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Exam Code: 199-01
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NO.1 The amount of memory required for Steelhead Mobile installation varies between 81 MB to
228 MB.What is the reasons for the variation?
A. Number of TCP connections
B. Types of application
C. Datastore size
D. Bandwidth
E. All of the above
Answer: C

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NO.2 Can you optimize FTP using Steelhead Mobile?
A. Yes, this is possible on all FTP modes
B. When using active FTP
C. When using passive FTP
D. It is not possible to optimize FTP traffic
E. Only when there is no firewall enabled
Answer: C

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NO.3 Why should you use promiscuous mode on each in-path virtual NIC for Virtual Steelhead
appliance? (Select 2)
A. For LAN/WAN Virtual NICs to intercept traffic not destined for the virtual machine
B. This configuration is mandatory for traffic optimization
C. Promiscuous mode is not required
D. Only verbose mode should be configured
E. Only regular mode should be configured
Answer: A,B

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6. What are the possible ways to downgrade a Virtual Steelhead appliance after it has been
upgraded?
A. Remove the upgrade license and restart the virtual Steelhead appliance
B. Reinstall the original model license
C. Reduce the amount of CPU and RAM allocated to the Virtual Steelhead appliance and it will
automatically downgrade at the next startup
D. It is not possible to downgrade after an upgrade
Answer: D

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7. What deployment type supports fail-to-wire?
A. Physical in-path
B. Virtual in-path
C. Out-of-path
D. Virtual Steelhead appliance
E. Proxy file server
Answer: A

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8. What information does the OVA package include about the Virtual Steelhead appliance?
(Select 4)
A. Virtual disks
B. CPU
C. Memory
D. License
E. Storage
Answer: A,B,C,E

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9. Which of the following features are available with the Virtual Steelhead appliance? (Select 2)
A. RSP
B. HSTCP
C. Fail-to-wire
D. PFS
E. Datastore synchronization
Answer: B,E

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10. What platform is supported by SMC-VE?
A. ESX 3.5
B. ESX 4.0
C. ESX 4.1
D. RSP
E. HyperV
Answer: D

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11. What happens to traffic when a Steelhead appliance reports admission control?
A. Traffic will be interrupted
B. The Steelhead stops the interception of new connections for optimization for as long as it is in
admission control
C. This is just a report and the Steelhead will continue to optimize traffic
D. The Steelhead will start optimizing faster any new connections
E. The Steelhead will shut down in less than a minute
Answer: B

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12. Where are SDR references maintained on a Steelhead appliance?
A. Persistent storage
B. USB keys
C. Flash storage
D. RSP partition
E. Configuration file
Answer: A

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13. When deploying a Virtual Steelhead appliance, how much extra memory should be allocated
for the extra VMware overhead?
A. 3%
B. 4%
C. 5%
D. 10%
E. 2%
Answer: C

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14. You can monitor your Steelhead appliance disk performance using which reports? (Select 2)
A. Data Store Cost
B. Data Store Performance
C. Disk Load
D. SDR Hit
E. Disk Pressure
F. Disk Alarm
Answer: A,C

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15. What of the following are true when deploying the Virtual Steelhead appliance? (Select 2)
A. Only use 10 Gbps link
B. Never reserve virtual CPU
C. Do not over provision physical RAM
D. Always use SSD drives
E. Do not share physical NICs
Answer: C,E

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NO.4 Which of the following are Steelhead Mobile Controller alarms? (Select 2)
A. Memory paging
B. Datastore errors
C. Peer version mismatch
D. SSL errors
E. File system full
Answer: A,E

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NO.5 When upgrading a Virtual Steelhead appliance, what steps can be taken to preserve the
existing datastore?
A. When upgrading a Virtual Steelhead appliance, it is not possible to preserve the existing
datastore
B. Detach the existing datastore and re-attach to the new Virtual Steelhead appliance
C. Run vMotion and move the datastore to a different ESX host before performing the upgrade and
then bring it back afterwards
D. Move the existing datastore to an NFS share and move it back after the upgrade
Answer: A

