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Exam Name: Avaya ERS 8000 and Avaya VSP 9000 Implementation Exam
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Exam Code: 3108
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NO.1 What can you use to control the Scopia XT Telepresence system?
A. You can use the XT remote control for basic functions.
B. You can only use Scopia Control.
C. You can use both the XT remote control and Scopia Control.
D. You can use the XT remote control for all functions.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which action can a user take when using Scopia Mobile?
A. Participate in the conference as audio only
B. Perform most of the moderating functions of the conference
C. Perform all moderating functions of the conference
D. Share data with other participants
Answer: D

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NO.3 Is registration to a Gatekeeper or SIP Proxy required when using the Video IVR/Auto Attendant?
A. Yes, it is required.
B. The Video IVR/Auto Attendant can be configured only with registration to a Gatekeeper.
C. The Video IVR/Auto Attendant can be configured only with registration to a SIP Proxy.
D. No, it is not required.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which statement is correct regarding the Scopia Elite MCUs?
A. The Elite MCUs can combine High Definition, Standard Definition, and Voice only ports in the
same conference.
B. The Elite MCUs can combine High Definition or Standard Definition ports.
C. The Elite MCUs only support High Definition ports.
D. The Elite MCUs can combine High Definition and Voice only ports.
Answer: B

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Reference:http://static.dekom.com/uploads/tx_vidowawi/Videokonferenz-Radvision-ScopiaElite600
0-Series-MCU-Administrator-Guide_V8.0.pdf(page 9)

NO.5 How do you configure an Audio-only service in the MCU?
A. By selecting a service type and deselecting the multimedia option
B. By removing all video codecs from the video codecs table
C. By selecting all audio codecs from the audio codecs table
D. By selecting a service type and checking the "audio only" checkbox
Answer: D

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Reference:https://downloads.avaya.com/css/P8 /documents/100173463(p.24)

NO.6 What are two of the main functions of the Scopia Video Gateway for Lync? (Choose two.)
A. SIP Presence to Lync client
B. H.323 Presence to Lync client
C. Point-to-point and Multipoint calls between Lync clients and H.323 devices
D. One Click to voicemail
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 An administrator would like to enable auto-attendant in Scopia Management.
What must the administrator do to ensure that auto-attendant works properly?
A. Restart the Elite MCU
B. Disable auto-attendant on the Elite MCU
C. Enable auto-attendant on the Elite MCU
D. Route auto-attendant to the Elite MCU
Answer: D

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Reference:http://docs.radvision.com/bundle/iv_admin_guide_8 /iv_uc_ms_ag_IVR

NO.8 What are two features that Scopia Elite MCUs provide in a video conferencing deployment?
(Choose two.)
A. Continuous Presence
B. Integration to Microsoft Lync
C. Data Collaboration
D. Gatekeeper access
Answer: A,D

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Exam Name: Avaya Aura® Session Manager and System Manager Implementation and Maintenance Exam
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Exam Code: 3000-2
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NO.1 A new Application Sequence has already been defined in the network. A technician has been asked to
apply Application Sequence to all incoming calls for all employees in the Berlin office.
Which sequence describes the steps that should be taken?
A. Go to the User Management page and use the filter option to list only the users in the Berlin
office-Select each user from the filtered list and edit each user's User Profile. Apply the new Application
Sequence to the Terminating Application Sequence for each user.
B. Navigate to the Communication Profile Editor and use the filter option to list only the users in the Berlin
location. Select All. Select the new Application Sequence from the Terminating Application Sequence
drop down box.
C. Go to the list of Application Sequences and edit the new Application Sequence, adding the Berlin
location to the list of associated locations.
D. Edit the Berlin Location to include the new Application Sequence as its Terminating Application
Sequence.
Answer: B

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NO.2 During a post-installation check of System Manager and Session Manager you discover that the
Session lager replica node is stuck at "Synchronizing". You run the initTM command in Session Manager
but the replication status does not change.
Which step will be effective in resolving the problem?
A. Reset the enrollment password.
B. Run traceSM to monitor the synchronization events and restart the Security Module.
C. Delete the Session Manager Replica node in System Manager, verify the enrollment password is valid
In System Manager and run the initTM command again in Session Manager.
D. Verify the enrollment password is valid in System Manager and run the initTM command again in
Session Manager.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which URL should be used to access the web console to install a System Manager template?
A. https://135.0.0.5/webconsole
B. https://135.0.0.6/webconsole
C. https://135.0.0.7/SMGR
D. https://135.0.0.7/webconsole
Answer: C

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NO.4 Digit Conversion in Adaptation can be specified to modify "origination" type headers.
Which three are origination / source type URIs? (Choose three.)
A. Request-URI
B. P-Asserted-Identity
C. Refer-To (in REFER messages)
D. History-info (calling portion)
E. Contact (in 3xx response)
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.5 Which three types of handles can be selected for a user when creating users in system manger?
(Choose three.)
A. SMTP
B. H.323
C. IBM
D. XMPP
E. undefined
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.6 Review the output of the command shown in the exhibit.
Which command is used to generate these results and what does it tell you?
A. swversion displays the Session ManagerReleaseinformation.
B. statapp displays the current status of the Session Manager services.
C. initDRS displays the Session ManagerNoderegistration and data replication.
D. traceSM displays a ladder trace of the SIP requests going in and out of the Session Manager.
E. smconfig displays the network information and status the Session Manager.
Answer: E

