2014年3月31日星期一

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Exam Code: ST0-148
Exam Name: Symantec (Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX Technical Assessment )
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 109 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-31

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NO.1 A Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) disk named Disk_4 has been removed from the datadg disk group.
Which command is used to remove this disk from Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) control?
A. vxdisk -g datadg rmdisk Disk_4
B. vxdiskunsetup Disk_4
C. vxdg -g datadg rmdisk Disk_4
D. vxdisksetup -r Disk_4
Answer: B

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NO.2 An administrator needs to move all data volumes and disks in diskgroup appdg into an existing
diskgroup named webdg. The end result will yield one diskgroup on the system: webdg. Which command
should the administrator use to move the data volumes?
A. vxdg move appdg webdg
B. vxdg split appdg webdg
C. vxdg join appdg webdg
D. vxdg add appdg webdg
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which two conditions are applicable to disks of a disk group that have been destroyed with the vxdg
destroy command without re-deploying the disks? (Select two.)
A. The destroy operation retains the on-disk disk group ID, which makes the disk group recoverable.
B. The destroy operation clears the on-disk disk group ID, which makes recovery impossible.
C. The destroy operation clears the on-disk disk group name and makes disks available for use in other
disk groups.
D. The destroy operation clears the on-disk disk group name and re-initializes all of the disks.
E. The destroy operation deports the disk group and re-formats all of the disks.
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 A system with a single, locally mounted file system loses power and is subsequently restarted. All
hardware is functioning properly and the intent log is valid. The administrator then mounts the file system
using the mount command. What is the expected behavior.?
A. Mount will replay the intent log.
B. Mount prints an error stating that a fsck log replay will be required.
C. Mount succeeds silently as normal.
D. Mount prints an error message stating that a full fsck will be required.
Answer: A

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NO.5 A user creates a 10MB file, which is then compressed using vxcompress to reduce the file size to 1MB.
Another user copies this file to a different Veritas File System (VxFS) on the same host using cp. What is
the resulting file size of the copy?
A. 1MB
B. 9MB
C. 10MB
D. 11MB
Answer: C

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NO.6 An administrator plans to move disks EMC_11 and EMC_12 from diskgroup appdg to diskgroup webdg.
There are several volumes residing on both disks, so the administrator needs a list of volumes that will be
affected for planning purposes. Which command should the administrator use to generate the list?
A. vxdg listclone appdg webdg
B. vxdg listmeta EMC_11 EMC_12
C. vxdg list appdg webdg
D. vxdg listmove appdg webdg EMC_11 EMC_12
Answer: D

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NO.7 The disk group appdg is imported onto host01 using the vxdg -t import appdg command. Volumes
have been started and file systems mounted. The system is then gracefully rebooted. What happens to
the appdg disk group after host01 has restarted?
A. The appdg disk group is automatically imported; all volumes in the disk group are automatically started.
B. The appdg disk group is automatically temporarily imported; all volumes in the disk group are
automatically started.
C. The appdg disk group remains deported; only host01 can import the disk group using the vxdg import
appdg command.
D. The appdg disk group remains deported; any host that can access the appdg disk group can import it.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which command line utility is used to view Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) plexes?
A. vxdisk
B. vxdg
C. vxplex
D. vxprint
Answer: D

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NO.9 What enables combining disks or LUNs into logical collections to make administration easier?
A. volume
B. plex
C. subdisk
D. disk group
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which command can an administrator use to display the bsize and logsize used on an existing file
system?
A. mkfs
B. fsadm
C. mount
D. fsmap
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which command resizes the file system without changing the volume size?
A. tunefs
B. vxresize
C. fsadm
D. vxfsadm
Answer: C

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NO.12 Veritas File System (VxFS) is an extent based file system. Which two pieces of information form the
basis of an extent? (Select two.)
A. inode number
B. offset
C. length
D. owner's UID
E. block size
Answer: B,C

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NO.13 Which virtual storage configuration can be created with Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX?
A. LVM
B. RAID
C. SVM
D. LPAR
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which region stores the information that manages virtual devices when a LUN is brought under Veritas
Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX control?
A. private region
B. VTOC region
C. virtual region
D. public region
Answer: A

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NO.15 What is the default private region size for Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) disks?
A. 8MB
B. 16MB
C. 32MB
D. 64MB
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 250-271
Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of Symantec NetBackup 7.5 for UNIX)
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Total Q&A: 108 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-31

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NO.1 An organization plans to upgrade its master server to Symantec NetBackup 7.5. A Symantec
NetBackup media server is being used to perform a backup of the catalog. Which Symantec NetBackup
version or versions are supported on the media server performing the catalog backup?
A. 6.5, 7.0, or 7.1
B. 7.5 only
C. 7.1 or 7.5 only
D. 7.0, 7.1, or 7.5
Answer: B

