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Exam Code: 501-01
Exam Name: Riverbed Certified Solutions Associate - Storage Delivery
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Exam Code: 101-01
Exam Name: Riverbed Certified Solutions Associate
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NO.1 What are the benefits of Application Streamlining?
A. Applications run up to 100 times faster
B. Reduces application chattiness by 65-98%
C. Accelerates the most important applications, such as CIFS. MAPI, NFS. HTTP/S, and MS-SQL Lotus
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Answer: D

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NO.2 An employee who has just installed Steelhead Mobile onto her workstation notices that she never gets
any reduction. It always says 0%. The status of the mobile client appears to be:
Optimization Status : Firewalled
Controller Status : Connected
The reason she is seeing 0% reduction statistics is:
A. Location Awareness is in effect
B. The physical branch Steelhead appliance is her office is behind a firewall
C. The office firewall is stripping the IP options field
D. Her workstation is blocking TCP port 7801
E. The data center is currently firewalling all optimized connections
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which TCP option (probe) is used on the Steelhead Mobile client for auto-discovery?
A. 0x4c
B. 0xc4
C. 0xd4
D. Steelhead Mobile client must use fixed-target rules
Answer: A

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NO.4 What are basic components of the Interceptor appliance? (Select 3)
A. Load Balancing
B. Redirection
C. Peer Affinity
D. Optimization
E. Store SDR data
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.5 The key difference between the *Degraded* status and the *Critical* status is:
A. With degraded, only one alarm has been triggered, whereas with critical, two or more alarms were
triggered
B. With degraded, the Steelhead appliance is still optimizing traffic, whereas with critical the Steelhead
may or may not be optimizing
C. With degraded, there is no optimization due to a software problem, whereas with critical there is no
optimization due to a hardware problem
D. With both degraded and critical, optimization functions as normal however administrator attention is
required.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Steelhead appliance models vary according to which of the following attributes?
Number of concurrent TCP connections that can be optimized
Amount of disk storage available for Scalable Data Referencing
Level of encryption supported
Maximum possible in-path interfaces
A. 1, 2, and 3
B. 1, 2, and 4
C. 2,3, and 4
D. 1, 3. and 4
E. 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following status states of the Steelhead appliance are valid? (Select 3)
A. Degraded
B. Normal
C. Healthy
D. Critical
E. Failed
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.8 Assuming the Steelhead appliance has a 250 GB database capacity, by enabling PFS on a supported
Steelhead appliance which of the following would be true:
A. The database capacity will shrink due to the amount of space by PFS
B. The database capacity will grow due to the amount of space by PFS
C. The database capacity does not change
D. The database capacity will have to be reformatted
Answer: C

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Exam Code: C-TSCM42-66
Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Associate - Production - Planning & Manufacturing with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP6
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Exam Code: C-ISR-60
Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Associate - Retail with SAP ERP 6.0
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Exam Code: P-HCMTM-64
Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Professional - HCM Talent Management with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP4
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NO.1 Which of the following are the effects of a goods issue posting for an outbound delivery in SAP
Retail? (Choose three)
A. The stock quantities are updated in the article master.
B. The value change is updated in the stock accounts in Financial Accounting (FI).
C. The status of the outbound delivery is updated in the document flow.
D. The pick quantity in the transfer order is updated.
E. The stock type Blocked stock changes.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.2 You create a sales order for the wholesale distribution chain. In the pricing analysis you notice
that the customer discount you have just created has not been included.
Which of the following settings made in sales price determination in SAP Retail might be the cause
of this? (Choose two)
A. The determined pricing procedure does not contain the new condition type Customer discount.
B. The condition record for your new customer discount was created for the wrong distribution
chain.
C. A validity date has been defined in the access sequence that is assigned to the condition type
Customer discount.
D. The condition record for the customer discount is set as: cannot be changed manually.
Answer: A,B

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NO.3 Which of the following functions are offered by replenishment planning in SAP Retail? (Choose
three)
A. Calculating requirements for merchandise category value-only articles.
B. Determining requirements for stores based on the stock situation.
C. Considering different customer stock types.
D. Analyzing customers' sales data and stock data.
E. Generating follow-on documents.
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.4 Which of the following functions does the purchasing list offer? (Choose three)
A. Selecting characteristic values for a purchasing list item.
B. Entering planned quantities for seasonal articles per assortment.
C. Planning the number of styles of seasonal articles per vendor.
D. Planning new articles that do not yet have an article master record.
E. Creating prepacks and displays.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.5 Where in the Merchandise Category Hierarchy would you find a Reference Article?
A. Any Merchandise Category Hierarchy Level
B. Merchandise Category
C. Merchandise Category Hierarchy Top Level
D. Merchandise Category Hierarchy Level and Merchandise Category
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which one of the following price determination elements must be configured so that certain
condition lines of a purchase order will appear on the print output?
A. Access sequence
B. Condition type
C. Calculation schema
D. Schema group
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following needs to be considered when using the replenishment based inventory
management procedure?
A. Only the unrestricted-use stock type is monitored.
B. Documents are created for all goods movements.
C. Different stock types are monitored.
D. Documents are created for goods receipts only.
Answer: A

