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NO.1 An IT organization is currently 80% virtualized and the CIO is planning for the transition to ITaaS.
Senior executives are concerned that IT supports too many services and that many of the services are
neither efficient nor necessary.
What argument can the CIO make to address the executives' concerns and convince them that ITaaS is
the correct strategic decision?
A. ITaaS promotes the rationalization of services currently being offered by IT and offers the services that
provide business value through the service catalog.
B. A CMDB can be utilized during the instantiation of the services to improve service levels for the
consumers of IT services.
C. ITaaS offers an opportunity to evaluate whether certain IT services should be sourced with a public
cloud service provider.
D. ITaaS promotes the concept of on-demand self-service, allowing consumers to use only the services
from which they can derive business value.
Answer: A

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NO.2 An organization wishes to move toward full ITaaS implementation. Their IT team is skilled, disciplined,
and exhibits strong teamwork. They have demonstrated the ability to deliver services with supporting
processes and regulations.
As their ITaaS consultant, you need to take them to the next level in the service orientation maturity model.
What is the next level?
A. Service Aligned
B. Service Aware
C. Service Capable
D. Service Neutral
Answer: A

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NO.3 The IT group within a manufacturing organization is transforming their manual service offerings into
automated service offerings to be available from a service catalog. After reviewing the required KPIs for
the service, the service transition project manager asks you if the monitoring tools they currently employ
need to be replaced.
What criteria are needed to effectively monitor the required KPIs?
A. Can they measure, gather, analyze, and present the required metrics?
B. Can they control, automate, monitor and manage all elements of the service?
C. Can they provide end-to-end support of the services?
D. Can they integrate with the orchestration engine to provide automation?
Answer: A

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NO.4 A large service provider is designing a solution to protect itself against malicious content, such as
viruses in a SOAP attachment, and denial of service attacks.
Which type of firewall is most appropriate for their needs?
A. Linked VPNs
B. Federated
C. Reverse proxy servers
D. XML
Answer: D

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NO.5 The marketing line of business of an enterprise has deployed web services within a private cloud. They
wish to provide additional web services elastically and distribute them around the globe using a public
cloud provider.
The web services have a loosely coupled design and have no content dependencies on any resources in
the private cloud. They are created from a standard PaaS template, which includes an intrusion
prevention system that periodically polls a central management server for security updates. The IPS
management server is located within the private cloud. No layer 2 connectivity exists between the private
and public clouds. The consumers of these web services are distributed across the globe.
Which solution would you recommend to best support the web service elasticity and to minimize service
network latency for the consumer?
A. Implement an encrypted VPN tunnel between the private and public clouds.
B. Implement a global load balancing service as a front-end for the web services.
C. Increase bandwidth between the private cloud and the Internet.
D. Deploy a central database server to consolidate web service content.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which metric measures the time taken to realize benefits from an ITaaS solution?
A. Time-to-value
B. Time-to-live
C. Time-to-deliver
D. Time-to-deploy
Answer: A

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NO.7 A financial company has made several acquisitions within the past few years. They currently have two
primary data centers that are 50 km apart. Recently, an internal assessment was conducted to explore
ways to improve ingress/egress utilization and to extend their firewall to the cloud.
Which type of firewall would best suit their needs?
A. Reverse proxy servers
B. Federated
C. Load balanced reverse proxy servers
D. Linked VPN
Answer: B

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NO.8 A large enterprise has several applications deployed in a hybrid cloud. Ever since the hybrid cloud was
deployed, the enterprise network operations center has never been able to fully reconcile network and
audit logs.
What should be investigated first as the possible source of the issue?
A. Confirm time is synchronized between locations
B. Filtering false positives
C. Exposing management APIs
D. Tenant in-control versus provider in-control differences
Answer: A

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NO.1 An administrator wants to back up an EMC Celerra with Avamar using a single NDMP
accelerator node. Based on EMC best practices, what is the maximum number of files that can be
backed up per backup job?
A. 5 million
B. 10 million
C. 15 million
D. 20 million
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which technology is used in an EMC Disk Library to provide tolerance against a double drive
failure?
A. RAIN
B. RAID 6
C. Remote Copy
D. Active Engine Failover
Answer: B

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NO.3 Where is deduplicated data stored on a Data Domain system?
A. SATA drives
B. NVRAM
C. SCSI drives
D. PATA drives
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which Avamar node is dedicated to providing internal Avamar server processes and services?
A. Spare
B. Storage
C. Utility
D. Accelerator
Answer: C

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NO.5 You are asked to propose a serverless backup solution for the following environment:
Which EMC product would you recommend to support this environment?
A. RecoverPoint
B. Avamar
C. Data Domain
D. NetWorker
Answer: C