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NO.7 Which statement is true with regard to SIP Monitoring being enabled on a SIP Entity?
A. Session Manager will monitor the status of that SIP Entity by sending SIP OPTIONS requests.
B. SIP Entity will monitor the status of Session Manager by sending SIP OPTIONS requests.
C. Session Manager will monitor the status of that SIP Entity by sending SIP SUBSCRIBE requests.
D. Session Manager will monitor the status of that SIP Entity by sending SIP NOTIFY requests.
E. System Manager will monitor the status of that SIP Entity by sending SIP OPTIONS requests.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Company XYZ has a multi-location voice network. They have Session Manager at their main site and
Avaya Communication Manager (CM) and Cisco Call Manager at their branch locations.
Which type of messages does Session Manager send to the Avaya and Cisco PBX configured as SIP
Entities to monitor their status?
A. ENTITY
B. LINK
C. OPTIONS
D. STATUS
Answer: C

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NO.1 How can you limit the default call bandwidth for a specific user in a deployment that includes
the
iVIEW Management Suite?
A. Limitingthe bandwidth can be done only through the end-points.
B. The default call bandwidth can belimited as part ofthe terminal configuration set.
C. After the call is connected, limit the bandwidth through the meeting controlscreen.
D. Limitingthe bandwidth cannot be done for a specific user.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which activity cannot be performed by an MCU operator?
A. MCU configuration
B. Managing another conference
C. Viewing the conference list
D. Disconnecting a conference
Answer: B

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NO.3 What connectivity method(s) are available for H.323 clients to dial-in into the PathFinder
server?
A. PathFinder Client and H.460 support only.
B. Either PathFinder Client and H.460, or PathFinder Client and H.323 DirectPublicAccesssupport.
C. PathFinderClient,H.460 support, and H.323 Direct Public Access support.
D. PathFinderClient only.
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is the maximum High Definition (HD) resolution supported by SCOPIA XT Desktop?
A. 448P
B. 720P
C. 1080i
D. 1080P
Answer: D

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NO.5 What is the maximum High Definition (HD) resolution supported by the Elite MCU?
A. 480P
B. 720P
C. 1080i
D. 1080P
Answer: D

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NO.6 In which slot can you insert the Master Blade in the Scopia® Elite 5000 series 3U chassis?
A. the bottomslot
B. any slot except the top slot
C. any slot
D. only thetop slot
Answer: D

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NO.1 Which multicast activity should be configured on the edge?
A. Distance Vector Multicast Routing Protocol (DVMRP)
B. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)
C. Protocol Independent Multicast - Sparse Mode (PIM-SM)
D. Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP) Snooping and Proxy
Answer: D

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NO.2 Routers can learn several routes to a given destination network through several protocols.
Which part of the VSP 9000 uses the host route?
A. Equal Cost Multi Path routing (ECMP)
B. The Routing Table Manager (RTM)
C. the hardware
D. the best destination
Answer: B

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NO.3 Buffer wrap is a variable of the Packet Capture Tool (PCAP) enable command, and by default it is set to
true.
Which statement describes what buffer-wrap does when it is set to true?
A. Itenables external flash wrap around.
B. It wrapscaptured frames to the DRAM buffer.
C. It stops packet rapture when the buffer becomes full.
D. It allows the capture to continue when the buffer becomes full.
Answer: D

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NO.4 In the event of a critical process crash on a CP module, when is CP switchover initiated.?
A. within 3 milliseconds
B. prior to core generation
C. upon receipt of a failure log
D. per the power down algorithm
Answer: C

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NO.5 Equal Cost MultiPath (FCMP) routes apply to Open Shortest Path First (OSPF), Routing Information
Protocol (RIP), Border Gateway Protocol (BGP), Default and Static routes.
With ECMP, how many equal-cost paths can be configured to the same destination prefix?
A. two
B. up to six
C. up to four
D. up to eight
Answer: D

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NO.6 To reduce the number of active neighbor adjacencies, what can a technician configure on the VSP 9000
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A. OSPF passive interfaces
B. OSPFadjacencies limiter
C. OSPF active interfaces limiter
D. OSPFadjacencies summarization
Answer: A

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NO.7 Where is the VSP 9000 log file configured?
A. Menu
B. ACLI
C. Syslog
D. Sysconfig log menu
Answer: B

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NO.8 A technician is configuring a VSP 9000 to run in High Availability (HA) Mode, and needs to set the Open
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A. auto
B. variable
C. 500 milliseconds
D. greater than one second
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 3203
Exam Name: Avaya Aura Messaging Implementation and Maintenance Exam
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NO.1 The attempt to manage an Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8000 using a Virtual Route
Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) address was not successful. What is causing this problem?
A. The virtual router identifier is 0.
B. The data center interface is set as a critical IP interface.
C. A real IP address is required for management access not a VRRP address.
D. The virtual router identifier is configured for the VRRP IP address owner.
Answer: C