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NO.1 What are the benefits of Application Streamlining?
A. Applications run up to 100 times faster
B. Reduces application chattiness by 65-98%
C. Accelerates the most important applications, such as CIFS. MAPI, NFS. HTTP/S, and MS-SQL Lotus
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Answer: D

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NO.2 An employee who has just installed Steelhead Mobile onto her workstation notices that she never gets
any reduction. It always says 0%. The status of the mobile client appears to be:
Optimization Status : Firewalled
Controller Status : Connected
The reason she is seeing 0% reduction statistics is:
A. Location Awareness is in effect
B. The physical branch Steelhead appliance is her office is behind a firewall
C. The office firewall is stripping the IP options field
D. Her workstation is blocking TCP port 7801
E. The data center is currently firewalling all optimized connections
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which TCP option (probe) is used on the Steelhead Mobile client for auto-discovery?
A. 0x4c
B. 0xc4
C. 0xd4
D. Steelhead Mobile client must use fixed-target rules
Answer: A

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NO.4 What are basic components of the Interceptor appliance? (Select 3)
A. Load Balancing
B. Redirection
C. Peer Affinity
D. Optimization
E. Store SDR data
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.5 The key difference between the *Degraded* status and the *Critical* status is:
A. With degraded, only one alarm has been triggered, whereas with critical, two or more alarms were
triggered
B. With degraded, the Steelhead appliance is still optimizing traffic, whereas with critical the Steelhead
may or may not be optimizing
C. With degraded, there is no optimization due to a software problem, whereas with critical there is no
optimization due to a hardware problem
D. With both degraded and critical, optimization functions as normal however administrator attention is
required.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Steelhead appliance models vary according to which of the following attributes?
Number of concurrent TCP connections that can be optimized
Amount of disk storage available for Scalable Data Referencing
Level of encryption supported
Maximum possible in-path interfaces
A. 1, 2, and 3
B. 1, 2, and 4
C. 2,3, and 4
D. 1, 3. and 4
E. 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following status states of the Steelhead appliance are valid? (Select 3)
A. Degraded
B. Normal
C. Healthy
D. Critical
E. Failed
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.8 Assuming the Steelhead appliance has a 250 GB database capacity, by enabling PFS on a supported
Steelhead appliance which of the following would be true:
A. The database capacity will shrink due to the amount of space by PFS
B. The database capacity will grow due to the amount of space by PFS
C. The database capacity does not change
D. The database capacity will have to be reformatted
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 199-01
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Last Update: 2014-07-29

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NO.1 What are the key benefits of Scalable Data Referencing (SDR)? (Select 2)
A.Reduces data sent across the WAN
B.Reduces data sent across the LAN
C.Speed up data transfers across the WAN
D.Speed up data transfers across the LAN
E.Speed up all UDP connections across the WAN
Answer:AC

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NO.2 Of the following, which class priority is defined for the "default" QoS class?
A.Real-time
B.Interactive
C.Business Critical
D.Normal
E.Low Priority
Answer:D

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NO.3 Which of the following would most likely represent the best class for classifying VoIP traffic?
A.Real-time
B.Interactive
C.Business Critical
D.Normal
E.Low Priority
Answer:A

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NO.4 Under what circumstances will the NetFlow cache entries flush (transmitted to the collector)?
(Select 3)
A.When inactive flows have remained for 15 seconds
B.When inactive flows have remained for 30 minutes
C.When active flows have remained for 30 minutes
D.When the TCP URG bit is set
E.When the TCP FIN bit is set
Answer:ACE

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NO.5 What version of NetFlow does Riverbed RiOS support?
A.NetFlow v1
B.NetFlow v5
C.NetFlow v7
D.NetFlow v8
E.NetFlow v9
Answer:B

