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Exam Code: 920-316
Exam Name: SCCS/Express/TAPI/Web Client/Agent
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NO.1 An SECC contact center with 10 Supervisor clients logged in and using the real time
displays would be using how many of the 75 simultaneous real time sessions?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 40
Answer: D

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NO.2 Symposium Agent and TAPI can co-reside on the same server if the agent count does not
exceed which?
A. 500
B. 600
C. 750
D. 1200
Answer: A

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NO.3 Select three true statements of comparison of SECC 3.0 to SymposiumCallCenterServer
A. SECC connects to Option 11C Mini
B. Both provide host data exchange (HDX)
C. SECC has an automated scripting agent, SCCS does not
D. SECC is scaled to accommodate about 75% fewer trunks than SCCS
Answer: ACD

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NO.4 For Symposuim Agent (SA) to be fully operational in a Meridian1 or DMS environment,
what key component must be in place to monitor the client lines?
A. TAPI server must be installed to monitor the client lines
B. TAPI server must be installed to monitor the client lines but only if used to monitor or control
Multiple Appearance Directory Number (MADN) lines
C. There are no other requirements outside of Symposium Agent to monitor client lines.
D. There are no other requirements outside of Symposium Agent to monitor client lines.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Estimated wait time, position in queue, message option, massage recording and
announcements are all functionality of what type of port?
A. MIRAN port
B. CallPiLot ports
C. Meridian Mail ports
D. Voice Services Card ports
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which two are true for using graphical real-time displays with SECC 3.0?
A. The maximum number of GRTDs is ten
B. GRTD must run on a stand-alone PC
C. SECC 3.0 is backward compatible with all versions of GRTD
D. Each GRTD that runs on a client PC uses one of the Supervisor/Realtime sessiosn of the
SECC
Answer: AD

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NO.7 What Windows sub-components are used in the communication exchange between the
Symposium Agent server running IIS, and the agent desktop running internet Explorer?
A. DCOM and MTS
B. HTTP and DCOM
C. LDAP and MTS
D. ODBC and COM
Answer: B

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NO.8 Symposium Agent provides enterprises with the ability to add agents in groups and to
purchase licenses incrementally to meet the growth demands of the CTI
screen-pop-enabled agents. What license packages are available to configure?
A. 1, 10, 50, 100, 200, 500
B. 1, 5, 10, 25, 100, 250, 500
C. 1, 5, 10, 50, 100, 200, 300, 500
D. 1, 10, 25, 50, 75, 100, 300, 500
Answer: A

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NO.1 Select three true statements of comparison of SECC 3.0 to SymposiumCallCenterServer
A. SECC connects to Option 11C Mini
B. Both provide host data exchange (HDX)
C. SECC has an automated scripting agent, SCCS does not
D. SECC is scaled to accommodate about 75% fewer trunks than SCCS
Answer: ACD

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NO.2 What Windows sub-components are used in the communication exchange between the
Symposium Agent server running IIS, and the agent desktop running internet Explorer?
A. DCOM and MTS
B. HTTP and DCOM
C. LDAP and MTS
D. ODBC and COM
Answer: B

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NO.3 Symposium Agent and TAPI can co-reside on the same server if the agent count does not
exceed which?
A. 500
B. 600
C. 750
D. 1200
Answer: A

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NO.4 Symposium Agent provides enterprises with the ability to add agents in groups and to
purchase licenses incrementally to meet the growth demands of the CTI
screen-pop-enabled agents. What license packages are available to configure?
A. 1, 10, 50, 100, 200, 500
B. 1, 5, 10, 25, 100, 250, 500
C. 1, 5, 10, 50, 100, 200, 300, 500
D. 1, 10, 25, 50, 75, 100, 300, 500
Answer: A