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NO.2 The Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 switch includes a means to fine tune the memory
resources by allowing the record allocations to be allowed. An ERS 8600 running Release 5.0 needs
to be configured to be optimized for multicast traffic. Which command alters the ERS 8600 to
increases the default allocation of Multicast by 50 percent?
A. Config sys set record record reserve MGID + 50
B. Config sys set max-vlan-resource-reservation 4096
C. Config sys set show sys mgid usage
D. Config sys set multicast-resource-reservation 3073
Answer: D

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NO.3 What does the trace level 9 3 command accomplish?
A. It captures BGP events at a terse level.
B. It captures packets copied to the CPU at a verbose level.
C. It shows CPU utilization.
D. It captures RCC IP events at verbose level.
Answer: B

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NO.4 In a multicast campus, when should an ERS 8600 PIM interface be configured to run in passive
mode?
A. When the interface is used as an edge interface and is aggregating traffic.
B. When the interface is used as a core interface and needs to limit PIM messages to reduce the
system load.
C. When there are no unicast routing paths.
D. When more than one unicast routing protocol is in use.
Answer: A

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NO.5 By default the ERS 8000 is configured for warm standby. After installation of a new ERS
solution with dual CPUs, which three actions need to be Perform on the ERS configuration to ensure
high availability mode is enabled and will function correctly? (Choose three)
A. Set the high availability CPU boot flag to true.
B. Set the warm standby CPU hoot flag to false. C. Set the save to standby CPU boot flag to true.
D. Save the boot.cfg conflg file and reset the switch to activate the changes.
E. Install the high availability license file.
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.6 A campus network requirement is to introduce Virtual Routing and Forwarding (VRF) in the
existing Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600-based core. The technician has to configure VRF on the
ERS 8600. Which statement represents the order for configuring a new VRF?
A. Creating a new VLAN, add an IP address to the VLAN, create the VRF in the VLAN configuration.
B. Create VRF, change context to the new VRF, add an IP address, create a new VLAN, and move the
VLAN to the new VRF.
C. Create a VRF, change context to the new VRF, create a new VLAN, add an IP address to the VLAN.
D. Create a VRF, create a new VLAN, move the VLAN to the new VRF, change context to the new VRF,
and add an IP Address.
Answer: D

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NO.7 What does Ping snoop identify?
A. The path that IP traffic takes over an MLT or SMLT
B. The rate of IP traffic flow
C. Which port filter is best to use on MLT networks
D. Rate limiting for ICMP traffic
Answer: A

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NO.8 When configuring a new Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8000 using the default interface, the
attempt to load an ACLI configuration fails because the default interface is the CLI. How is the ACLI
interface obtained?
A. Change the interface type in the config.cfg file.
B. Change the ACLI boot flag and save the boot configuration file.
C. Exit the CLI and choose ACLI at the interface manager prompt.
D. Use the abort command and enter 'no' at the default interface.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 6005-1
Exam Name: Avaya Communication Server 1000 Implementation Exam
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Exam Code: 3102.1
Exam Name: Avaya Aura® Session Manager and System Manager Implementation and Maintenance Exam
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Exam Code: 6203.1
Exam Name: Avaya Voice Portal Implementation Exam
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NO.1 From the VPMS web interface, which menu path should be followed, to view the current status of all
MPP servers and get detailed information about any alarms they have generated?
A. System Configuration > System Monitor
B. System Configuration > MPP Management
C. Real-Time Monitoring > Monitor System
D. Teal-Time Monitoring > System Monitor
Answer: A

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NO.2 Why is the "Hot word" Barge-in mechanism used?
A. to stop the application from playing prompt as soon as the utterance is caught on that prompt
B. to stop the application from playing prompt as soon as the utterance matches a key word defined in the
grammar
C. to stop the application from playing prompt as soon as the utterance matches a key word defined in the
grammar and the decision is defined
D. to stop the application from playing prompt as soon as the utterance matches a key word defined in the
prompt
Answer: C

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NO.3 In addition to the Project Overview, Standard service hours, Call Center Telephony Review, Call Center
Reporting Review, which other service is included in the Statement of Word (SOW) component of a
project?
A. Call Center Development Services
B. Call Center Programming Services
C. Call Center Leadership Services
D. Call Center Consultant Services
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which statement about Auxiliary VPMS is true?
A. Only one Auxiliary VPMS server can be added per Voice Portal 5.1 or newer system.
B. More than one Auxiliary VPMS server can be added per Voice Portal 5.1 or newer system.
C. Auxiliary VPMS can be installed on a single server Voice Portal system.
D. Auxiliary VPMS can be installed co-resident with MPP server.
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is the last step to be completed before testing the initialization and configuration?
A. Start the MPPs.
C. Stop the MPPS.
C. Start Applications.
D. Stop Applications.
Answer: A

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NO.6 A customer is planning to deploy a Voice Portal solution, and wants to make sure they have considered
all aspects of their implementation design components. As a key component of the implementation, which
documents are included in the Document Review?
A. Deep Drive Results, Equipment List, Customer List, and SOW
B. Customer Scenario, Equipment List, SOW and Deep Dive Results
C. Customer Scenario, Hardware List, Deep Dive Results and SOW
D. Customer List, Hardware List, SOW and the Equipment List
Answer: B