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NO.6 An EMC NetWorker customer wants to start performing client backups to a deduplication
node. What is a requirement when scheduling these backups using NetWorker?
A. First backup must be a full backup
B. Database backups must be full backups
C. All backups must be full backups
D. Schedule must not include any incremental backups
Answer: A

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NO.7 An EMC NetWorker customer needs to improve the RTO for all backups retained onsite. Most
of the backup jobs consist of images and other scientific data. The customer requires daily tape out
for long-term offsite retention. Which product addresses these challenges?
A. EMC Disk Library
B. NetWorker deduplication node
C. Avamar
D. Data Domain
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which EMC NetWorker feature is used to perform a backup based on an event?
A. Application modules
B. Directives
C. Scheduled backups
D. Probe-based backups
Answer: D

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NO.1 An EMC customer is currently backing up their Microsoft Exchange database to an EMC
Avamar server. The backups are setup to full on Friday, skip on Sunday, and only
transaction logs backed up the rest of the week. The customer would like to integrate Data Domain
to Avamar and run the database backups to the Data Domain system.
If a Data Domain system is deployed on Sunday, which type of backup runs on the following Monday?
A. Full database backup
B. Transaction logs backup
C. Backups will be skipped
D. Level 1 backup of the database
Answer: A

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NO.2 You are planning an MS SQL backup solution for a customer using EMC NetWorker and NMM
without a proxy client. Which user privilege must be configured on NetWorker?
A. Add the NMM client to the NetWorker Administrator user group
B. Add the NetWorker Administrator to the NMM remote user setting
C. Add the NMM client to the MS Windows administrators user group
D. Add the NMM client to the Operators user group
Answer: A

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NO.3 An EMC NetWorker customer has just started running backups of their new Microsoft
SharePoint distributed farm. They are concerned that their web applications are not being backed
up.
What can you tell the customer about backing up web applications?
A. Web applications are backed up with the corresponding content database
B. Add the web application name to the save set field for the client hosting the content database
C. Create a separate client resource for each web application
D. Web applications must be backed up with a file system backup method
Answer: A

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NO.4 An existing EMC Data Domain customer wants to know the way to integrate Data Domain
with RMAN to their tape library. How would this integration take place?
A. Use RMAN and Media Manager Layer to backup the application
B. Use RMAN with NFS to write to tape
C. Use RMAN with DD Boost to move data to the tape library
D. Use RMAN with dNFS to write to the tape library
Answer: A

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NO.5 A customer is planning to use EMC NetWorker integrated with Data Domain to backup their
enterprise. Data Domain will be used to replicate backups to an offsite location to satisfy regulatory
requirements. The customer is concerned about the difficulty in managing their backups and
backup clones with two interfaces.
What could be done to simplify the management of backups and clones?
A. Configure DD Boost with NetWorker and use clone-controlled replication.
B. Configure pre and post scripts to handle the cloning.
C. Create one backup job for cloning and one additional job for local copies.
D. Create scripts to run through the CLI to handle daily cloning.
Answer: A

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NO.6 A customer has implemented EMC Data Domain Boost for Oracle RMAN software in their
environment and are successfully backing up several Oracle servers. Backups are directed to a local
Data Domain system and a second Data Domain system was configured at their disaster recovery
site as a target for replication.
What needs to be done to create copies of the backup data on the remote system that are tracked
and recoverable by RMAN?
A. Modify the RMAN script to include backup copies
B. Configure directory replication between the Data Domain systems
C. Configure Mtree replication between the Data Domain systems
D. Create a second RMAN script for the second Data Domain system
Answer: A

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NO.7 A customer recently integrated EMC Avamar into their existing NetWorker datazone. After
creating a deduplication client and defining the NetWorker deduplication node, the backup is
started. However, the backup failed.
What must be done to perform a successful backup?
A. Create a local AFTD on the storage node to store deduplication metadata
B. Create an AFTD on the Avamar server to store deduplication metadata
C. Create an AFTD to store the deduplication indexes
D. Create an AFTD to store the additional bootstrap information
Answer: A

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NO.8 While installing an EMC Avamar deduplication node in a NetWorker backup solution, the
Microsoft Windows client backup jobs fail to run. Which process should be running on the client
during the backup?
A. nsravtar
B. nsravamar
C. nsrim
D. nsrndmpsv
Answer: A

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Exam Code: E22-250
Exam Name: Network Management - Smarts Administration
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NO.1 Which information is needed by IP Availability Manager to communicate with an EMC Celerra NAS in
addition to its IP address?
A.Control Station port number
B.Data Mover port number
C.Port number
D.Username, password
Answer:D