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NO.5 For Symposuim Agent (SA) to be fully operational in a Meridian1 or DMS environment,
what key component must be in place to monitor the client lines?
A. TAPI server must be installed to monitor the client lines
B. TAPI server must be installed to monitor the client lines but only if used to monitor or control
Multiple Appearance Directory Number (MADN) lines
C. There are no other requirements outside of Symposium Agent to monitor client lines.
D. There are no other requirements outside of Symposium Agent to monitor client lines.
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is the recommended CPU specification for symposium Agent server in stand-alone
versus co-resident mode with TAPI for 100 agents, assuring Windows NT service pak5?
A. SA will only run on a Windows 2000 platform and so cannot be sized in this scenario
B. SA will support 100 active agents in either stand-alone or co-resident mode on a Pentium II
100 Mhz CPU clock speed
C. A Pentium II 400 Mhz CPU clock speed server can only support 100 Active Agents in a
stand-alone mode Symposium Agent server
D. SA will support 100 active agents in either stand alone or co-resident mode but requires a
Pentium III 600 Mhz CPU clock speed
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which two are true for using graphical real-time displays with SECC 3.0?
A. The maximum number of GRTDs is ten
B. GRTD must run on a stand-alone PC
C. SECC 3.0 is backward compatible with all versions of GRTD
D. Each GRTD that runs on a client PC uses one of the Supervisor/Realtime sessiosn of the
SECC
Answer: AD

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NO.8 An enterprise wants to add desktop functionality that is flexible and able to respond to the
different needs of callers based on the skill set the calls is routed into. This mid-sized
organization of 100 agents has the expectation to grow to 150 over the next two years, but
will only accept a low-cost solution. What contact center product provides this flexibility?
A. Symposium Agent with the ability to present the correct screen to the agent based on business
rules
B. Symposium Web Center Portal with the ability to present e-mail, chat, an/or collaboration
screens based on customer requirement
C. Symposium Agent Greeting with its ability, based on skill-set, to customize information for
call presentation
D. Symposium TAPI SP with the ability, based on skillset, to route caller information with the
call delivery at the phoneset
Answer: A

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Exam Name: NCSS-Contact Center Manager RIs6.0 I and M
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Exam Code: 920-340
Exam Name: Nortel Software Communication System 500 Rls.2.0 Config
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Exam Code: 922-111
Exam Name: Communication Server 1000 to Rls.6.0 Upgrades for Technicia
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NO.1 On which server does the Nortel Software Communication System 500 (SCS500) run?
A.Intel dual-core E4600 CPU
B.Standard 1 GB/s Ethernet server
C.System 5 default server platform
D.Dell Optiplex 755 server platform
Answer:D

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NO.2 Which gateway provides connectivity to the PSTN via digital interfaces (PRI/T1/E1 or BRI)?
A.AudioCodes MP-118 FXO
B.Nortel Analog VoIP gateway 4 port FXO
C.AudioCodes MP-114 FXS
D.AudioCodes Mediant 1000
Answer:D

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NO.3 In comparing the types of conferences available with the Software Communication System 500
(SCS500), which conference uses reserved ports?
A.Scheduled conference
B.Administrator conference
C.Meet Me conference
D.Instant conference
Answer:A

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NO.4 Click the Exhibit button. Which field do you change to adjust the number of dialpad keys the system
accepts before interpreting a user's request?
A.Inter-Dual Tone Multi-frequency (DTMF) Timeout
B.Maximum Number of DTMF tones
C.Replay Count
D.Overall DTMF Timeout
Answer:B

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NO.5 Which action is required to configure Hunt Group call scenarios for incoming received digits presented
to the Software Communication System 500 (SCS500) system?
A.Configure user aliases.
B.Enter the digits from the provider of the digital trunk as the hunt group number.
C.Determine the call sequence for Hunt Group user extensions.
D.Specify a Hunt Group Fallback Destination.
Answer:B

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Exam Name: Nortel Advanced Data Networking Technology
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Exam Code: 922-101
Exam Name: Communication Server 1000 Linux Platform Architecture
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NO.1 A customer is deploying a Communication Server 1000 Rls. 6.0 High Availability system and would like
to know what options for Signaling Server functionality exist.
Which options can the customer deploy? (Choose two.)
A. CPPM VxWorks-based Signaling Server
B. CPPM Linux-based Signaling Server
C. COTS VxWorks-based Signaling Server
D. COTS Linux-based Signaling Server
Answer: BD

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NO.2 You have installed the Linux Base onto a Commercial Off the Shelf (COTS) server that will be
configured as a Member Server. You are ready to perform the Security Configuration. All LAN connections
are in place and functioning normally.
After connecting through a browser, what is your next step to perform the Security Configuration of this
COTS Member server?
A. Enter the IP address of the Certificate Authority in the address bar of the browser.
B. Enter the IP address of the Primary Security server in the address bar of the browser.
C. Enter the FQDN of the COTS Member server in the address bar of the browser.
D. Enter the FQDN of the Primary Security server in the address bar of the browser.
Answer: C