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NO.7 A technician cannot see the VPMS web interface. What is the first thing that should be done?
A. Restart all MPPs that are connected to the VPMS.
B. Reload the VPMS software.
C. Make sure that Axis is running.
D. Make sure that Tomcat is running.
Answer: D

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NO.8 A customer has just upgraded Voice Portal to a newer version, but the license is not upgraded. What is
the grace period provided by the system, for upgrading the license?
A. 3 days
B. 7 days
C. 15 days
D. 30 days
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 3200
Exam Name: Avaya Modular Messaging with Avaya Message Store Implementation and Maintenance Exam
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Exam Code: 3304
Exam Name: Avaya Call Center Elite Implementation and Maintenance Exam
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Exam Code: 3100.1
Exam Name: Avaya Aura Communication Manager Administration Exam
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NO.1 Which three statements are true about the Enhanced List Application (ELA) lists that can be
used? (Choose three.)
A. The administrator has to setup up an ELA shadow mailbox before users can send ELA
messages.
B. An ELA mailbox is like any other mailbox, allowing such operations as recording a name and a
greeting for the list, and allowing Call Answer messages to be distributed through ELA.
C. Administrators can restrict ELA lists so that users can't reply to messages they receive from the
list.
D. A Modular Messaging Message Storage Server (MSS) system supports a maximum of 250
ELA list and each ELA list can have a maximum of 250 members.
E. ELA members must be local subscribers and cannot be arbitrary e-mail addresses.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.2 A customer had a catastrophic failure, and has just finished reloading a system. They would
like to restore all their data horn an ftp/sftp backup. Which statement described the first Step to
restoring their data in this manner?
A. Stop the voice system processing.
B. Install the latest service pack and patches.
C. Administer the TCP/IP settings
D. Reboot the Messaging Storage Server (MSS).
Answer: A

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NO.3 A customer is migrating from Modular Messaging 3.0 on a S3400 server to Modular Messaging
5.2. Which two pieces of information must be obtained to successfully complete this migration?
(Choose two.)
A. the PBX translations
B. the original planning forms for the system that runs on release 3.0
C. the latest analyzed DCT file for the system
D. the private Messaging Application Server (MAS) and Messaging Storage Server (MSS)
NetBIOS name
Answer: B,C

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NO.4 A technician is installing a service pack on a system that uses an Avaya Message Storage Server
(MSS) in a private Windows domain.
To ensure that the updates for the MSS are successfully Installed, on the Messaging Application
Server (MAS), which account should the installer log in as?
A. Corporate Domain User
B. Exchange Administrator
C. Domain Administrator
D. Local Administrator
Answer: D

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NO.5 A system can be set up to run on either S8730, S8800, or HP DL360 G7 hardware that is
configured to just SIP integration.
Which two statements are true about the number of voice channels that an individual Messaging
Application Server (MAS) can support? (Choose two.)
A. In a Single Server configuration, the MAS can support a maximum of 48 voice channels.
B. An individual MAS server can support up 120 voice channels.
C. An individual MAS server can support up to 96 voice channels.
D. An individual MAS server can allow as many possible connections as the bandwidth to the
allows
Answer: A,C

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NO.6 A customer is reporting a delay in receiving messages with their system. They have a 2
Messaging Application Server (MAS) and a Message Storage Server (MSS). The user did not
have any messages when leaving for the day. The next morning the message waiting indicator
was on, and the message was from a client that called the day before.
Which reports should be reviewed to troubleshoot this Issue?
A. Under Programs>Avaya Modular Messaging>Reporting Tools run the System Usage and U
Mailbox statistics reports.
B. Review the Administration History under Logs on the Message Store.
C. Review the Subscriber Activity log under Logs on the Message Store.
D. Review the Server Event log under Logs on the Message Store.
Answer: C

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NO.7 An installer is implementing a Modular Messaging Single Server configuration.
Which kind of file can the installer use to pre-populate data such as networking information in the
pre-installation web pages?
A. DCT
B. EPW
C. MSI
D. OVF
Answer: B

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NO.8 A technician wants to determine if Messaging is running and also the state of Internet
Messaging and Enhanced List Application Software.
On a Modular Messaging Message Storage Server (MM MSS), in which location of the Web
Administration pages can this information be found?
A. Reports -> System Evaluation
B. Server Information -> Server Status
C. Utilities -> Messaging DB Audits
D. Logs -> Messaging Start-Up
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 132-S-708-1
Exam Name: Specialist: Avaya Voice Self-Service Design Elective Exam
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Exam Code: 3107
Exam Name: Avaya Session Border Controller Enterprise Implementation and Maintenance Exam
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Exam Code: 6102.1
Exam Name: Avaya Virtual Services Platform 9000 Implementation Exam
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NO.1 Which two application servers are supported by Avaya Dialog Designer? (Choose
two.)
A.Microsoft IIS
B.Apache Tomcat
C.IBM WebSphere
D.Oracle J2EE Web Server
Answer:B C

