenter Orchestrator
C. VMware vCenter Configuration Manager
D. RSA Archer eGRC Platform
Answer: C

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NO.6 An IT organization is currently 80% virtualized and the CIO is planning for the transition to ITaaS.
Senior executives are concerned that IT supports too many services and that many of the services are
neither efficient nor necessary.
What argument can the CIO make to address the executives' concerns and convince them that ITaaS is
the correct strategic decision?
A. ITaaS promotes the rationalization of services currently being offered by IT and offers the services that
provide business value through the service catalog.
B. A CMDB can be utilized during the instantiation of the services to improve service levels for the
consumers of IT services.
C. ITaaS offers an opportunity to evaluate whether certain IT services should be sourced with a public
cloud service provider.
D. ITaaS promotes the concept of on-demand self-service, allowing consumers to use only the services
from which they can derive business value.
Answer: A

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NO.7 A company is deploying a major new business application. The company has difficulty managing the
software development lifecycle. As a result, the time from generating requirements to operational delivery
is significant.
Which best addresses the company s need for shorter release cycles and better code quality?
A. Implement common collaboration tools
B. Utilize configuration management methodologies
C. Use of common automation and orchestration processes
D. Transition to a DevOps culture
Answer: D

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NO.8 The first phase of new ITaaS service introduces the offering to 10% of the engineering organization. The
IT organization leverages the management tools used in their traditional data center processes to provide
visibility into silos and control of the infrastructure. They also have adapted some ITSM concepts as a
framework for their management practices.
During the initial phase of the service deployment, a problem was encountered in one of the VMs.
The IT organization is concerned about the extensive amount of time and resources spent determining
the cause of the issue.
What is the most likely reason it takes more time than expected to resolve the problem?
A. The legacy management tools do not have the capability to provide a holistic view of the service
instance
B. The expertise of the service desk personnel is inadequate to properly handle service related issues
C. The complex nature of orchestration and automation makes problem identification and root cause
analysis unlikely.
D. The cultural hurdles that span organizational silos have not been addressed and resolved.
Answer: A

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NO.1 Data acquisition system is a combination of tools or processes used to gather, analyze and
record
Information about some phenomenon. Different data acquisition system are used depends on the
location, speed, cost. etc. Serial communication data acquisition system is used when the actual
location of the data is at some distance from the computer. Which of the following communication
standard is used in serial communication data acquisition system?
A. RS422
B. RS423
C. RS232
D. RS231
Answer: C

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NO.2 When dealing with the powered-off computers at the crime scene, if the computer is switched
off,
turn it on
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.3 Computer forensics report provides detailed information on complete computer forensics
investigation process. It should explain how the incident occurred, provide technical details of the
incident and should be clear to understand. Which of the following attributes of a forensics report
can render it inadmissible in a court of law?
A. It includes metadata about the incident
B. It includes relevant extracts referred to In the report that support analysis or conclusions
C. It is based on logical assumptions about the incident timeline
D. It maintains a single document style throughout the text
Answer: C

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NO.4 WPA2 provides enterprise and Wi-Fi users with stronger data protection and network access
control which of the following encryption algorithm is used DVWPA2?
A. RC4-CCMP
B. RC4-TKIP
C. AES-CCMP
D. AES-TKIP
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following is not a part of the technical specification of the laboratory-based
imaging
system?
A. High performance workstation PC
B. Remote preview and imaging pod
C. Anti-repudiation techniques
D. very low image capture rate
Answer: D

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NO.6 Smith, as a part his forensic investigation assignment, has seized a mobile device. He was
asked
to recover the Subscriber Identity Module (SIM card) data the mobile device. Smith found that the
SIM was protected by a Personal identification Number (PIN) code but he was also aware that
people generally leave the PIN numbers to the defaults or use easily guessable numbers such as
1234. He unsuccessfully tried three PIN numbers that blocked the SIM card. What Jason can do in
this scenario to reset the PIN and access SIM data?
A. He should contact the device manufacturer for a Temporary Unlock Code (TUK) to gain access
to the SIM
B. He cannot access the SIM data in this scenario as the network operators or device
manufacturers have no idea about a device PIN
C. He should again attempt PIN guesses after a time of 24 hours
D. He should ask the network operator for Personal Unlock Number (PUK) to gain access to the
SIM
Answer: D

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NO.7 Files stored in the Recycle Bin in its physical location are renamed as Dxy.ext, where, “X”
represents the _________.
A. Drive name
B. Sequential number
C. Original file name's extension
D. Original file name
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following email headers specifies an address for mailer-generated errors, like "no
such user" bounce messages, to go to (instead of the sender's address)?
A. Errors-To header
B. Content-Transfer-Encoding header
C. Mime-Version header
D. Content-Type header
Answer: A

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