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NO.3 A customer is deploying a Communication Server (CS) Rls. 6.0 system. They plan to have a Dell R300
COTS configured as the Primary Security Server and a CPPM configured as a Backup Security Server.
Which statements regarding the roles of the Primary and Backup Security Server are true? (Choose two.)
A. You must have a Backup Security Server for the CS 1000 network.
B. The Backup Security Server is automatically promoted to Primary Security Server.
C. The Primary Security Server cannot be demoted to a member server.
D. The Backup Security Server automatically handles authentication requests when the Primary is down.
Answer: CD

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NO.1 Fallback is a feature that allows a call to progress when a VoIP trunk is unavailable or is not providing
adequate quality of service (QoS). By enabling PSTN fallback, you allow the system to check the
availability of the VoIP trunks and then switch the call to a PSTN line. For the PSTN fallback to work on a
suitable bandwidth, which two statements must be true on a BCM 200 platform? (Choose two.)
A. The QoS Monitor must be enabled.
B. The jitter buffer must be configured.
C. The Transmit threshold must be set.
D. Proactive Voice Quality Monitoring (PVQM) must be enabled.
E. IP sets must be configured to use the G.723 Codec.
Answer:AC

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NO.2 A remote user has the ability to connect to an ISP and then to a specific route into a BCM that is
configured for IPSec
Remote User. The remote user can also print locally even while connected remotely to the BCM. Which
functionality does this describe?
A. split routing
B. dual routing
C. split tunneling
D. dual tunneling
Answer: C

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NO.3 A customer has several remote locations that they want to securely connect through the Internet. You
explain that using IPSec tunnels between these sites would provide this security; however, they are
concerned about it being able to
handle all of the remote locations. What is the maximum number of remote sites that can be connected to
a BCM50 using IPSec tunnels?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 14
D. 16
Answer:A

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NO.4 In planning a network configuration for a customer there are tools available to help you with your plan.
Which tool should you use to determine the specific requirements for the system design, including pricing
information?
A. BCM Monitor
B. AppManager
C. Startup Profile
D. Enterprise Configurator
Answer: D

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NO.5 A customer's new system will be configured with 55 IP telephones, an IVR system and a voicemail. This
system will also use over 30 analog and digital telephones. What should the DS30 split be for this
customer?
A. A 2/5 split
B. A 2/6 split
C. A 3/5 split
D. A 3/6 split
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which statement should be considered when you allocate DS30 channel Block resources using a 3/5
channel split configuration?
A. This configuration is achieved by assigning bus two to the voice data sector.
B. This configuration allocates three DS30 channel blocks to Media Bay Modules.
C. This configuration may be configured during system startup using the Startup Profile.
D. This configuration may be used to accommodate increased IP telephony or VoIP trunk requirements.
Answer: D

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NO.7 BCM supports a queue service discipline that allows packets to be serviced in an absolute priority
fashion or using a weighted-fair-queuing scheduler. This service discipline ensures that packets in the
highest priority queue are serviced quickly without starving the lower priority queues. How many quality of
service (QoS) queues does BCM Rls. 4.0 support?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 7
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which encryption method does a BCM system support when IPSec is configured on it?
A. PKI
B. RC4
C. AES
D. PPTP
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 922-103
Exam Name: Communication Server 1000 Rls. 6.0 and IP Networking Design
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Exam Code: 920-172
Exam Name: NCSS-Nortel Communication Control Toolkit Ris.6.0
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NO.1 A customer is expanding their operations to a second location.
They need to deploy a solution with support for 70 IP telephone usersthat can provide local survivability in
the event of a network failure.
In addition, they require support for 20 digital telephones.
Which two solutions should the customer consider? (Choose two.)
A. Media Gateway 10OOB
B. Survivable Media Gateway 1000E
C. Survivable Remote Gateway 1.5
D. Survivable Remote Gateway 503.0
Answer A B

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NO.2 Unified Communications Management (UCM) consists of three levels:
Network Level, System Level, and Element Base Level
At which level(s) can patching be controlled?
A. System Level only
B. Network Level only
C. Both System Level and Element Base Level
D. Both Network Level and Element Base Level
Answer D

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NO.3 A customer is opening two new branch offices and wants to use theirexisting Communication Server
(CS) 1000E RIs. 6.0 system. The mainsystem uses 22,150 IP telephones.
What is the maximum number of supported IP telephones that can beinstalled in the new branch offices
using Media Gateway 1000B thatwill remain survivable in the event of an IP connectivity loss tothe main
CS1000E or other Alternate Call Servers?
A 350
B 400
C 500
D 850
Answer A