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NO.2 Which two hardware components are required for Avaya Voice Portal using Voice
over IP? (Choose
two.)
A.NMS boards
B.Dialogic boards
C.Intel/AMD server
D.Communication Manager
Answer:C D

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NO.3 A current Avaya Interactive Response (IR) customer is aware that the industry is
moving to web-based
self-service architectures. In addition to the benefits of moving to advanced technologies,
which two
business elements should be considered? (Choose two.)
A.need to replace the speech servers
B.capital investments in current equipment
C.time needed to convert any existing TAS applications to VoiceXML
D.inability to use VoIP until Avaya Voice Portal has been implemented
Answer:B C

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NO.4 Which two represent native capabilities of Avaya Dialog Designer? (Choose two.)
A.Speaker Verification
B.Application Simulation
C.TAS Application Development
D.VoiceXML Application Development
Answer:B D

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NO.5 A thriving mail order business has a busy contact center that takes orders from existing
and new
customers. This business has chosen to implement an Avaya Voice Self-Service solution to
process
routine orders to reduce the staffing costs. What are three benefits that this company can
expect to derive
from implementing an Avaya Voice Self-Service solution? (Choose three.)
A.Agents can focus on complex customer issues.
B.Solution provides an effective 1-way voicemail solution.
C.Answers to common questions are available at any time.
D.Callers are connected directly to the agent of their choice.
E.Callers can be directed to routine information without agent assistance.
Answer:A C E

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NO.6 A company has decided to enter the ISV business and create custom Voice Self-
Service applications for
Avaya platforms. They want to learn a single tool set and would like to be in this business for
the
foreseeable future. Which skill set should they develop to be compatible with current and
future Voice
Self-Service applications?
A.IVR Designer and VoiceXML
B.Dialog Designer and VoiceXML
C.Voice@Work and ScriptBuilder
D.IVR Designer and Transaction Assembly Script
Answer:B

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NO.7 A thriving mail order business has a busy contact center that takes orders from
existing and new
customers. To reduce staffing costs, this company has chosen to implement an Avaya Voice
Self-Service
solution to process routine orders. They would like to implement a solution for placing calls to
customers
when the status of their order changes (processed, shipped, cancelled). They want the calls
to provide
the same information as if the customer had come in and requested it from the Avaya Voice
Self-Service
solution. Which speech elements would be required to implement this solution?
A.Voice over IP (VoIP)
B.Text-to-Speech (TTS)
C.Speech Application Builder (SAB)
D.Open Speech Dialog Modules (OSDM)
Answer:B

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NO.8 A thriving mail order business has a busy contact center that takes orders from existing
and new
customers. To process routine orders and reduce staffing costs, they have chosen to
implement an Avaya
Voice Self-Service solution. They want a sophisticated seamless solution for routing calls to
agents. They
want callers to be identified, serviced (provide routine information), and routed to an agent
with minimal
input from the caller. Which two speech elements would be required to implement this
solution? (Choose
two.)
A.Voice over IP (VoIP)
B.Text-to-Speech (TTS)
C.Speech Recognition (SR)
D.Speech Application Builder (SAB)
Answer:B C

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Exam Code: 7003-1
Exam Name: Avaya Communication Server 1000 for Avaya Aura Implementation Exam
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
7003-1 Actual Test Total Q&A: 65 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-05-27

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Exam Code: 6007
Exam Name: Avaya Agile Communication Environment(TM) Implementation Exam
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
6007 Real Dumps Total Q&A: 58 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-05-27

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Exam Code: 132-S-815
Exam Name: Specialist Modular Messaging with Avaya Message Store Implement and Support Elective Exam
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
132-S-815 Exam Questions Total Q&A: 118 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-05-27

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NO.1 .In an R3.1 Modular Messaging Message Storage Server (MM MSS), in what location can a user
determine if Messaging is running and also the state of Internet Messaging and Enhanced List
Application Software?
A. Server Information > Server Status
B. Reports > System Evaluation Reports
C. This information is available from several screens.
D. System Control and System Status > System Monitor
Answer: A

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NO.2 To conduct a multiple Avaya Message Application Server (MAS) installation, where in the Voice
Mail Domain must the Avaya Mailbox Monitor and the Message Waiting Indicator (MWI) services
be activated?
A. in the first MAS
B. in different MASs
C. on the same MAS
D. in at least two MASs
Answer: C

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NO.3 .What specific documentation is needed for an installer to correctly integrate a Message
Networking Server with a PBX? (Choose two.)
A. completed Modular Messaging planning form
B. completed Message Networking planning form
C. Avaya Communication Manager Networking Guide
D. Switch Connections Supported for Message Networking
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 .Which three are manual steps required to upgrade from Modular Messaging pre-3.0 to Modular
Messaging 3.x when the solution uses the Avaya Message Storage Server (MSS)? (Choose
three.)
A. using the backup verification tool to ensure the quality of the backup
B. running the Data Collection Tool (DCT) on a Message Application Server (MAS)
C. performing a backup of the MSS while the MSS is providing messaging services
D. performing a backup of the MSS while the MSS messaging services have been stopped
E. performing a backup of the Message Application Server (MAS) onto the MAS's DVD drive.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.5 .In what task will the Avaya Messaging Application Server (MAS) Port Monitor be useful?
A. verifying that the MAS is able to communicate over IP ports to the MSS
B. determining the digits dialed by an outbound call from the MAS's telephony port
C. verifying that a test call arrives on a telephony port of the MAS that you want to test
D. determining whether communication originating from the MAS's IP port employs encryption
Answer: C