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NO.2 Which Performance Monitor Setting will give early warning that an interface is too busy?
A.IPThreshold
B.Restart Trap Window
C.UnicastThreshold
D.UtilizationThreshold
Answer:D

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NO.3 What does the context filter determine when defining a tool?
A.If the tool is grayed out
B.If the tool is visible
C.The acceptable state for tool use
D.Which attributes are passed
Answer:B

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NO.4 To ensure that Discovery probes every IP address on a Class B IP network you set the Discovery filter
to 10.1.*.*. . However, you see that most devices in that range have not been discovered. Why?
A.MaximumHostBits parameter in discovery.conf is set to 8 by default.
B.Some of those IP addresses do not exist.
C.The systems have been throttled and placed on the Pending Device List.
D.You have run out of licenses.
Answer:A

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NO.5 At a customer site, many different networks are being managed by a single IP domain, which is
generating many DuplicateIP alerts in SAM. How can you avoid these DuplicateIP alerts?
A.Filter the Duplicate network
B.Use a different IP-AM for each network
C.Use a different SAM for each network
D.Use IP Tagging
Answer:D

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NO.6 There is a firewall between the servers on which the Domain Managers are running. You are
troubleshooting a connectivity issue with the Smarts deployment. Which command is used to verify the
TCP ports on which the Domain Managers are listening?
A.brcontrol
B.sm_ping
C.sm_service show
D.sm_what
Answer:A

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NO.7 Click the Exhibit button. A router monitored by these polling settings has just been polled, and the
operational status of Interface A is DOWN. Ten seconds after the initial poll, the interface operational
status changes to UP. How long will it take from the last poll for the IP Domain Manager to set this
interface's status to UP?
A.15 minutes
B.700 milliseconds
C.9 seconds
D.900 minutes
Answer:A

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NO.8 A switch appears down in Service Assurance Manager. After trying to troubleshoot the problem, an
operator finds out that the switch has been removed from service. Why didn't this switch automatically
become Unmanaged in Smarts?
A.IP Availability Manager needs to be restarted to remove this switch.
B.Other devices that were connected to this switch are still reachable by Smarts.
C.This switch requires rediscovery.
D.Unmanaging devices is a manual process.
Answer:D

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NO.1 When a TimeFinder/Snap session is terminated, what happens to the allocated space on the save
devices?
A. Data on the save devices is maintained for the target host
B. Tracks on the save devices are reclaimed.
C. Tracks on the save devices are replicated to snap target devices
D. Data on the save devices is maintained for the source host
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is the status of the R1 and R2 devices after performing an SRDF split operation?
A. R1 and R2 Not Ready
B. R1 Write Disabled; R2 Read/Write
C. R1 Read/Write; R2 Read/Write
D. R1 Read/Write; R2 Write Disabled
Answer: C

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NO.3 When a TimeFinder/Snap session is terminated, what happens to the allocated space on the save
devices?
A. Data on the save devices is maintained for the target host.
B. Tracks on the save devices are reclaimed.
C. Tracks on the save devices are replicated to snap target devices.
D. Data on the save devices is maintained for the source host.
Answer: B

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NO.4 You need to perform an SRDF fallback operation and must ensure the integrity of the data on the R2
volume which step must be taken.?
A. Suspend the RDF link
B. Unmount the tile system
C. Remove entries horn the file system table
D. Disable journaling on the file system
Answer: D

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NO.5 A storage administrator wants to map some Symmetrix devices to an FA port for use by the Sales group
and finds that someone placed reservations on the devices for a project that no longer needs them. What
should theStorage administrator does to use those devices?
A. Use the password that was used at the time of creation to release the reservations
B. Use symconfigure to release the reservation
C. Map the devices from a host that has Symmetrix Access Control administrator privileges.
D. Use symconfigure with the force option to map the devices
Answer: B

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NO.1 An enterprise has decided to implement a new service that will process credit card information. They
will deploy this service within their private cloud. They have a relationship with a public cloud provider that
claims to be PCI compliant.
The enterprise wishes to implement a service that is PCI compliant with the least amount of effort. The
service is protected by a policy-based intrusion detection system. Cardholder data is securely transmitted
to the web interface.
Which additional design elements would best be suited for this implementation?
A. The card number is masked as it is typed and is immediately encrypted and securely sent directly to
the credit card processing system. No credit card information is stored within the application.
B. The card number is masked as it is typed and is immediately encrypted, stored, and securely sent
directly to the credit card processing system. Credit card information is stored within the public cloud
provider using AES 128 encryption.
C. The card number is masked as it is typed and is immediately encrypted and securely sent directly to
the credit card processing system. Credit card information is backed up to the private cloud system and
stored using AES 128 encryption.
D. The card number is masked as it is typed and is immediately encrypted and securely sent to both the
credit card processing system and to private cloud for historical tracking and reporting only.
Answer: A