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NO.4 Which statement most accurately describes the function of theTerminal Proxy Server (TPS) in a
Communication Server (CS) 1000E RIs.
6.0 system deployment for a typical single system network design?
A. The TPS provides web services access to the Call Server.
B. The TPS provides the function of virtual trunk allocation withouta physical presence in the hardware.
C. The TPS provides signaling between an IP telephone and the CallServer.
D. The TPS provides a direct media path between users in the CallServer domain and users In the SIP
domain
Answer C

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NO.5 A customer has IP Trunks configured between multiple sites. Astation user from one site attempts to
call a different site, butall trunks are busy What provisioning can be used to transparentlyprocess this
call?
A. The call will automatically process via PSTN with no additionalprovisioning.
B. The call will automatically process via the TIE lines with noadditional provisioning
C. Provisioning of the SIP Redirect Server will allow Fallback toPSTN.
D. Provisioning of the MCDN Alternate Routing feature will allowFallback to PSTN.
Answer D

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Exam Code: 920-804
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NO.1 A customer has Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS) and wants to create a Platform Recovery
Disk. Which CCMS utility should the customer use for creating a Platform Recovery Disk?
A. Migration utility
B. Database backup utility
C. Registry Maintenance utility
D. Server Setup Configuration utility
Answer: D

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NO.2 Your current configuration consists of Symposium Web Client Rls. 4.5 installed on a Windows 2000
server. Your target objective is to be using Contact Center Manager Administration (CCMA) on your new
Windows 2003 server. Which two interim steps are appropriate prior to upgrading to CCMA? (Choose
two.)
A. Utilize the Active Directory Application Mode (ADAM) Migration Tool MSI for data transfer.
B. Upgrade to CCMA, then migrate to the new server.
C. Install CCMA on the Windows 2003 server and migrate the data.
D. Upgrade to Windows 2003. Next, upgrade Symposium Web Client to CCMA.
E. Migrate to the Windows 2003 server with Symposium Web Client Rls. 4.5 then upgrade to CCMA.
Answer: AE

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NO.3 You have been asked to migrate a classic client environment to the Contact Center Manager
Administration (CCMA) environment. The classic client data must be migrated to the CCMA during the
upgrade process. Which data must be re-created, rather than migrated?
A. assignments
B. user defined reports
C. user defined schedules
D. custom real time displays
Answer: D

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NO.4 You have been asked to upgrade a Symposium Call Center Server (SCCS) Rls. 3.0 to Contact Center
Manager Server (CCMS). Which path is supported?
A. Migrate directly to CCMS.
B. Migrate to SCCS Rls. 4.2, then to CCMS.
C. Migrate to SCCS Rls. 5.0, then to CCMS.
D. Migrate to SCCS Rls. 4.0, to 5.0, then to CCMS.
Answer: B

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NO.5 When migrating Active Directory data, several factors will determine the length of time required to do it.
Which three factors are relevant? (Choose three.)
A. the speed of the network
B. the proximity of the servers
C. the speed of the computers
D. the amount of Symposium data to be migrated
E. the current release of Symposium Call Center Server
Answer: ACD

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Exam Name: Nortel (Communication Server 1000 Rls.5.0 System Admin and Mgmt)
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NO.1 A customer has a Communication Server (CS) 1000 Rls. 5.0 system. When adding a digital telephone
in LD 11, what four fields comprise the Terminal Number (TN) for this type of system?
A. CO - DID - FX - RAN
B. Loop - Shelf - Card - Unit
C. Power - Memory - CPU - UDATA
D. Tone - Transmitter - Detector - Card
Answer: B

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NO.2 A customer has a Communication Server (CS) 1000 Rls. 5.0 system deployed. If using the Command
Line Interface
(CLI) to communicate with the system, what command is used to log into the system?
A. LOGI
B. REQ
C. LOGO
D. START
Answer:A

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NO.3 A customer has a Communication Server (CS) 1000 Rls. 5.0 system and has requested the addition of
two new passwords for general service personnel. If communicating with the system using the Command
Line Interface (CLI), which Overlay (LD) would you use to add passwords, assuming you have the
appropriate access permissions?
A. LD 15
B. LD 17
C. LD 22
D. LD 117
Answer: B