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NO.6 .Which two actions should be performed to upgrade a customer's system from Modular Messaging
Release R3.0 to R3.1, using the existing servers for the Message Storage erver (MSS) and the
Message Application Server (MASs). (Choose two.)
A. Uninstall and re-installRealSpeak software on the MASs
B. Upgrade Dialogic drives if Dialogic port boards are in the MAS
C. Install MAS boot image (4 DVDs) to upgrade to Microsoft Windows 2003 Server
D. Install the Pre-upgrade and Backup Verification tool to check the health of the Release 3.0
system
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 .Which action must be taken on an Message Storage Server (MSS) to implement additional
administrator logins?
A. Buy additional administrator seats from Avaya.
B. Create custom roles to assign to the administrator logins.
C. Set up an Authentication, Authorization and Accounting (AAA) server to authenticate the
administrator logins.
D. Configure the administrator account to authenticate locally or via an Authentication,
Authorization and Accounting (AAA) server.
Answer: D

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NO.8 .Which three are manual steps required to upgrade Message Networking from Release 2.0 to
Release 3.1? (Choose three.)
A. Perform an attended system backup.
B. Run the pre-upgrade tool to help plan for the upgrade.
C. Remove the switch integration software from the MN 2.0 system.
D. Use the backup verification tool to ensure the quality of the backup.
E. Insert the MN 3.1 DVD and run Software Update on the 2.0 system.
Answer: A,B,D

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Exam Code: 132-S-815.1
Exam Name: Avaya (Specialist Modular Messaging with Avaya Message Store Implement and Support Elective Exam)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 118 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-04-20

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NO.1 Before beginning to configure and test the port boards in the Avaya Messaging Application Server
(MAS), a user must first obtain the proper configuration note for the particular PBX and integration. Where
can the proper configuration note be found?
A.Help screens
B.Installation Guide
C.MAS documentation CD
D.http:\\support.avaya.com
Answer:D

Avaya   132-S-815.1   132-S-815.1

NO.2 Which is used to find port statistics in a Modular Messaging (MM) system?
A.Reporting Tool
B.Port Monitor Tool
C.Subscriber Options
D.Operational History Viewer
Answer:A

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NO.3 The customer has an existing Modular Messaging (MM) system with a Message Storage System
(MSS), which was installed with MM release 1.1. They are upgrading to MM 3.0 and adding an Avaya
Messaging Application Server (MAS) to provide more port capacity. The customer wants to retain their
existing MAS. They have T1 Dialogic boards. They currently have Aria and Audix TUIs implemented for
their subscribers. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A.They must upgrade all dialogic boards.
B.They must upgrade all MASs to S3500 servers.
C.They must consider impact of TUIs on port capacity.
D.The new MAS will have only two slots for port boards.
Answer:C D

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NO.4 Which three are manual steps required to upgrade Message Networking from Release 2.0 to Release
3.1? (Choose three.)
A.Perform an attended system backup.
B.Run the pre-upgrade tool to help plan for the upgrade.
C.Remove the switch integration software from the MN 2.0 system.
D.Use the backup verification tool to ensure the quality of the backup.
E.Insert the MN 3.1 DVD and run Software Update on the 2.0 system.
Answer:A B D

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NO.5 To conduct a multiple Avaya Message Application Server (MAS) installation, where in the Voice Mail
Domain must the Avaya Mailbox Monitor and the Message Waiting Indicator (MWI) services be activated?
A.in the first MAS
B.in different MASs
C.on the same MAS
D.in at least two MASs
Answer:C

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NO.6 Which IP address is acceptable for use on the private network for an installation of Modular Messaging
R3.x with the Avaya Message Storage Server (MSS)?
A.10.255.255.255
B.168.192.1.250
C.172.31.1.245
D.183.81.168.1
Answer:C

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NO.7 Which three are manual steps required to upgrade from Modular Messaging pre-3.0 to Modular
Messaging 3.x when the solution uses the Avaya Message Storage Server (MSS)? (Choose three.)
A.using the backup verification tool to ensure the quality of the backup
B.running the Data Collection Tool (DCT) on a Message Application Server (MAS)
C.performing a backup of the MSS while the MSS is providing messaging services
D.performing a backup of the MSS while the MSS messaging services have been stopped
E.performing a backup of the Message Application Server (MAS) onto the MAS's DVD drive
Answer:A B D

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NO.8 Which two statements are true about anti-virus software on Modular Messaging with a Message
Storage Server (MSS)? (Choose two.)
A.The MSS already has its own anti-virus software.
B.Anti-virus software should not be configured to perform scans each time a file is accessed.
C.Once anti-virus software has been installed the Modular Messaging system will update it automatically.
D.Avaya recommends that the customer install anti-virus software on each Avaya Messaging Application
Server (MAS) and any Supplementary Server.
Answer:B D

