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2014年5月3日星期六

E20-818 Actual Test, E20-880 Actual Test, E20-918 Exam Tests

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Exam Code: E20-818
Exam Name: Symmetrix Solutions Expert Exam for Implementation Engineers
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E20-818 Actual Test Total Q&A: 161 Questions and Answers
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Exam Code: E20-880
Exam Name: VNX Solutions Expert Exam for Technology Architects
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E20-880 VCE Dumps Total Q&A: 128 Questions and Answers
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Exam Code: E20-918
Exam Name: IT-as-a-Service Expert Exam for Cloud Architects
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E20-918 Braindumps Total Q&A: 98 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-05-03

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NO.1 An enterprise has decided to implement a new service that will process credit card information. They
will deploy this service within their private cloud. They have a relationship with a public cloud provider that
claims to be PCI compliant.
The enterprise wishes to implement a service that is PCI compliant with the least amount of effort. The
service is protected by a policy-based intrusion detection system. Cardholder data is securely transmitted
to the web interface.
Which additional design elements would best be suited for this implementation?
A. The card number is masked as it is typed and is immediately encrypted and securely sent directly to
the credit card processing system. No credit card information is stored within the application.
B. The card number is masked as it is typed and is immediately encrypted, stored, and securely sent
directly to the credit card processing system. Credit card information is stored within the public cloud
provider using AES 128 encryption.
C. The card number is masked as it is typed and is immediately encrypted and securely sent directly to
the credit card processing system. Credit card information is backed up to the private cloud system and
stored using AES 128 encryption.
D. The card number is masked as it is typed and is immediately encrypted and securely sent to both the
credit card processing system and to private cloud for historical tracking and reporting only.
Answer: A

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NO.2 A large enterprise has several applications deployed in a hybrid cloud. Ever since the hybrid cloud was
deployed, the enterprise network operations center has never been able to fully reconcile network and
audit logs.
What should be investigated first as the possible source of the issue?
A. Confirm time is synchronized between locations
B. Filtering false positives
C. Exposing management APIs
D. Tenant in-control versus provider in-control differences
Answer: A

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NO.3 A large service provider is designing a solution to protect itself against malicious content, such as
viruses in a SOAP attachment, and denial of service attacks.
Which type of firewall is most appropriate for their needs?
A. Linked VPNs
B. Federated
C. Reverse proxy servers
D. XML
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which metric measures the time taken to realize benefits from an ITaaS solution?
A. Time-to-value
B. Time-to-live
C. Time-to-deliver
D. Time-to-deploy
Answer: A

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NO.5 An enterprise company has a large, virtualized data center. They are currently in the process of auditing
their virtual servers to ensure they are in compliance with regulatory requirements.
They want to be able to check new and existing virtual servers for compliance and automatically
remediate any virtual machines that are found to be out of compliance.
As a Cloud Architect, which product would you recommend for this purpose?
A. Cisco Intelligent Automation for Cloud (CIAC)
B. VMware vCenter Orchestrator
C. VMware vCenter Configuration Manager
D. RSA Archer eGRC Platform
Answer: C

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NO.6 An IT organization is currently 80% virtualized and the CIO is planning for the transition to ITaaS.
Senior executives are concerned that IT supports too many services and that many of the services are
neither efficient nor necessary.
What argument can the CIO make to address the executives' concerns and convince them that ITaaS is
the correct strategic decision?
A. ITaaS promotes the rationalization of services currently being offered by IT and offers the services that
provide business value through the service catalog.
B. A CMDB can be utilized during the instantiation of the services to improve service levels for the
consumers of IT services.
C. ITaaS offers an opportunity to evaluate whether certain IT services should be sourced with a public
cloud service provider.
D. ITaaS promotes the concept of on-demand self-service, allowing consumers to use only the services
from which they can derive business value.
Answer: A

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NO.7 A company is deploying a major new business application. The company has difficulty managing the
software development lifecycle. As a result, the time from generating requirements to operational delivery
is significant.
Which best addresses the company s need for shorter release cycles and better code quality?
A. Implement common collaboration tools
B. Utilize configuration management methodologies
C. Use of common automation and orchestration processes
D. Transition to a DevOps culture
Answer: D