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NO.4 A customer has deployed a Communication Server 1000E Rls. 5.0 system at their site. Element
Manager is not yet available. When using the Command Line Interface (CLI) to configure the system, you
encounter the following system message: OVL0000. What is the meaning of this system message?
A. A telephone is disabled.
B. There is a checksum failure.
C. A user has already logged into the system.
D. The requested program is not in the tape directory.
Answer: C

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level password must you use to change the default Level 2 password?
A. Level 1 Password (PW1)
B. Level 2 Password (PW2)
C. Level 3 Password (PW3)
D. Limited Access to Overlays Password (LAPW)
Answer: B

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NO.1 To ensure that customers are informed about Ethernet LAN ports, what information
should you provide the customer about Meridian1 system ELANs?
A. The Nortel Networks ELAN is used for system administration and must be directly connected
to a Customers LAN (CLAN).
B. The Nortel Networks ELAN is the Enhanced Local Area Network sued to perform system
backups across the network to a customer provided server.
C. The Nortel Networks ELAN is used for connection to other Nortel Networks applications and
must be protected from traffic on a Customers LAN (CLAN).
D. The Nortel Networks ELAN is always a closed private LAN, using a simple hub for
connecting the Meridian 1 system to Optivity Telephony Manager (OTM), CallPilot, or
Symposium.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Certkiller .com has reported that some local calls are NOT going through (the caller hears
no ringing, etc.). Which two tools can the technician use to determine which trunk is
responsible? (Choose two.)
A. Use LD 80, to trace the DN of the telephone with the problem call. While the problem is
occurring, the output will identify the TN of the trunk for further testing.
B. Use LD 36, to list threshold overflows for the local route. Look for trunks with excessive
short holds and conduct further testing on those trunks using the TRK command in Load 36.
C. Use LD 80, to initiate a Malicious Call Trace (MCT) on the DN reporting the problem for the
date and time indicated in the problem report. This will identify the TN of the trunk involved.
D. Use LD 40, Call Detail Recording Diagnostic, to trace call history for the DN of the user
reporting the problem. From the CDR records output, correlate the call record time with the time
of the users problem call. The matching CDR record will identify the TN of the trunk that should
be tested.
Answer: A B

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NO.3 The Human Resources department wants to have the HR help line?appear on everyone's
telephone (8 users) in the department. They want any available employee to answer "HR
help line" calls. In addition, they want to be able to receive as many simultaneous calls as
there are employees (8) in the department. What would you recommend to the customer?
A. An Automatic Call Distributor (ACD) queue must be setup in Load 32. The 8 employees are
then defined as agents of that ACD group.
B. A Uniform Call Distribution (UCD) list can be defined with the DN's of the 8 employees in
the Human Resources department.
C. A multiple Appearance, Single Call Arrangement DN (SCR or SCN) can be programmed as a
secondary DN on the 8 users digital or Internet Telephones. It allows as many calls to be in
progress as there are appearances of the DN.
D. A Multiple Appearance, Multiple Call Arrangement DN (MCR or MCN) can be programmed
as a secondary DN on the 8 users digital or Internet Telephones. It allows as many calls to be in
progress as there are appearances of the DN.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Certkiller .com wants to be reassured that their customer data is safe on their Option 11C,
or Option 11C mini. How is the customer database backed up on these systems?
A. Optivity Telephony Manager (OTM) is required to backup the Meridian 1 Option 11C or 11C
mini to Meridian 1 Option 11C Hard Disk Drive (HDD).
B. The system backup procedure automatically backs up the customer configuration over the
Ethernet link to a customer provided server at midnight (daily).
C. The Equipment Data Dump (EDD) backs up the latest configuration database, including
recent service changes, by copying from the system's main memory (RAM) to the primary flash
ROM, Backup Flash ROM, and PCMCIA card (if one is present).
D. The EDD procedure backs up the latest configuration database, including recent service
changes, by copying from the system's main memory (RAM) to the Hard Disk Drive, and the
Floppy Disk Drive (FDD), if equipped.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Certkiller .com's disaster recovery plan calls for off-site backup of its Meridian1 system
database, in case a disaster destroys the on-site copies of the system's configuration. How
would you fulfill this request for a Meridian1 Option 61C or 81C?
A. Optivity Telephony Manager (OTM) is the only way to crate an off-site backup for the
Meridian 1 Option 61C or 81C.
B. An auxiliary Floppy Disk Drive (Fdd) would need to be equipped on the Meridian 1 Option
61C or 81C to create the off-site backup.
C. Ensure that they have an extra blank PC Card (PCMCIA) blank memory card and that they
are properly trained to perform an Equipment Data Dump (EDD) on the blank card for off-site
storage.
D. Ensure that they have 2 MB (1.544 MB formatted capacity) blank floppy disks and that they
are properly trained to perform an EDD on the blank floppy disk for off-site storage.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Certkiller .com wants external calls at a particular station to forward to an administrative
assistant under busy or no answer conditions, but wants internal calls under busy or no
answer conditions to forward to voicemail. Which software feature should you use to meet
this request?
A. The Meridian Integrated Personal Call Director (MIPCD) application would be required to
route based on Caller ID
B. The feature Call Forward by Call Type (CFCT) routes calls receiving a no answer or busy to
separately defined dialing numbers (DNs) based on if the call is internal and external
C. The feature Call Forward by Call Type (CFCT) only routes calls receiving a no answer to
separately defined dialing numbers (DNs) based on if the call is internal and external, busy calls
always follow the hunt DN.
D. Call Forward by Call Type (CFCT) only routes call receiving a busy to separately defined
dialing numbers (DNs) based on if the call is internal and external, no answer calls always
follow the forward no answer (FNA) DN
Answer: B