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NO.8 For which of the following key figures can you maintain plan data in a purchasing list in SAP
Retail? (Choose three)
A. Stock transfer
B. Initial buy fix
C. Initial buy variable
D. Putaway
E. Allocation table
Answer: B,C,D

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Exam Code: 3108
Exam Name: Avaya Scopia Solution Implementation and Maintenance Exam
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NO.1 What can you use to control the Scopia XT Telepresence system?
A. You can use the XT remote control for basic functions.
B. You can only use Scopia Control.
C. You can use both the XT remote control and Scopia Control.
D. You can use the XT remote control for all functions.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which action can a user take when using Scopia Mobile?
A. Participate in the conference as audio only
B. Perform most of the moderating functions of the conference
C. Perform all moderating functions of the conference
D. Share data with other participants
Answer: D

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NO.3 Is registration to a Gatekeeper or SIP Proxy required when using the Video IVR/Auto Attendant?
A. Yes, it is required.
B. The Video IVR/Auto Attendant can be configured only with registration to a Gatekeeper.
C. The Video IVR/Auto Attendant can be configured only with registration to a SIP Proxy.
D. No, it is not required.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which statement is correct regarding the Scopia Elite MCUs?
A. The Elite MCUs can combine High Definition, Standard Definition, and Voice only ports in the
same conference.
B. The Elite MCUs can combine High Definition or Standard Definition ports.
C. The Elite MCUs only support High Definition ports.
D. The Elite MCUs can combine High Definition and Voice only ports.
Answer: B

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Reference:http://static.dekom.com/uploads/tx_vidowawi/Videokonferenz-Radvision-ScopiaElite600
0-Series-MCU-Administrator-Guide_V8.0.pdf(page 9)

NO.5 How do you configure an Audio-only service in the MCU?
A. By selecting a service type and deselecting the multimedia option
B. By removing all video codecs from the video codecs table
C. By selecting all audio codecs from the audio codecs table
D. By selecting a service type and checking the "audio only" checkbox
Answer: D

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Reference:https://downloads.avaya.com/css/P8 /documents/100173463(p.24)

NO.6 What are two of the main functions of the Scopia Video Gateway for Lync? (Choose two.)
A. SIP Presence to Lync client
B. H.323 Presence to Lync client
C. Point-to-point and Multipoint calls between Lync clients and H.323 devices
D. One Click to voicemail
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 An administrator would like to enable auto-attendant in Scopia Management.
What must the administrator do to ensure that auto-attendant works properly?
A. Restart the Elite MCU
B. Disable auto-attendant on the Elite MCU
C. Enable auto-attendant on the Elite MCU
D. Route auto-attendant to the Elite MCU
Answer: D

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Reference:http://docs.radvision.com/bundle/iv_admin_guide_8 /iv_uc_ms_ag_IVR

NO.8 What are two features that Scopia Elite MCUs provide in a video conferencing deployment?
(Choose two.)
A. Continuous Presence
B. Integration to Microsoft Lync
C. Data Collaboration
D. Gatekeeper access
Answer: A,D

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Exam Code: VCP550
Exam Name: VMware Certified Professional on vSphere 5 Exam
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NO.1 Which two precautions should a vSphere administrator take before increasing the size of a
VMFS datastore? (Choose two.)
A. Unmount the datastore
B. Perform a rescan to ensure that all hosts see the most current storage
C. Quiesce I/O on all disks involved
D. Shut down all virtual machines stored in the datastore
Answer: B,C

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NO.2 Which Single Sign-On deployment mode should an administrator use for two 5.x vCenter
Servers configured with linked mode?
A. Basic Single Sign-On with vCenter Server Heartbeat
B. Multisite Single Sign-On
C. Basic Single Sign-On
D. Single Sign-On with Linked Mode
Answer: B