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NO.8 The first phase of new ITaaS service introduces the offering to 10% of the engineering organization. The
IT organization leverages the management tools used in their traditional data center processes to provide
visibility into silos and control of the infrastructure. They also have adapted some ITSM concepts as a
framework for their management practices.
During the initial phase of the service deployment, a problem was encountered in one of the VMs.
The IT organization is concerned about the extensive amount of time and resources spent determining
the cause of the issue.
What is the most likely reason it takes more time than expected to resolve the problem?
A. The legacy management tools do not have the capability to provide a holistic view of the service
instance
B. The expertise of the service desk personnel is inadequate to properly handle service related issues
C. The complex nature of orchestration and automation makes problem identification and root cause
analysis unlikely.
D. The cultural hurdles that span organizational silos have not been addressed and resolved.
Answer: A

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2013年9月27日星期五

Latest EMC E20-818 of exam practice questions and answers

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Exam Code: E20-818
Exam Name: EMC (Symmetrix Solutions Expert Exam for Implementation Engineers)
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Last Update: 2013-09-27

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NO.1 In the event of a physical disk spindle failure, how would a customer with Microsoft SQL Server
maximize availability?
A.Logs should be on RAID 1 volumes with data volumes on separate RAID 6 volumes
B.Logs should be on RAID 1 volumes with data volumes on separate RAID 5 volumes
C.Logs and data files should be on separate RAID 5 volumes
D.Logs and data files should be on separate RAID 1-protected volumes
Answer:A

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NO.2 A customer has three data centers that are used to run SRDF/AR multi-hop on Symmetrix DMX-4
arrays.
Production is located at Site A
Secondary site is located at Site B
Tertiary site is located at Site C
In the event of a Site A failure, the customer wants to be able to fail over to Site C while retaining the
ability to have remote data protection. Which solution will offer the best RPO and RTO for this customer?
A.Cascaded SRDF
B.Latest version of SRDF/AR
C.Concurrent SRDF
D.SRDF/EDP
Answer:A

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NO.3 Refer to the Exhibit.You have been asked to configure a Cascaded SRDF solution at a customer site.
The production site will be at Site A, the synchronous target will be at Site B, and the asynchronous target
at Site C.
Which kind of RDF devices will be needed at each site?
A.R1 at Site A, R21 at Site B, and R2 at Site C
B.R11 at Site A, R21 at Site B, and R22 at Site C
C.R11 at Site A, R21 at Site B, and R2 at Site C
D.R1 at Site A, R2 at Site B, and R21 at Site C
Answer:A

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NO.4 A customer is running Concurrent SRDF/Star. The disaster recovery (DR) plan allows for the workload
to be switched to either the synchronous site or the asynchronous site. In addition, part of their DR plan is
to enable SRDF/Star protection once the workload site comes back online.
Which advice should be given to the customer?
A.If production fails over to the synchronous site, it is possible to run in a Star-protected configuration after
the return of the original workload site.
B.If production fails over to either the asynchronous site or synchronous site, it is not possible to run in a
Star-protected configuration from either site after the return of the original workload site.
C.If production fails over to either the asynchronous site or synchronous site, it is possible to run in a
Star-protected configuration from either site after the return of the original workload site.
D.If production fails over to the asynchronous site, it is possible to run in a Star-protected configuration
after the return of the original workload site.
Answer:A

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NO.5 A customer wants to provide remote disaster recovery (DR) for several critical mailbox servers in their
Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 environment. Local recoverability is provided by creating replicas of their
critical databases.
The customer's DR site is located 20 km away. They have already provisioned the necessary failover host
on the DR site, as well as the required Active Directory infrastructure needed to support a failover.
However, they want to minimize the total number of database copies required to provide basic failover
capabilities for the Exchange server.
Which solution would you recommend to provide remote point-of-failure recovery with the fewest local
and remote database copies?
A.R1-R2-BCV
B.Mixed Mirroring
C.STD-R1BCV-R2-BRBCV
D.STD-R1BCV-R2
Answer:A