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NO.2 A large enterprise has several applications deployed in a hybrid cloud. Ever since the hybrid cloud was
deployed, the enterprise network operations center has never been able to fully reconcile network and
audit logs.
What should be investigated first as the possible source of the issue?
A. Confirm time is synchronized between locations
B. Filtering false positives
C. Exposing management APIs
D. Tenant in-control versus provider in-control differences
Answer: A

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NO.3 A large service provider is designing a solution to protect itself against malicious content, such as
viruses in a SOAP attachment, and denial of service attacks.
Which type of firewall is most appropriate for their needs?
A. Linked VPNs
B. Federated
C. Reverse proxy servers
D. XML
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which metric measures the time taken to realize benefits from an ITaaS solution?
A. Time-to-value
B. Time-to-live
C. Time-to-deliver
D. Time-to-deploy
Answer: A

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NO.5 An enterprise company has a large, virtualized data center. They are currently in the process of auditing
their virtual servers to ensure they are in compliance with regulatory requirements.
They want to be able to check new and existing virtual servers for compliance and automatically
remediate any virtual machines that are found to be out of compliance.
As a Cloud Architect, which product would you recommend for this purpose?
A. Cisco Intelligent Automation for Cloud (CIAC)
B. VMware vCenter Orchestrator
C. VMware vCenter Configuration Manager
D. RSA Archer eGRC Platform
Answer: C

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NO.6 An IT organization is currently 80% virtualized and the CIO is planning for the transition to ITaaS.
Senior executives are concerned that IT supports too many services and that many of the services are
neither efficient nor necessary.
What argument can the CIO make to address the executives' concerns and convince them that ITaaS is
the correct strategic decision?
A. ITaaS promotes the rationalization of services currently being offered by IT and offers the services that
provide business value through the service catalog.
B. A CMDB can be utilized during the instantiation of the services to improve service levels for the
consumers of IT services.
C. ITaaS offers an opportunity to evaluate whether certain IT services should be sourced with a public
cloud service provider.
D. ITaaS promotes the concept of on-demand self-service, allowing consumers to use only the services
from which they can derive business value.
Answer: A

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software development lifecycle. As a result, the time from generating requirements to operational delivery
is significant.
Which best addresses the company s need for shorter release cycles and better code quality?
A. Implement common collaboration tools
B. Utilize configuration management methodologies
C. Use of common automation and orchestration processes
D. Transition to a DevOps culture
Answer: D

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NO.8 The first phase of new ITaaS service introduces the offering to 10% of the engineering organization. The
IT organization leverages the management tools used in their traditional data center processes to provide
visibility into silos and control of the infrastructure. They also have adapted some ITSM concepts as a
framework for their management practices.
During the initial phase of the service deployment, a problem was encountered in one of the VMs.
The IT organization is concerned about the extensive amount of time and resources spent determining
the cause of the issue.
What is the most likely reason it takes more time than expected to resolve the problem?
A. The legacy management tools do not have the capability to provide a holistic view of the service
instance
B. The expertise of the service desk personnel is inadequate to properly handle service related issues
C. The complex nature of orchestration and automation makes problem identification and root cause
analysis unlikely.
D. The cultural hurdles that span organizational silos have not been addressed and resolved.
Answer: A

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NO.1 Which authentication scheme enables safe automatic login by passing credentials in the URL?
A. Docbase Login Authentication Scheme
B. User Principal Authentication Scheme
C. Uniform Resource Locator Authentication Scheme
D. Ticketed Authentication Scheme
Answer: D

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NO.2 Given the following fragment:
<filter role="contributor, not administrator">
...
</filter>
Which roles will be allowed to use the definition within this filter element?
A. contributors, coordinators, consumers and administrators
B. contributors, coordinators, and consumers, but not administrators
C. contributors, coordinators, but not administrators or consumers
D. contributors, but not administrators, coordinators or consumers
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which statement is true about Trusted Authentication Scheme (Principal Support)?
A. It disables authentication through the Content Server.
B. It allows a superuser account to impersonate any given user.
C. The application server user name must not match a repository superuser.
D. A non-superuser account may be used to obtain login tickets.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Where do you register a custom theme?
A. app.xml
B. BrandingServiceProp.properties
C. webforms.css
D. web.xml
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which is true about Presets?
A. Presets are not used to provide security
B. Presets descend to subfolders
C. Presets applied to a folder do not apply to the files imported into the folder
D. Presets only comprise of a single rule each
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which code fragment lists the components for a container?
A. <contains>
<component>attributes</component>
<component>permissions</component>
<component>history</component>
</contains>
B. <pages>
<component>attributes</component>
<component>permissions</component>
<component>history</component>
</pages>
C. <include>
<component>attributes</component>
<component>permissions</component>
<component>history</component>
</include>
D. <params>
<component>attributes</component>
<component>permissions</component>
<component>history</component>
</params>
Answer: A