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NO.7 A telephone needs to be restricted from access to the Paging (PAG) route. If the PAG route
Trunk Access Restriction Group (TARG) equals 1, 3, 5, 6, 7, What should be the Trunk
Group Access Restriction (TGAR) of that telephone?
A. 0
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which procedure should you use to effectively implement Ethernet interface (ELAN) on a
Meridian1 system?
A. Use LD 17, Create host entries, Assign host to primary and/or Primary IP address(es), Set up
Ethernet subnet mask, Set up routing entry.
B. Use LD 117, Create host entries, Assign host to primary and / or secondary IP address(es), Set
up Ethernet subnet mask, Set up routing entry.
C. Enable the ELAN interface in LD 117, Use ipconfig to ensure that the IP address(es), subnet
mask and gateway have been auto-configured by the DHCP server.
D. Enable the ELAN interface in LD 17, Use ipconfig to ensure that the secondary IP address(es)
subnet mask and gateway have been auto-configured by the Dynamic Host, Configuration
Protocol (DHCP) server.
Answer: B

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NO.9 The Customer Data Block (LD 15) is used define customer related timers when customizing
a Meridian1 system to customer requirements. Which timer is NOT defined in the
Customer Data Block (LD 15)?
A. switchhook flash timing
B. dial tone and Interdigit timeout
C. busy tone / overflow tone timeout
D. off hook alarm security timeout timer
Answer: D

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NO.10 On A Non Direct Inward Dial (DID) incoming trunk, which overlay (LD) should you use to
route calls to an Automatic Call Distribution (ACD) DN 6000?
A. LD 16 AUTO (Auto Terminate) YES ATDN (Auto terminate DN) to 6000
B. LD 16 AUTO (Auto Terminate) YES and LD 14 ATDN (Auto Terminate DN) to 6000
C. LD 16 AUTO (Auto Terminate) YES and 15 ATDN (Auto Terminate DN) to 6000
D. LD 16 IDC (Incoming Digit Conversion) 27 and LD 49 IDTG (Incoming Digit Termination
Group) to 6000
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 922-104
Exam Name: Nortel (Communication Server 1000 Rls.6.0 Upgrades for Engineers)
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Total Q&A: 30 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-28

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NO.1 A customer is upgrading a Communication Server (CS) 1000E Rls. 5.5 system to a Communication
Server (CS) 1000E Rls. 6.0 system in a geographically-distributed Survivable Media Gateway (SMG)
environment. They want to provide backup Terminal Proxy Server (TPS) services for users at the SMG
site in case of a WAN failure. Which component provides backup TPS services?
A.DSP Daughterboard
B.Local SMG Leader Signaling Server
C.Media Card 32-port (MC32)
D.Media Card 32-port S (MC32S)
Answer:B