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NO.6 An Microsoft Exchange administrator has recently encountered an issue with one of the databases in
their Exchange 2007 environment. The decision was made to perform a partial restore of only the single
database.
Based on EMC and Microsoft best practice, what are the proper ordered steps needed to complete this
task?
A.1) Dismount all databases in the storage group. 2) Restore the database replica. 3) Remove the .chk
file from the system path folder. 4) Remount all databases in the storage group.
B.1) Remove the .chk file from the system path folder. 2) Dismount all databases in the storage group. 3)
Restore the database replica. 4) Remount all databases in the storage group.
C.1) Dismount all databases in the storage group. 2) Remove the .chk file from the system path folder. 3)
Restore the database replica. 4) Remount all databases in the storage group.
D.1) Dismount all databases in the storage group. 2) Remove the .chk file from the system path folder. 3)
Remount all databases in the storage group. 4) Restore the database replica.
Answer:A

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NO.7 A customer is migrating their Microsoft Exchange 2007 server from a NAS back end to a new
Symmetrix V-Max SE array. As illustrated in the exhibit, perfmon was used to create a log view of an
average day's activity against the database LUN of the busiest datastore in the Exchange environment.
This will serve as the performance benchmark for all other database LUNs. There are an additional four
mailbox databases on this server.
How many RAID 1-protected 15k rpm spindles are required to satisfy the performance needs of the
customer for all the mailbox databases on this server?
A.10
B.26
C.38
D.50
Answer:D

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NO.8 Group Name Services (GNS) is enabled in an SRDF/Star solution. What is a benefit of GNS in a
SRDF/Star environment?
A.Facilitates management of SRDF/Star when there are multiple management hosts at each location
B.Distributes the Star internal definition file to the Symmetrix arrays at both target locations
C.Propagates the composite group definitions over SRDF links
D.Restarts the SRDF daemon in the event it stops unexpectedly
Answer:A

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NO.9 A customer is planning an SRDF/Star configuration as shown in the exhibit. The customer wants to
switch production to the synchronous target in the event of a workload site fault.
In addition to the Base and SRDF Solutions Enabler licenses, which licenses are recommended at the
synchronous target?
A.TimeFinder/Clone and TimeFinder/CG
B.TimeFinder/Mirror and TimeFinder/Clone
C.TimeFinder/Snap and TimeFinder/CG
D.TimeFinder/Snap and TimeFinder/Mirror
Answer:A

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NO.10 A Microsoft SQL Server database administrator wants to execute backups using Solutions Enabler SRM
functionality. Which ODBC variable(s) needs to be set to enable the symioctl and symrdb command set?
A.SYMCLI_RDB "CONNECT" and "TYPE" environment variables
B.SYMCLI_RDB "NAME" and "TYPE" environment variables
C.Only the SYMCLI_RDB "Connect" to the database "username/password"
D.Only the SYMCLI_RDB "TYPE" variable to "sqlserver"
Answer:A

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NO.11 A customer's SQL database has been experiencing performance degradation every time a particular
query is run. When designing the storage layout, all user databases were properly sized according to
EMC best practices.
Which storage configuration could be the source of the problem?
A.Tempdb and user databases are sharing spindles
B.MDF and LDF files are not sharing spindles
C.RAID 5 protection has been used for Tempdb
D.Data files are spread over striped metavolumes
Answer:A

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NO.12 A customer has implemented Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 in an SRDF environment with replicas
being taken at the disaster recovery (DR) site. During testing of this solution, they have failed over
Exchange operations to the DR site. The Exchange mailbox server appears to come online, but user
mailboxes are inaccessible. The Exchange Management Console shows all mailboxes marked with a
small red "x" over the mailbox icons.
Which course of action will resolve this issue?
A.Ensure the Exchange mailbox server at the DR site can communicate with an Active Directory Domain
Controller
B.Recover the database from the BCV copies available at the DR site
C.Ensure that the World Wide Web service on the Exchange server at the DR site has started
successfully
D.Recover the database from the remote BCV copies available at the primary site
Answer:A