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NO.9 In an R3.1 Modular Messaging Message Storage Server (MM MSS), in what location can a user
determine if Messaging is running and also the state of Internet Messaging and Enhanced List Application
Software?
A.Server Information > Server Status
B.Reports > System Evaluation Reports
C.This information is available from several screens.
D.System Control and System Status > System Monitor
Answer:A

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NO.10 Which statement is true about installing a Modular Messaging with the Message Storage Server (MSS)
into the Corporate Windows Domain?
A.The only step required is to select "Join the Corporate Windows Domain" in the Data Collection Tool
(DCT).
B.The MSS TCP/IP networking form must be configured with the appropriate Corporate Windows Domain
values.
C."Join the Corporate Windows Domain" must be selected in the Data Collection Tool (DCT) and on the
Message Storage Server Windows Domain Setup administration form.
D."Join the Corporate Windows Domain" is done manually on the MAS after the configuration wizard is
run, and then done manually on the MSS using the Windows Domain Setup form.
Answer:C

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NO.11 Before requesting a license for a newly installed Modular Messaging system, which information is
required from the on-site installer?
A.Voice Mail Domain Name
B.Voice Mail Domain Identifier (aka VMD ID or Host ID)
C.IP addresses of all servers in the Voice Mail Domain
D.Local Administration Account names and passwords for all Messaging Application Servers (MASs)
Answer:B

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NO.12 Which action must be taken on an Message Storage Server (MSS) to implement additional
administrator logins?
A.Buy additional administrator seats from Avaya.
B.Create custom roles to assign to the administrator logins.
C.Set up an Authentication, Authorization and Accounting (AAA) server to authenticate the administrator
logins.
D.Configure the administrator account to authenticate locally or via an Authentication, Authorization and
Accounting (AAA) server.
Answer:D

Avaya   132-S-815.1   132-S-815.1

NO.13 According to Avaya documentation, which step must be taken to connect the cables supplied with a
digital set emulation board to the PBX?
A.Connect the board using the provided RJ-48C (Ethernet) cable.
B.Connect the installed boards to one end of a standard RJ-11 tip/ring cable.
C.Connect the board using the provided PBX station interface D/82JCT-U cable.
D.Connect the male end of the provided CT bus cable to the top of each port board.
Answer:C

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NO.14 Which three line cards are used with Modular Messaging? (Choose three.)
A.H.323
B.Analog
C.DLC-16
D.T1/E1-QSIG
E.Set Emulation
Answer:B D E

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NO.15 What specific documentation is needed for an installer to correctly integrate a Message Networking
Server with a PBX? (Choose two.)
A.completed Modular Messaging planning form
B.completed Message Networking planning form
C.Avaya Communication Manager Networking Guide
D.Switch Connections Supported for Message Networking
Answer:B D

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NO.16 Which two options are presented after starting the Data Collection Tool (DCT)? (Choose two.)
A.create a new file
B.analyze existing system
C.deploy new configuration
D.delete current configuration
Answer:A B

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NO.17 Which two actions should be performed to upgrade a customer's system from Modular Messaging
Release R3.0 to R3.1, using the existing servers for the Message Storage Server (MSS) and the
Message Application Server (MASs). (Choose two.)
A.Uninstall and re-install RealSpeak software on the MASs
B.Upgrade Dialogic drives if Dialogic port boards are in the MAS
C.Install MAS boot image (4 DVDs) to upgrade to Microsoft Windows 2003 Server
D.Install the Pre-upgrade and Backup Verification tool to check the health of the Release 3.0 system
Answer:A B

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NO.18 Before going to a customer site to begin installing a Modular Messaging R3.1 system, which three items
should be obtained from support.avaya.com? (Choose three.)
A.Configuration Notes
B.System planning form
C.Outlook Client software
D.Customer account information
E.Supplementary Server software
Answer:A B C

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NO.19 Which two statements about domain names are true for Modular Messaging? (Choose two.)
A.All domain names must be unique.
B.The Voice Mail Domain (VMD) is identical to the Windows Domain Name.
C.The Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) and Voice Mail Domain (VMD) names must be
alphanumeric.
D.The private Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) for the Message Application Server (MAS) is used
only on the private network.
Answer:A D

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NO.20 In what task will the Avaya Messaging Application Server (MAS) Port Monitor be useful?
A.verifying that the MAS is able to communicate over IP ports to the MSS
B.determining the digits dialed by an outbound call from the MAS's telephony port
C.verifying that a test call arrives on a telephony port of the MAS that you want to test
D.determining whether communication originating from the MAS's IP port employs encryption
Answer:C

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Exam Code: 133-S-713.4
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Proactive Contact Solutions Implementation Exam (beta))
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Total Q&A: 237 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-04-20

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NO.1 Which two commands are used to configure the cti_passwd.cfg file for an Avaya Proactive Contact with
CTI with Agent Blending? (Choose two.)
A.cti_passwd
B.cti_passwd
C.cti_passwd -b
D.cti_passwd
Answer:C D

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NO.2 The local CA certificate for Avaya Proactive Contact 4.X agent is stored in which location?
A.password file
B.Microsoft Certificate Store
C.registry
D.My Documents
Answer:B