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NO.7 Given the following onInit() methods for two components:
In component A:
public void onInit(ArgumentList args)
{
super.onInit(args);
ArgumentList args2= new ArgumentList();
args2.add("MyArg", "MyValue");
setComponentNested ("B", args2, getContext(), this);
}
In component B:
public void onInit(ArgumentList args)
{
super.onInit(args);
String myVal = args.get("MyArg");
System.out.println (myVal);
}
The println statement returns null for myVal.
What is the likely cause of this?
A. ArgumentLists can not be passed between components.
B. ArgumentLists always start out empty in onInit() methods.
C. MyArg is not defined in the <params> element of the component definition B.
D. The ArgumentList for component A is independent of the ArgumentList for component B.
Answer: C

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NO.8 What makes up a component definition file?
A. pages, parameters, NLS, description
B. pages, behavior, NLS, controls
C. pages, behavior, parameters, events
D. behavior, scope, NLS, actions
Answer: A

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NO.9 How do you make only one theme available to users?
A. You include only one theme definition in the application configuration file in the custom layer.
B. You set the visible attribute of the dmf:datadropdownlist control for the theme to false.
C. You delete all the theme directories except the one you want from custom/themes.
D. You remove all but one theme definition from the application configuration file in the webcomponent
layer.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which order represents the default Preset precedence?
A. location, user, role, object type
B. user, object type, role, location
C. user, role, object type, location
D. location, role, user, object type
Answer: A

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NO.11 The highest level application layer of a WDK application is defined in which file?
A. app.xml
B. conf.xml
C. wdk.xml
D. web.xml
Answer: D

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NO.12 Given the following fragment:
<contains>
<component>newFolder</component>
<component>attributes</component>
<component requiresVisit='true'>permissions</component>
</contains>
Which statement is true?
A. The container will commit changes upon visit to each component.
B. The permissions component must be viewed before the container can commit changes.
C. The OK button will be enabled upon viewing the newFolder component.
D. The permissions component will be the default component within the container.
Answer: B

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NO.13 If you want a new application layer in between the custom and webtop layers, then which file should
you extend?
A. \custom\app.xml
B. \webtop\app.xml
C. \WEB-INF\web.xml
D. \webtop\main_component.xml
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which directories are representative of application layers in a default Webtop installation?
A. WEB-INF and webtop
B. WEB-INF and wdk
C. custom and webtop
D. custom and help
Answer: C

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NO.15 You have written a custom authentication scheme and have correctly added the scheme to the system.
You discover a problem in the code, which causes the scheme to always return null.
How does the null return value affect authentication in Webtop?
A. Any remaining schemes are skipped, and the login dialog is presented immediately.
B. Any remaining schemes are attempted, where the login dialog is usually the final authentication
scheme.
C. The scheme throws a null pointer exception and prevents other schemes from authenticating.
D. The scheme automatically logs the user in as the repository administrator.
Answer: B

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NO.16 You are creating a component that requires verification to determine if the OK button can be selected.
Which container method can be overridden to implement this functionality?
A. onOK()
B. onNextPage()
C. onCommitChanges()
D. canCommitChanges()
Answer: D

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NO.17 Your employer asks you to rename the custom folder for your WDK application to "datasink."
Which XML entry represents the correct means of changing the custom folder's name?
A. <custom>
<application>
<application-name>AppFolderName</param-name>
<application-value>datasink</param-value>
</application>
...
B. <config>
<app-param>
<param-name>AppFolderName</param-name>
<param-value extends="webtop/custom">datasink</param-value>
</app-param>
...
C. <web-inf>
<context-param>
<param-name>AppFolderName</param-name>
<param-value inherits="webtop/custom">datasink</param-value>
</context-param>
...
D. <web-app>
<context-param>
<param-name>AppFolderName</param-name>
<param-value>datasink</param-value>
</context-param>
...
Answer: D

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NO.18 Where are the WDK servlets defined?
A. app.xml
B. wdk.xml
C. web.xml
D. server.xml
Answer: C

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NO.19 You have implemented a custom authentication scheme, MyAuthenticationScheme.
To what must you add your scheme to ensure it is active?
A. in a properties file under the custom directory
B. in the app.xml under the custom directory
C. in a properties file under the WEB-INF/classes directory
D. in the web.xml under the WEB-INF directory
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which diagram represents a typical Component Processing Sequence?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: A