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NO.3 What two IT infrastructure components are virtualized by vSphere Essentials? (Choose two.)
A. Networks
B. Applications
C. Storage
D. Management
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 An administrator needs to deploy several virtual machines. Storage contention between the
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and should be highly available across the ESXi 5.5 hosts.
Which two storage options meet these requirements? (Choose two.)
A. iSCSI
B. NFS
C. Fibre Channel
D. vSAN
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 To avoid unnecessary planned downtime, what is the minimum version of VMware Tools that,
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A. 5.5
B. 5.1
C. 5.0
D. 4.1
Answer: B

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NO.6 -- Exhibit --
-- Exhibit --
Which two statements below could explain why the vSphere Client is reporting N/A for
hyperthreading? (Choose two.)
The physical CPUs in the host do not support hyperthreading.
A. Hyperthreading is disabled in the host's BIOS.
B. The physical CPUs in the host are not multi-core.
C. The number of CPUs meets or exceeds the maximum without hyperthreading.
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 Which VLAN configuration requires switch connectivity defined as an access port?
A. Private VLAN
B. External Switch Tagging
C. Virtual Guest Tagging
D. Virtual Switch Tagging
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which two Identity Sources are available to add for vCenter Single Sign-On authentication?
(Choose two.)
A. LocalOS
B. OpenLDAP
C. NIS as an LDAP Server
D. VCMSDS
Answer: A,B

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Exam Name: LPI Level 3 Exam 300, Senior Level Linux Certification, Mixed Environment
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NO.1 What is the correct command to regenerate slapd indices based upon the current contents of
the database?
A. slapd index
B. sindexd
C. slapindex
D. There is no index command, indexing is handled by the slapd daemon.
Answer: C

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NO.2 CORRECT TEXT
A server is authenticating users using the pam_ldap module. Only users who are members of a
certain group should be allowed to login. In which parameter in ldap.conf can a filter string be
specified, that is ANDed with the login attribute when validating a user? (Enter only the parameter,
without any options or values)
Answer: pam _filter

NO.3 It is found that changes made to an OpenLDAP directory are no longer being replicated to the
slave server at 192.168.0.3. Tests prove that the slave server is listening on the correct port and
changes are being recorded properly to the replication log file. In which file would you find the
replication errors?
A. replication.err
B. replication.rej
C. 192.168.0.3:389.rej
D. 192.168.0.3:389.err
Answer: C

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NO.4 In slapd.conf, what keyword will instruct slapd to not ask the client for a certificatE.
TLSVerifyClient = ________
A. never
B. nocert
C. none
D. unverified
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following procedures will test the TLS configuration of an OpenLDAP server?
A. Run the ldapsearch command with the -ZZ option, while watching network traffic with a packet
analyzer.
B. Run the ldapsearch command with the -x option, while watching network traffic with a packet
analyzer.
C. Run the slapcat command, while watching network traffic with a packet analyzer.
D. Verify the TLS negotiation process in the /var/log/ldap_auth.log file.
E. Verify the TLS negotiation process in the /var/log/auth.log file.
Answer: A

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NO.6 CORRECT TEXT
In an OpenLDAP masters's slapd.conf configuration file, a replica configuration option is needed to
enable a slave OpenLDAP server to replicate. What value is required in the following setting:
bindmethod=____________ if using passwords for master/slave authentication? (Only specify the
missing value)
Answer: simple

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NO.7 When configuring OpenLDAP to use certificates, which option should be used with the
TLSVerifyClient directive to ask the client for a valid certificate in order to proceed normally?
A. never
B. allow
C. try
D. demand
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following parameters can be used in the file DB_CONFIG? (Select TWO correct
answers.)
A. set_cachesize
B. set_cachepath
C. set_db_type
D. set_db_path
E. set_lg_max
Answer: A,E

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Exam Code: HP2-Z33
Exam Name: HP Unified Wired-Wireless Networks and BYOD
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NO.1 An organization wants to upgrade their wireless network to allow employees to connect using
their 802.11ac enabled devices. Which HP access points meet this requirement?
A. HP 425
B. HPMSM466
C. HP MSM430
D. HP 560
Answer: D

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NO.2 A branch location is deploying standalone wireless access points (APs).
What can be used to configure and manage these APs? (Select two.)
A. Access Controller
B. Web interface
C. IMC/UAM
D. IMC/EAD
E. CLI
Answer: B,E

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NO.3 An administrator changes the setting for VLAN 200 on an HP 830 switch from tagged to
untagged.
How will this change affect the traffic sent over VLAN 200?
A. Traffic sent over VLAN 200 will be forwarded to untagged VLAN 1.
B. Tagged management traffic can no longer be sent on VLAN 200.
C. Traffic sent over VLAN 200 will have the 802.1Q tag removed.
D. Tagged traffic sent over VLAN 200 will be forwarded without changing the 802.1Q tag.
Answer: C