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NO.6 A customer would like to convert the Steelhead appliance into an ingress DiffServ node. Prior to that,
the router was playing this role and it has the following QoS policy:
policy-map riverbed
class voip
priority percent 10
!
class mission-critical
bandwidth percent 30
random-detect
!
class transactional
bandwidth percent 20
random-detect
!
class class-default
fair-queue
random-detect
!
Which of the following commands best defines the transactional class as well as classify all traffic from
the 192.16.16.0/24 subnet destined to the 192.17.17.0/24 port 3300 into the class? (Select 2)
A.qos classification class add class-name transactional priority business min-pct 20
B.qos classification class add class-name transactional priority low min-pct 20
C.qos classification class add class-name transactional priority interactive min-pct 30
D.qos classification rule add class-name transactional traffic-type optimized source subnet
192.16.16.0/24 port all destination subnet 192.17.17.0/24 port all rulenum 1
E.qos classification rule add class-name transactional traffic-type all source subnet 192.16.16.0/24 port all
destination subnet 192.17.17.0/24 port 3300 rulenum 3
Answer:AE

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NO.7 What does CIFS transparent prepopulation require in order to be configured? (Select 3)
A.Join Windows Domain
B.Remote Shared Path
C.Credentials
D.Schedule
E.Data Center Steelhead IP
Answer:BCD

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NO.8 What value (in hexadecimal) is added to the TCP option field by the client-side Steelhead appliance
during auto-discovery?
A.0x76
B.0xFC
C.0x4C
D.0xEC
Answer:C

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NO.1 Which mechanisms can cause Whitewater appliance replication to pause or effect the
optimization service? (Select 4)
A. Cloud provider outage.
B. Backup application crash.
C. WAN outage.
D. Whitewater bandwidth settings.
E. Incorrect cloud provider credentials.
Answer: A,C,D,E

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NO.2 Whitewater appliance peer replication is supported in which of the following modes? (Select 2)
A. Single active/single passive (cloud only).
B. Single active/single passive (secondary Whitewater appliance only).
C. Single active/dual passive (cloud and secondary Whitewater appliance).
D. Single active/dual active (cloud and secondary Whitewater appliance in high availability mode).
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 Granite technology has built-in file awareness for which file systems? (Select 2)
A. NTFS
B. VMDK
C. VMFS
D. FAT32
E. EXT3
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 Which three cloud providers are currently supported with Whitewater appliances? (Select 3)
A. IBM SmartCloud.
B. Microsoft Windows Azure.
C. Amazon Glacier.
D. Cloudian.
E. Rackspace.
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.5 A customer is looking to deploy Steelhead EX 1160-L's to 10 branches. Each branch is to have a
file server with 2TB of storage. What data set size does the Granite Core appliance need to be
capable of handling, assuming standard Granite Edge appliance blockstore sizing recommendations?
(Each 1160 has been configured with 275 GB/ 275 GB VSP/Blockstore setting)
A. 20 TB
B. 10 TB
C. 4 TB
D. 2.75 TB
E. 2 TB
Answer: D

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NO.6 An environment has 5TB of file server data and 5TB of database data backed up with a full
backup each week. Assume the average dedupe rates for Whitewater, and assume standard 1%
change and 10% annual growth rate. With a requirement to keep a minimum of two weeks
ofbackups locally on the Whitewater cache, which Whitewater appliances would satisfy the
requirements above? (Select 2)
A. Virtual Whitewater appliance 210.
B. Virtual Whitewater appliance 410.
C. Whitewater appliance 730.
D. Whitewater appliance 2030.
E. Whitewater appliance 3030.
Answer: D,E

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NO.7 What two components are required to form an iSCSI connection? (Select 2)
A. An iSCSI initiator.
B. An iSCSI source.
C. An iSCSI client.
D. An iSCSI server.
E. An iSCSI destination.
F. An iSCSI target.
Answer: A,F

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NO.8 What information is needed to configure a Granite Edge in the Granite Core?
A. Granite Edge Identifier.
B. IP address of the Granite Edge.
C. Primary IP address of the Granite Edge.
D. Granite Edge IQN (iSCSI Qualified Name).
E. In-path IP address of Granite Edge.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 299-01
Exam Name: Riverbed (Riverbed Certified Solutions Professional - Network Performance Management)
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Total Q&A: 245 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-31