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NO.21 You do not see the Presets option in Webtop. What could be a possible reason?
A. The Content Server does not have a license for Presets.
B. The BOF registry entry is incorrect in the dfc.properties file.
C. You are not a superuser.
D. You are not a system administrator.
Answer: B

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NO.22 According to the diagram, which component definition will be used for all instances of the type
sop_doc? Assume all four definitions exist in the application.
A. <config version="1.0">
<scope type="dm_sysobject">
<component id="checkin">
...
</component>
</scope>
</config>
B. <config version="1.0">
<scope type="corporate_docs">
<component id="checkin">
...
</component>
</scope>
</config>
C. <config version="1.0">
<scope type="procedure_doc">
<component id="checkin">
...
</component>
</scope>
</config>
D. <config version="1.0">
<scope type="dm_folder">
<component id="checkin">
...
</component>
</scope>
</config>
Answer: B

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NO.23 Which statement is true about action and component XML definitions?
A. Actions and components always require parameters.
B. Actions and components have layouts/presentations.
C. Action and component dispatchers use the same qualifiers.
D. Action and component definitions may contain preconditions.
Answer: C

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NO.24 Given the following code: fragment:
<scope type="dm_folder">
<component id="delete" notdefined="true" />
</scope>
Which statement is true about the notdefined attribute?
A. The delete component is available for dm_folder types, but not for dm_cabinet types.
B. The delete component is available for dm_folder and dm_cabinet types, but not for dm_document
types.
C. The delete component is available for dm_document types, but not for dm_folder or dm_cabinet types.
D. The delete component is available for dm_document, dm_folder and dm_cabinet types.
Answer: C

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NO.25 For what can a qualifier be used?
A. to filter valid data to be displayed
B. to check permissions during authentication
C. to scope and filter actions and components
D. to check data against the data dictionary
Answer: C

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NO.26 Which statement is true about the inheritance of elements between application layers?
A. Elements are inherited from lower layers if they are not overridden in the higher layers.
B. Elements are inherited from lower layers only if they are overridden in the higher layers.
C. Elements are inherited from all application layers regardless of application layer hierarchy.
D. Elements are only inherited from application layers that are at the same level in the application layer
hierarchy.
Answer: A

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NO.27 Which type of container provides breadcrumb control functionality?
A. dialogcontainer
B. wizardcontainer
C. combocontainer
D. navigationcontainer
Answer: D

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NO.28 Where must component configuration files be located?
A. anywhere within application directories
B. in the config directory only
C. in the config directory and its subdirectories
D. anywhere, since the location is configurable
Answer: C

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NO.29 You have a component that is contained within a dialogcontainer.
What are the correct criteria to display the Close button?
A. canCommitChanges() returns false and canCancelChanges() returns false
B. canCommitChanges() returns true and canCancelChanges() returns false
C. canCommitChanges() returns false and canCancelChanges() returns true
D. canCommitChanges() returns true and canCancelChanges() returns true
Answer: A

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NO.30 How do you automatically include a custom JavaScript file to be in all of your JSPs?
A. by adding a reference to the component configuration file
B. by specifying it as an application parameter in the app.xml
C. by appending a reference to the Javascript file WebformScripts.properties
D. by using the <@ page import="custom/myUtils.js"> directive
Answer: C

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Exam Name: EMC (Content Management Systems Architecture Exam)
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NO.1 Which statement is true about the dump and load operation?
A. Aspects associated with a dumped object are not included in the dump file.
B. Content stored in external file storage may be included in a dump file, but blob or turbo storage may
not.
C. The source and target repositories must be the same version, but may use different code pages.
D. Objects in the target repository will always have the same r_object_id as the corresponding object in
the source repository.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which is a supported path for upgrading a Content Server to D6?
A. 4i > 5.2.5 > 6
B. 5.2 > 5.2.5 > 6
C. 4i > 5.3 > 6
D. 5.2.5 > 5.3 > 6
Answer: D

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NO.3 You are planning the upgrade of your Content Server software with Branch Office Caching Service
(BOCS) on a remote site. The repository has approximately one million objects with 400 GB of content
and 350 GB of full-text indexes. The BOCS cache has 20 GB of content.
What must be backed up before starting with the upgrade?
A. content, full-text index, and database
B. content, full-text index, and BOCS cache
C. full-text index, database, and BOCS cache
D. content, database, and BOCS cache
Answer: A