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NO.13 A customer wants to use TimeFinder/Exchange Integration Module (TF/EIM) to create daily local
replicas of a critical Microsoft Exchange 2007 mailbox server. Using Terminal Services, they connect
remotely to the backup server and execute the following command:
exbackup2007 -v -vss -s [servername\] -preestablish
The command runs up until the point where TF/EIM attempts to mount the volumes, then it fails. Why is
the process unable to complete?
A.Exbackup is not supported using a terminal session
B.Correct VSS Provider was not installed
C."copyonly" switch must be specified the first time a backup is run
D.Exbackup does not have the permissions needed to run on the backup host
Answer:A

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NO.14 As reflected in the exhibit, a customer has a Cascaded SRDF/Star environment. Site B fails and they
undertake a reconfiguration to provide remote data protection between Sites A and C.
What is used to determine the invalid tracks that must be moved from Site A to Site C?
A.Inclusive OR of two SDDF bitmaps at Site A
B.Inclusive OR of two SDDF bitmaps at Site A and a bitmap at Site C
C.Inclusive OR of two SDDF bitmaps at Site B
D.Inclusive OR of two SDDF bitmaps at Site C
Answer:A

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NO.15 An SRDF/Star solution has been proposed. The customer is slow to accept the solution because they
are concerned about the reliability of the RDF daemon.
How would you address the customer's concern?
A.RDF daemons will be deployed on multiple management stations at the workload site. The RDF
daemons will cooperate with each other.
B.RDF daemon process runs on the Symmetrix array and has built-in redundancy.
C.RDF daemon process runs on the Symmetrix array. If the workload site RDF daemon fails, the RDF
daemon from one of the other sites will take over.
D.RDF daemons will be deployed on one management station at each of the three sites. If the workload
site RDF daemon fails, one of the RDF daemons from the other two sites will take over.
Answer:A

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NO.16 A composite group spanning two Symmetrix arrays is set up to run SRDF/Star using Cascaded SRDF
as illustrated in the exhibit. What is one of the necessary conditions before the SRDF daemon at Site A
will perform an MSC cycle switch?
A.Transmit delta sets from Site B to Site C have finished
B.SDDF bitmaps have been swapped at Site A
C.Invalid track count between Sites A and C is less than 30000
D.SYMCLI_STAR_ALLOW_CASCADED_CONFIGURATION option must be enabled in the option file
Answer:A

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NO.17 A new Cascaded SRDF customer is running in SRDF/A mode from the source (R1) site to the
disk-based secondary (R21) site. In this scenario, which SRDF mode is permitted between the R21 and
the R2 sites?
A.Adaptive Copy Disk
B.Adaptive Copy Write Pending
C.Synchronous
D.Asynchronous
Answer:A

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NO.18 Click the Calculator icon in the upper left-hand corner.
A customer is migrating their SQL server from a NAS back end to a new RAID 1-protected Symmetrix
V-Max SE array. Perfmon was used to create a log view of an average day's activity against the database
LUN as represented in the exhibit. Unfortunately the database's data file and transaction log are located
on the same LUN. The database administrator has informed you that this database typically processes 25
GB worth of transactions over the course of their 12-hour business day.
Which discount in IOPS should be taken before determining the number of spindles required for the data
file LUN?
A.75
B.152
C.176
D.365
Answer:A

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NO.19 A customer wants to use Replication Manager to replicate and mount, at the file group level, a Microsoft
SQL Server database. What must be done before creating a Replication Manager file group replication
job?
A.Ensure no other data files are on the same volume with the selected file group
B.Copy the log files along with the file group data files
C.Use the recover database option when mounting a file group
D.Create a TimeFinder device group that contains only the file group data files
Answer:A

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NO.20 A customer has been creating replicas of several Microsoft Exchange mailbox servers using Replication
Manager. They have recently added a new Exchange Server 2007 mailbox host to the environment.
In addition, the customer has created a scheduled job to create replicas of five storage groups in
consecutive order. Since doing so, they notice that the newly added replica jobs seem to take a very long
time to complete.
What is the source of the problem?
A.NTFS volumes containing the databases were not formatted with the correct cluster size
B.Replication Manager job should have been configured to create the replicas simultaneously
C.Latest Replication Manager Client Service Pack was not installed on the Exchange server
D.Exchange management utilities were not installed on the Replication Manager mount host
Answer:A

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