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NO.1 What is a good way to know whether all internal IP addresses seen by the Cascade Profiler
have been grouped in a particular group type?
A. Run Automatic grouping for all group types.
B. Configure an Undefined group type with definition 0.0.0.0/0; confirm there are no entries when
you
'view members' of this 'Undefined' group'.
C. There is no way to do this and successfully capture all the IP addresses.
D. Configure an Undefined group type with definition 0.0.0.0/32.
E. Run a report by hosts and look for undefined groups.
Answer: B

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NO.2 How do Cascade Performance Analytics assist with Performance Monitoring?
A. By setting intelligent static thresholds for Application metrics and Interface metrics, tolerance can
be
determined. Cascade will use these thresholds and tolerances to report on deviations indicative of
performance problems.
B. The Customer only needs to identify their critical hosts, interfaces and/or applications, and
Cascade
will automatically baseline their behavior and report on deviations indicative of performance
problems.
C. The Performance Analytics use knowledge of hosts, interfaces, and/or applications are able to
detect
security threats such as host scans and worms.
D. After baselining is completed, Cascade can re-route congested traffic to avoid congested
application
delivery paths.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Cascade Profiler's Switch Integration feature uses SNMP and adds the capability for Cascade
to report on which of the following. (Select 2)
A. User name
B. Host IP address
C. Host MAC address
D. The physical switch port a specific host is connected to
E. Switch port traffic levels
F. Switch port status
G. SNMP traps from the switch
Answer: C,D

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NO.4 Cascade Profiler provides identity information collected from Active Directory 2008 by
installing and
correctly configuring the 'Cascade Connector' agent software on:
A. Every DNS server in the AD environment
B. Any server in the MS domain
C. Every client desktop in the AD environment
D. Every NTP server in the MS domain
E. The Microsoft Event Collector component in the AD environment
Answer: E

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NO.5 If a report table on Cascade Profiler includes the "Server Delay" column but shows no value
for
"Server Delay" in some cells, what are the possible causes? (Select 3)
A. The time span of the report does not cover any connection set-up points
B. Server delay is zero.
C. The protocol used by the application in not TCP-based.
D. Application traffic was not seen by a Cascade Sensor.
E. The server plug-in is needed to measure "Server Delay" and not functioning correctly.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.6 What is the relationship between a Host Group and a Host Group Type in Cascade Profiler?
A. A Host Group Type is a container that may contain multiple Host Groups.
B. A Host Group Type defines the name of the Host Group.
C. They are the same thing.
D. Each Host Group must be defined by the Type of application it serves; this is the Host Group
Type.
Answer: A

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NO.7 What are the two types of dashboards available within the Cascade Profiler GUI? (select 2)
A. Top Hosts
B. Top Applications
C. Public
D. Private
E. Devices and Interfaces Utilization
Answer: C,D

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NO.8 Within Cascade Pilot, to analyze the round-trip time in a trace file, you can:
A. Ask Riverbed Support to send you the proper View to use.
B. Open the View folders in Cascade Pilot to look for a View named "Round-trip time".
C. Use the View search box and enter "round".
D. Use the Help menu and search for round.
Answer: C

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NO.9 When changing the priority for a Layer 4 mapping on Cascade Profiler best practices indicate
that
Application Mappings should be given higher priorities based on:
A. Longest Match
B. Shortest Match
C. IP & Port
D. IP
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following statements is true regarding SNMP polling and NTP syncing among
Cascade components?
A. Cascade Gateway's poll via SNMP sources of Netflow, while Cascade Profiler, Cascade Gateway
and
Cascade Sensor sync NTP from a common source.
B. Cascade Profiler's poll via SNMP sources of Netflow, while Cascade Profiler, Cascade Gateway and
Cascade Sensor sync NTP from a common source.
C. Cascade Profiler, Cascade Gateway and Cascade Sensor sync NTP from different sources, while
Cascade Profiler's poll via SNMP sources of Netflow.
D. Cascade Profiler, Cascade Gateway and Cascade Sensor sync NTP from different sources, while
Cascade Gateway's poll via SNMP sources of Netflow.
E. Cascade Profiler does all SNMP polling and is also the source of all NTP.
Answer: D