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NO.4 A client wants to upgrade their Documentum system from 5.3 SP3 to D6, but does not have the
resources to upgrade and test web applications such as Webtop and Content Server components within a
single downtime window. The client asks whether the upgrade can be phased, and if so which
components should be upgraded first.
What is the correct response to the customer's question?
A. Web applications must be upgraded before the Content Server.
B. Web applications must be upgraded after the Content Server is upgraded.
C. Web applications may be upgraded before or after the Content Server is upgraded.
D. Web applications do not need to be upgraded to make use of D6 features.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Your client's Content Servers are running on Sun/Oracle. These servers have numerous custom
applications installed and have been ugpraded several times. Security and regulatory considerations
preclude the copying of certain production data to non-production systems. The client's
configuration/change management processes and systems are incomplete or missing. You are tasked
with drafting a plan to copy a repository from the production environment to a development environment in
preparation for an upgrade.
Which process should you use to ensure that the new development environment is as similar to the
production environment as possible?
A. install Content Server in the development environment using the same docbase id as the production
environment
use the Oracle Import/Export tools to export the production database and import it into the
development environment
modify various configuration data to conform to the development environment
copy a subset of the production content to the development storage
B. install Content Server in the development environment using the same docbase id as the production
environment
use the Dump and Load utility to transfer data and metadata from the production environment to the
development environment
modify various configuration data to conform to the development environment
use DQL/DFC applications to delete potentially sensitive data from the development environment
C. copy the entire $DOCUMENTUM directory and all subdirectories from the production to the
development environment
use the Dump and Load utility to transfer data and metadata from the production environment to the
development environment
modify various configuration data to conform to the development environment
D. copy the entire $DOCUMENTUM directory and all subdirectories from the production to the
development environment
use the Oracle Import/Export tools to export the production database and import it into the
development environment
modify various configuration data to conform to the development environment
create a dm_location object and filestore in the production system pointing to the development
storage
use the Migrate Content method with an appropriate DQL qualifier to copy a non-restricted subset of
the production content to the development filestores
remove the new dm_location and dm_filestore objects
Answer: D

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NO.6 After an upgrade from a pre 5.3 version to 5.3 or 6, what can you do to remove the Verity Full-text Index
components?
A. You delete the Verity Full-text Index components via Documentum Administrator after the upgrade.
B. The Content Server upgrade procedure deletes the Full-text. Just the empty/fulltext/Verity directory
needs to be deleted in the DOCUMENTUM directory.
C. You do not delete the Verity Full-text Index. The new Fast Full-text installation needs the data for
migration.
D. You delete the Documentum type dmi_tdk_index and the Full-text data in DOCUMENTUM/data
directory.
Answer: B

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NO.7 What is the recommended method for migrating Web Content Management (WCM) Page Builder
templates, blueprints, managed links, and associated content from a production environment to a testing
environment?
A. archive and install a DocApp
B. perform a repository-to-repository copy operation through WebPublisher
C. execute cabinet dump and load
D. use a deep export/import through WebPublisher
Answer: A

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NO.8 What is required for using Business Object Framework 2 (BOF 2)?
A. a dfc.properties file on all client machines such as application servers
B. a DBOR.properties and a dfc.properties file on all client machines such as application servers and a
global registry repository
C. a DBOR.properties file on all client machines and a global registry repository
D. a global registry repository and a dfc.properties file on all client machines
Answer: D

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NO.9 What is the proper sequence of steps for upgrading Content Server and Document Transformation
Services (DTS)?
A. uninstall Content Server
uninstall DTS
install Content Server
install DTS
add DTS Support to repository
B. remove DTS Support from repository
uninstall DTS upgrade Content Server
install DTS
add DTS Support to repository
C. upgrade Content Server
remove DTS Support from repository
uninstall DTS
install DTS
add DTS support to repository
D. remove DTS Support from repository
upgrade Content Server
uninstall DTS
install DTS
add DTS support to repository
Answer: B

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NO.10 A client is migrating their repositories from Windows to Linux. The database server is Oracle. The
content file stores are on NAS and made available over CIFS. For the migration, the client has done the
following:
installed Content Server and Oracle client on Linux using an installation owner account with the same
name on Windows
copied the tnsnames.ora from Windows to Linux
configured replacement Connection Brokers
added Services entries for the repositories on the Linux Content Server environment
attached to the NAS storage using NFS
updated for each repository the web_server_loc, smtp_server, r_host_name, r_install_domain, and
projection target attributes for server config using SQL to reflect the new server name
Which minimal high-level steps does the client need to take to complete the migration?
A. copy all the configuration, and the aek.key files under %DOCUMENTUM%\dba Windows
to$DOCUMENTUM/dba on the Linux Content Server
update the user_auth_target, database_password_file, and Docbase Projection Target fields in each
server.ini
update the appropriate dm_location objects in the repositories using SQL to map to the new
locations</UL
B. copy all the configuration files under %DOCUMENTUM%\dba Windows to $DOCUMENTUM/dba on
the Linux Content Server
update the user_auth_target, database_password_file, and Docbase Projection Target fields in each
server.ini
update the appropriate dm_location objects in the repositories using SQL to map to the new locations
C. copy all the configuration, and the aek.key files under %DOCUMENTUM%\dba Windows to
$DOCUMENTUM/dba on the Linux Content Server
update the Docbase Projection Target fields in each server.ini
update the appropriate dm_location objects in the repositories using SQL to map to the new locations
D. copy all the configuration files under %DOCUMENTUM%\dba Windows to $DOCUMENTUM/dba on
the Linux Content Server
pdate the database_password_file, and Docbase Projection Target fields in each server.ini
update the appropriate dm_location objects in the repositories using SQL to map to the new locations
Answer: A