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NO.2 A customer is migrating a Media Gateway (MG) 1000B Rls. 4.5 to a Communication Server (CS) 1000E
Rls. 6.0 Co-resident system. The current MG 1000B contains one Media Card. Which card(s) will
Enterprise Configurator (EC) provision to replace the SSC card?
A.CPPM Co-resident card and a MGC card
B.CPPM Co-resident card and a MGC card with 32-port daughterboard
C.CPPM Co-resident card and a MGC card with 96-port daughterboard
D.CPPM Co-resident card, a MGC card with 96-port daughterboard, and a 32-port daughterboard
Answer:D

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NO.3 A customer is upgrading an existing Communication Server (CS) 1000M with a CPPM Signaling Server
at Rls. 5.0 to a CS 1000M Rls. 6.0. What minimum modification must be made to the Signaling Server?
A.upgrade the Signaling Server software to Rls. 6.0
B.upgrade the Signaling Server memory to 2 GB
C.upgrade the memory to 2 GB and the Signaling Server software to Rls. 6.0
D.replace the CPPM Signaling Server with a new COTS Signaling Server
Answer:C

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NO.4 A customer recently upgraded to a Communication Server (CS) 1000E 6.0 HA with two CPPM Call
Server, seven CPPM Signaling Servers, five Geographically Redundant Survivable Media Gateways, and
6000 IP telephones. You decide to test the Triple Registration feature to ensure the system redundancy
feature works. Which registration flow for the Media Gateway Controller describes the Triple Redundancy
feature among the CS 1000 Rls. 6.0 hardware components?
A.Signaling Server> Primary Call Server> Alternate Call Server 1> Alternate Call Server 2.
B.Alternate Call Server 2> Alternate Call Server 1> Primary Call Server.
C.Primary Call Server> Alternate Call Server 1> Alternate Call Server 2.
D.Voice Gateway Media Card> Leader Signaling Server> Follower Signaling Server 1> Follower
Signaling Server 2.
Answer:C

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NO.5 You are designing a Survivable Media Gateway geographic redundant solution including a
Communication Server 1000E HA Rls. 6.0 system with CPPM Call Servers. The customer requires the
use of the maximum number of supported media gateways. How many survivable media gateways can
participate in automated database duplication?
A.28
B.30
C.48
D.49
Answer:C

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Exam Code: 920-183
Exam Name: Nortel (Callpilot RIS.5.0 System Administrator)
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Total Q&A: 56 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-18

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NO.1 After a user attempts to launch an Email-By-Phone session by pressing 8-9, the system responds by
stating that the message list is empty and returns the user to CallPilot messages. What is a possible
cause for this scenario?
A. The message list on the email server is empty.
B. The user has an incorrect user ID or password.
C. The Email-By-Phone feature is not enabled for this user.
D. The email address is entered incorrectly in the mailbox properties.
Answer: A

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NO.2 A customer wants to implement a User Privacy Option for all My CallPilot users. How can the
administrator let the users self-administer the privacy option?
A. In the Mailbox settings of Security Administration, deselect Name Dialing and Name Addressing.
B. In the Name Dialing settings of the Messaging Management page, deselect Name Dialing and Name
Addressing.
C. In the Privacy and Blocking settings of the User Creation Template, deselect Name Dialable by
External Callers.
D. In the Desktop and Web Messaging Configuration settings of the Mailbox Class Details page, select
Allow User to Hide Entry in Address Book.
Answer: D

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NO.3 The performance and capabilities for Remote Notification are important for both the system
administrator and the user. Which two statements about configuring Remote Notification are true?
(Choose two.)
A. The schedule is defined in the mailbox class.
B. It can be set up with telephone keypad commands.
C. It can be configured for up to three target Directory Numbers (DNs).
D. It allows only a specific number of retries before notification is turned off.
Answer: BD

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NO.4 CallPilot administrators can provide centralized control of desktop options. Which two are configurable
services for Desktop and Web Messaging? (Choose two.)
A. fax printing
B. desktop playback
C. address book location
D. creation of a revert directory number
Answer: BC

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NO.5 After installing CallPilot Desktop Messaging, an end user needs to retrieve the messages from the
CallPilot mailbox. Which protocol enables desktop messaging clients to retrieve messages from the
CallPilot server?
A. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)
B. Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)
C. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)
D. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
Answer: B

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NO.6 You are installing the Messaging Waiting Indication (MWI) icon for Desktop Messaging and My
CallPilot users. Which statement about the MWI icon feature is true?
A. You can install the MWI software by using only the desktop client installer.
B. You can install the MWI software by using only the standalone desktop player.
C. You can install the MWI software by using the desktop client installer or the standalone desktop player.
D. You cannot download the MWI software from My CallPilot. You must download from Desktop
Messaging.
Answer: C