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NO.11 For DNS reverse lookup, Cascade Profiler caches as follows:
A. Cache the most recent 500 IPs.
B. Obey DNS TTLs.
C. Cascade does not cache DNS responses.
D. For 24 hours.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Within the Cascade Pilot GUI, filtered items are often indicated:
A. With red text.
B. With yellow text.
C. With a funnel icon.
D. With a hash-mark icon.
Answer: C

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NO.13 If a VLAN SPAN (VLAN101) is configured and monitored by Cascade Shark, which of the
following is true? (Select 2)
A. Inter VLAN101 traffic will be monitored; Intra VLAN101 traffic will not.
B. Intra VLAN101 traffic will be monitored; Inter VLAN101 traffic will not.
C. Both inter and intra VLAN101 traffic will be monitored.
D. It is a best practice to configure the Cascade Shark monitoring port (the SPAN destination) with
'deduplication' enabled.
E. It is a best practice to configure the Cascade Shark monitoring port (the SPAN destination)
without
'deduplication' enabled.
Answer: C,D

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NO.14 When creating an analytic service, the discovery process requires a minimum of:
A. At least three days of data available.
B. At least three weeks of data available.
C. The application specialist available.
D. Some historical data and some starting point (a server, port, application).
E. A customer network diagram available.
Answer: D

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NO.15 When editing a previously configured service policy, what options become available if you
click the
'show advanced settings' checkbox? (Select 3)
A. Allows enabling/disabling the detection of dips in the metric.
B. Allows tuning of the tolerance range of the metric.
C. Allows setting of a noise floor for the metric.
D. Allows adjusting the notifications for the metric.
E. Allows enabling/disabling the detection of spikes in the metric.
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.16 What are two differences between NetFlow version 5 and NetFlow version 9 (select 2)
A. NetFlow version 5 generally support ingress flow export only; NetFlow version 9 supports both
ingress
and egress export.
B. NetFlow version 5 is used for Switches, NetFlow version 9 is used for Routers.
C. NetFlow version 9 includes information about CPU, Power-status and other router performance
characteristics; NetFlow version 5 does not.
D. NetFlow version 9 includes the ability to export the Time-To-Live (TTL); NetFlow version 5 does
not.
E. NetFlow version 9 includes the ability to export the packet latency, NetFlow version 5 does not.
Answer: A,D

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NO.17 Which of the following configuration changes can be used to reduce the number of alerts
generated overall for a Service?
A. Edit each Service policy to increase the Tolerance slider for Low and High alerts.
B. Edit each Service policy and set a noise floor to specify the minimum amount of change that the
policy
can treat as deviation from normalbehavior.
C. Edit the Service and select fewer metrics to monitor for each segment that comprises the Service.
D. Modify the location host group type used for monitoring end user traffic to use fewer groups (for
example, Region instead of Site).
E. A, B, C, and D.
F. A and B only.
Answer: E

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NO.18 If unable to connect to the Cascade Shark Appliance from the Cascade Pilot console it could
be
because. (Select 2)
A. The correct communication port(s) are NOT open on the firewall between Cascade Pilot and
Cascade
Shark.
B. The Cascade Shark is placed in "passthru" mode so Cascade Pilot access is not available
C. The Cascade Shark appliance has no capture jobs configured.
D. You may be running Cascade Pilot-Personal-Edition (PE). You need the full version of Cascade
Pilot to
connect to Cascade Shark.
E. Trend/Index data is disabled on the Cascade Shark Appliance.
Answer: A,D

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NO.19 Quality of Service information is obtained from what Cascade sources?
A. Cascade Sensor only
B. Cannot get QoS data on Cascade
C. Cascade Sensor and Cascade Gateway
D. CascadeFlow traffic only
E. NetFlow and IPFIX traffic only
Answer: C

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NO.20 Link Congestion policies apply to a specific interface and can: (Select 3)
A. Warn if either inbound or outbound traffic increases abnormally
B. Warn if an application component of traffic increases abnormally
C. Warn if traffic to/from specific hosts exceeds a specific utilization level
D. Warn if the response time across a link increases abnormally
Answer: A,B,C

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