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NO.3 Which Avaya software is used to provide consolidated reporting with Avaya Proactive Contact 4.X and
other Avaya communication solutions?
A.CMS
B.WebLM
C.Avaya IQ
D.Analyst
Answer:C

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NO.4 Which parameter in master.cfg is required to ensure correct agent capacity on a Proactive Contact
system?
A.PORTS
B.LINEASSIGN
C.QUOTA
D.MAXHIDSLOTS
Answer:D

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NO.5 To track information being sent between the agent interface and the Avaya Proactive Contact 4.X
server, which file should be accessed on the client side to verify what is happening?
A.Moagent32.log
B.Moagent32.dll
C.PCagent32.log
D..log
Answer:A

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NO.6 Which Proactive Contact component allows clients residing off the dialer to obtain events and real-time
data from the dialer?
A.Event Service
B.STATSPUMP
C.Historical Data Service Component (HDSC)
D.Dialer Command and Control Service (DCCS)
Answer:A

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NO.7 How does Proactive Contact move digitized messages from the CPU to the Large Port Voice Card
(LPVC)?
A.Remote Copy (RCP)
B.Network File System (NFS)
C.File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
D.Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
Answer:B

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NO.8 Which Proactive Contact 4.X hardware component in a hard dialer setup performs dialing functions
and call progress analysis, plays messages, and bridges agents to called parties?
A.UPS
B.CPU
C.digital switch
D.access server
Answer:C

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NO.9 Which parameter heading is correct to use in the opmon.cfg file for Avaya Proactive Contact with CTI?
A.DIALBACK
B.DIALIN
C.SOFTDIAL
D.DEDHEAD
Answer:C

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NO.10 Where are greetings, such as the pre-recorded messages an agent hears when they log in or the
messages played to a customer during a virtual job, stored in a Proactive Contact with CTI solution?
A.Avaya CM
B.AES Server
C.Proactive Contact CPU
D.Proactive Contact Digital Switch
Answer:A

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NO.11 A supervisor reports that the data in Internet Monitor is only updating every two minutes. The
supervisor requests the update time be changed to every 30 seconds. Which configuration field in
master.cfg must be changed?
A.IMONDISPLAY
B.SURFREFRESH
C.IMONREFRESH
D.AUTORELPOLLTIME
Answer:C

Avaya exam   133-S-713.4 dumps   133-S-713.4 test answers   133-S-713.4

NO.12 Which voicemsg.cfg setup is correct to use on an Avaya Proactive Contact with CTI?
A.23:pf_msg1:41031:Female:Outbound:Voice:pf_msg1
B.14:41039:mwait1:Male:Outbound:Voice:mwait1
C.41017:19:infwait3:Female:Inbound:Voice:41017
D.189:virt1m:Male:Virtual:Voice:41026
Answer:A

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NO.13 Which Avaya software is used to communicate between Communication Manager and Avaya
Proactive Contact with CTI?
A.Avaya CT
B.AES
C.CMS
D.MAPD
Answer:B

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NO.14 You are configuring a Proactive Contact 4.X solution for your customer. They do not use the same result
codes that the dialer uses. They use a short four-character description. Which Supervisor function should
you use to ensure that your customer's host will understand the Avaya completion codes?
A.translate
B.merge
C.fill
D.format
Answer:A

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NO.15 Under which two sections in Editor do you set up Record Specific Messaging? (Choose two.)
A.Contact Management
B.Messages and Scripts
C.Jobs
D.Calling Lists
Answer:B D

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NO.16 You are working with a third-party to integrate a call recording utility with Proactive Contact. The
technician for the third-party is not able to see events from Proactive Contact. Which command would you
type on the Proactive Contact command line to see all statistics from Event Services?
A.enclient -S $NS
B.enclient -A
C.enserver -a
D.enserver -S $NS
Answer:A

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NO.17 Which Avaya CM circuit pack is necessary if the customer expects to do predictive dialing on Proactive
Contact with CTI?
A.TN744 Call classifier
B.TN2602 Media interface
C.TN799 C-LAN
D.TN464 DS1 Interface
Answer:A

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NO.18 Given the following command: icall %12 %13 1 16144691010 Which function in swit is performed by
this command?
A.It tests incoming channel 12 by placing a call to 16144691010 using outpulse rule 13.
B.It provides a monitoring channel 12 to listen to channel 13 for a call placed to 16144691010.
C.It places an outbound ISDN call through channel 13 to 16144691010 using outpulse rule 12.
D.It places an outbound ISDN call through channel 12 to 16144691010 using outpulse rule 13.
Answer:D

Avaya   133-S-713.4   133-S-713.4   133-S-713.4 answers real questions

NO.19 Which configuration file on the CPU contains digital switch port addressing information?
A.locale.cfg
B.opmon.cfg
C.dgswitch.cfg
D.phonefmt.cfg
Answer:C

Avaya   133-S-713.4   133-S-713.4

NO.20 Where is the location of the local policy files on the Avaya Proactive Contact 4.X server?
A./opt/avaya/pds/config
B./opt/avaya/pds/openssl
C./opt/avaya/pds/etc
D./etc
Answer:B

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