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Reference:http://community.spiceworks.com/topic/ 430141-understanding-vlans-with-tagged-andu
ntagged-traffic

NO.4 When accessing the wireless network in 802.1X with EAP-TLS, what do the user endpoints
require?
A. username and password of the user's account
B. client certificate or root certificate
C. client certificate and root certificate
D. MS-CHAPV2 to be configured
Answer: C

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Reference:http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc739638(v=ws.10).aspxv

NO.5 Refer to the exhibit.
What does AP Echo Interval of 10 seconds indicate?
A. The access controller should send the access point (AP) an echo request every 10 seconds to
ensure that the AP is still operational.
B. The access point should send the access controller an echo request every 10 seconds to ensure
that the LWAPP tunnel is up.
C. The access point should transmit a beacon every 10 seconds.
D. The access point should send the client an echo request every 10 seconds to ensure that the
client is still connected.
Answer: B

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NO.6 A network administrator configures 802.1X authentication on a wireless network set with an
HP 830 Unified Wired-Wireless Controller. The administrator configures a RADIUS scheme named
radius1 and a Domain scheme name domain1. Which other configuration will enable 802.1X?
A. Option A
B. OptionB
C. OptionC
D. OptionD
Answer: D

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NO.7 An organization implements an N+1 redundancy for its access controllers (ACs). When the
primary AC fails, the access points (APs) successfully fail over to the standby AC. However, when the
failed AC comes back in to service, the APs do not switch back to the original AC.
What could cause this to happen?
A. AP Connection priority on the primary AC is not set to 1.
B. APs determine which AC to connect to based on load.
C. APs do not fail back to the original AC.
D. AP Connection priority on the primary AC is not set to 7.
Answer: D

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Reference:http://www.h3c.com/portal/Technical_Support___Documents/Technical_Documents/Ro
uters/H3C_MSR_50_Series_Routers/Configuration/Operation_Manual/13WLAN_Volume(V1.05)/ 20
0909/ 648837_1285_0.htm(configuring capwap dual-link, 4th row of the table, last column)

NO.8 A customer is planning to deploy HP MSM466-R access points in an extreme cold environment
to interconnect to the Unified Wired-WLAN Module in the HP switch.
Which requirement is needed to accomplish this?
A. NEMA 4X enclosures should be used to house the access points.
B. Switch ports must support PoE.
C. PoE redundancy must be enabled on the interface.
D. Access Point must deploy internal antennas.
Answer: A

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NO.1 Identify the missing words in the following sentence. A consequence of a well-functioning
portfolio delivery cycle is a portfolio [?] by enabling resource re-allocation when required.
A. that remains strategically aligned
B. that has clarity on its high-level scope
C. where the portfolio governance body makes informed decisions on composition
D. that matches planned changes with its capacity to deliver
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which is a main element of the risk management practice?
A. Adoption of the champion-challenger' model
B. Introduction of a summary investment appraisal template
C. Preparation of a Portfolio Management Framework
D. Implementation of an effective escalation path to the relevant portfolio governance body
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which is a 'key to success' of the stakeholder engagement practice?
A. Use of contemporary communications
B. Evidence-based forecasting
C. Clarity about governance structures and roles
D. Involve risk experts
Answer: A

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NO.4 Identify the missing word in the definition of portfolio management. A coordinated collection
of [ ? ] processes and decisions that together enable the most effective balance of organizational
change and business as usual.
A. business
B. strategic
C. programme
D. delivery
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which statement about the prioritize practice is true?
A. A segmented portfolio should use the same criteria to prioritize each segment
B. Mandatory projects should not be included in the normal prioritization process
C. Prioritization of initiatives should be based on an estimate of financial benefits that may be
achieved
D. A mandatory requirement should be reviewed to ensure that the planned change is cost effective
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which is a main element in the resource management practice?
A. Understanding the demand for constrained resources
B. Motivating people to commit to the delivery of shared goals
C. Scheduling portfolio initiatives to avoid adversely impacting operational performance
D. Emphasising the need to operate as one team
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following is a main element of the financial management practice?
A. Application of staged release funding linked to stage/phase gates
B. Categorization of benefits as cashable and non-cashable
C. Consideration of financial liabilities arising from performance and guarantee bonds
D. Sub-portfolios are periodically reviewed
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following refers to the 'one version of the truth' technique?
A. Referring variances beyond control limit from plan to the portfolio governance body
B. Reporting via a documented route and schedule
C. Specifying points at which reviews of initiatives are linked to funding release
D. Deriving forecasts of costs, duration and benefits of an initiative from similar previous projects
Answer: B

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