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NO.11 Before upgrading the Content Server software, which job do you need to run to find sysobjects that
point to non-existent content?
A. Content Warning
B. Consistency Checker
C. Dmclean
D. State of the Repository Report
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which file replaces the pre-D6 dmcl.ini?
A. dfc.properties
B. docbroker.ini
C. java.ini
D. dbor.properties
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which file(s) handle client configuration in D6?
A. dmcl.ini only
B. dfc.properties only
C. dmcl.ini and dfc.properties
D. dmclfull.ini only
Answer: B

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NO.14 You are tasked with performing a Content Server upgrade.
To accomplish this, you do the following:
You first make a repository copy of the production repository by installing the Content Server.
You then create a new repository.
You then copy the database and file storage areas from production to the new environment.
To be successful, what must be true of the new repository copy after this operation is complete?
A. It must have the same Docbase ID as the production repository.
B. It must have a different owner than the production repository.
C. It must project to the same Connection Broker as the production repository.
D. It must have the same Database Connection string as the production repository.
Answer: A

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NO.15 What is the correct sequence of steps for upgrading Content Server and Full-text Index Server?
A. uninstall Full-text Index Server delete Index Agents upgrade Content Server install Index Agents install
Full-text Index Server
B. upgrade Content Server uninstall Full-text Index Server delete Index Agents install Index Agents install
Full-text Index Server
C. delete Index Agents uninstall Full-text Index Server upgrade Content Server install Full-text Index
Server install Index Agents
D. delete Index Agents upgrade Full-text Index Server upgrade Content Server install Index Agents
Answer: C

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NO.16 What is the supported procedure for rolling back an upgrade of Documentum Content Server?
A. uninstall the current version, then reinstall the previous version
B. run the uninstaller for the current version and run the Data Dictionary Publish job
C. remove the directory under %DOCUMENTUM%/product for the current version, change server.ini file
and dm_server_config, dm_docbase_config objects
D. restore the system from backup
Answer: D

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NO.17 In addition to core software upgrade considerations, which component of a Documentum system are
most likely to require additional work?
A. software use cases
B. network topology
C. data center architecture
D. application customizations
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which Application Server does D6 Content Server install for its internal use?
A. BEA Weblogic
B. Oracle AS
C. Apache Tomcat
D. IBM WebSphere
Answer: A

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NO.19 A client has a Content Server, Site Caching Services (SCS), Content Transformation Services (CTS),
and Full-text Indexes installed on Windows/Oracle servers. The client wants to migrate Documentum
applications to Linux.
Which statement is true?
A. The client must migrate Oracle servers to Linux.
B. SCS is not supported on Linux.
C. CTS is not supported on Linux.
D. Content Server is not supported on Linux/Oracle.
Answer: C

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NO.20 A client wants to upgrade a repository from 5.2.5 to 5.3. The repository has 8 million content objects
with an average size of 50K. The full text searching capability is required to be available within 24 hours of
the repository upgrade. The Full-text Index Server is installed on a separate server. The upgrade is
scheduled to happen in two months.
How can the client accomplish this objective?
A. configure an Index Agent in normal mode to operate against the 5.2.5 repository
create the Full-text Indexes
run the ftintegrity tool to identify documents that were not indexed, and resubmit those documents for
indexing
upgrade the Content Server and the repository
B. upgrade the Content Server and the repository
configure an Index Agent in normal mode to operate against the upgraded repository
create the Full-text Indexes
C. configure a 5.3 Index Agent in migration mode to operate against the 5.2.5 repository
create the Full-text Indexes.
run the ftintegrity tool to identify documents that were not indexed, and resubmit those documents for
indexing
upgrade the Content Server and the repository
shut down the migration-mode Index Agent and change it to a normal-mode Index Agent.
D. upgrade the Content Server and the repository
configure an Index Agent in migration mode to operate against the upgraded repository
create the Full-text Indexes.
shut down the migration-mode Index Agent and change it to a normal-mode Index Agent
Answer: C

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