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NO.7 CallPilot Desktop Messaging clients at a company are unable to send messages from the desktop
interface. Which messaging protocol must be configured to enable this capability?
A. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)
B. Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)
C. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)
D. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
Answer: A

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NO.8 You are implementing the Outlook Single Inbox feature at your company. The IT team asks you how
this feature affects the Exchange Server. Which information will you share to answer their question?
A. The original CallPilot message and all copies are transferred to the Exchange Server.
B. Synchronization between the Exchange Server and the CallPilot Server occurs even when CallPilot is
not running.
C. Copies of users' CallPilot messages are saved to the Exchange Server. The original messages reside
on the CallPilot server.
D. Desktop Messaging synchronization does not require that Microsoft Outlook be actively running on the
user's computer.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 920-344
Exam Name: Nortel (BCM50 Rls.3.0 and BCM200/400 Rls.4.0 Sales Engineering)
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Total Q&A: 62 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-18

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NO.1 A customer's new system will be configured with 55 IP telephones, an IVR system and a voicemail. This
system will also use over 30 analog and digital telephones. What should the DS30 split be for this
customer?
A. A 2/5 split
B. A 2/6 split
C. A 3/5 split
D. A 3/6 split
Answer: C

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NO.2 A customer has several remote locations that they want to securely connect through the Internet. You
explain that using IPSec tunnels between these sites would provide this security; however, they are
concerned about it being able to
handle all of the remote locations. What is the maximum number of remote sites that can be connected to
a BCM50 using IPSec tunnels?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 14
D. 16
Answer:A

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NO.3 A client has a BCM 400 that is performing all IPSec processing using software. They are concerned
about overloading the BCM 400 processor with IPSec traffic processing. What is the maximum number of
simultaneous tunnels?
A. 12 tunnels
B. 16 tunnels
C. 24 tunnels
D. 30 tunnels
Answer: B

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NO.4 BCM supports a queue service discipline that allows packets to be serviced in an absolute priority
fashion or using a weighted-fair-queuing scheduler. This service discipline ensures that packets in the
highest priority queue are serviced quickly without starving the lower priority queues. How many quality of
service (QoS) queues does BCM Rls. 4.0 support?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 7
Answer: D

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NO.5 Fallback is a feature that allows a call to progress when a VoIP trunk is unavailable or is not providing
adequate quality of service (QoS). By enabling PSTN fallback, you allow the system to check the
availability of the VoIP trunks and then switch the call to a PSTN line. For the PSTN fallback to work on a
suitable bandwidth, which two statements must be true on a BCM 200 platform? (Choose two.)
A. The QoS Monitor must be enabled.
B. The jitter buffer must be configured.
C. The Transmit threshold must be set.
D. Proactive Voice Quality Monitoring (PVQM) must be enabled.
E. IP sets must be configured to use the G.723 Codec.
Answer:AC

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NO.6 In planning a network configuration for a customer there are tools available to help you with your plan.
Which tool should you use to determine the specific requirements for the system design, including pricing
information?
A. BCM Monitor
B. AppManager
C. Startup Profile
D. Enterprise Configurator
Answer: D

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NO.7 A network administrator needs to calculate the maximum number of voicemail ports required on their
BCM 400
system. Which two factors should be considered when making this determination? (Choose two.)
A. The range is 0 to 16 ports.
B. The range is 0 to 32 ports.
C. Each voicemail port requires one media channel resource.
D. Each voicemail port requires two signaling channel resources.
Answer: BC

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NO.8 A remote user has the ability to connect to an ISP and then to a specific route into a BCM that is
configured for IPSec
Remote User. The remote user can also print locally even while connected remotely to the BCM. Which
functionality does this describe?
A. split routing
B. dual routing
C. split tunneling
D. dual tunneling
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which encryption method does a BCM system support when IPSec is configured on it?
A. PKI
B. RC4
C. AES
D. PPTP
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which statement should be considered when you allocate DS30 channel Block resources using a 3/5
channel split configuration?
A. This configuration is achieved by assigning bus two to the voice data sector.
B. This configuration allocates three DS30 channel blocks to Media Bay Modules.
C. This configuration may be configured during system startup using the Startup Profile.
D. This configuration may be used to accommodate increased IP telephony or VoIP trunk requirements.
Answer: D

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