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NO.2 An organization is installing a Symantec NetBackup 7.5 master server and the license key is
unavailable during the installation process. What will be the result of the installation?
A. All features will be enabled for a 30-day evaluation period.
B. Only core functionality will be enabled.
C. Installation of the master server will fail.
D. Symantec NetBackup services will fail to start on the master server until a license key is installed.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which command is used to manually register a new media server with the database on the master
server?
A. nbemmcmd
B. nbdevconfig
C. bpminlicense
D. bpsetconfig
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which default Windows Open File Backup method is used during a backup for a newly installed
Symantec NetBackup 7.5 Windows 2003 client.?
A. VERITAS Snapshot Provider (VSP)
B. Microsoft Volume Shadow Copy Service (VSS)
C. snapshot provider configured in Global Client Attribute
D. Advanced Open File Option (AOFO)
Answer: C

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NO.5 A Symantec NetBackup administrator configures a policy to perform file system backups of multiple
client systems using the Allow multiple data streams feature. All other policy attributes are at default
settings. Which master server parameter must be configured to enable the backup jobs from a client to
run concurrently?
A. Target storage unit: Maximum concurrent jobs
B. Global Attributes: Maximum jobs per client
C. Global Attributes: Maximum backup copies
D. Target storage unit: Enable multiplexing
Answer: B

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NO.6 A Symantec NetBackup administrator configures a Standardpolicy type for synthetic backups. What is
required for a successful Synthetic Full if the client is offline?
A. successful traditional Full and Synthetic Incremental backup
B. bring the client online, successful traditional Full and Incremental backup
C. bring the client online, successful traditional Full and Synthetic Incremental backup
D. successful traditional Full and Incremental backup
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which types of information are backed up by a cumulative incremental backup schedule?
A. files and folders that have changed since the last differential incremental, cumulative incremental, or
full backup
B. files and folders that have changed since the last cumulative incremental or full backup
C. files and folders that have changed since the last full backup
D. files that have changed since the last incremental or full backup
Answer: C

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NO.8 A Symantec NetBackup 7.5 administrator needs to prevent all client systems from performing
user-directed restore operations, while maintaining the client administrator's ability to view the contents of
backup images. How should the administrator proceed?
A. add DISALLOW_CLIENT_RESTORE to the Symantec NetBackup configuration settings on the client
systems
B. select the Allow browse only parameter for the clients included in the Client Attributes of the master
server Host Properties
C. select the Allow client browse parameter in the Host Properties of the client system
D. deselect the Allow client restore parameter in the Host Properties of the master server system
Answer: D

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NO.9 An organization needs to automatically back up a server's data every other Sunday with a backup start
window from 7:00 PM to 10:00 PM. It is expected that manual backups will never be run. How can this
backup schedule be configured to ensure it runs every other Sunday at 7:00 PM?
A. Schedule type: Calendar Calendar Schedule: Recurring Week Days: 1st and 3rd Sunday
B. Schedule type: Calendar Calendar Schedule: Recurring Week Days: 2nd and 4th Sunday
C. Schedule type: Frequency, once per 2 weeks
D. Schedule type: Frequency, once per 13 days
Answer: D

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NO.10 A backup job failed. The backup administrator needs to collect log files for the services and daemons
that use Unified-style logging. Which step must be performed by the backup administrator before sending
the collected log files to Symantec technical support for analysis?
A. create log directories for the Symantec NetBackup services and daemons
B. set the Global logging level setting to a value of 5
C. run nbsu on the master server
D. run nbcplogs on the master server
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which script moves client software to a remote UNIX client from a UNIX master server?
A. ftp_to_client
B. install_client_files
C. client_config
D. send_client_files
E. update_client
Answer: B

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NO.12 A company expanded the Symantec NetBackup 7.5 environment by adding a new media server. What
is the fastest way to update several hundred Symantec NetBackup clients with the new media server
information?
A. run the update_all_clients script
B. run the add_media_server_on_clients script
C. run the install_bp script
D. run the install_client_files script
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which two tasks does the catalog backup perform? (Select two.)
A. ensures the catalog backup is created in a safe location
B. automatically assigns tapes to the CatalogBackup pool
C. appends to existing data on tape
D. backs up the catalog only when there are no client backups in progress
E. copies the NBDB to a staging area before backing it up
Answer: C,E

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NO.14 Four jobs enter the Symantec NetBackup 7.5 job queue simultaneously. All jobs require the same
resources and there are resources available to run only one job at a time. All master server Host
Properties are set to default values, as are the attributes of the policies associated with the jobs. Of the
four jobs, which job will run last?
A. Backup job
B. Restore job
C. Import job
D. Duplication job
Answer: A

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NO.15 The configuration parameters MIN_GB_SIZE_PER_DUPLICATION_JOB and
IMAGE_EXTENDED_RETRY_PERIOD_IN_HOURS are part of the configuration for which feature?
A. Catalog Replication
B. Disk Staging
C. Storage Lifecycle Policy
D. NetBackup Vault
Answer: C

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Exam Code: ST0-192
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Technical Foundations:Security Solutions 2.0 Technical Assessment)
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Total Q&A: 100 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-31

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NO.1 Which method does the MetaFisher bot use to extract data from a system?
A. HTTP
B. FTP
C. peer to peer
D. IRC
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which global trade is determined by the United States Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) to
be
smaller than the global market for illegally-obtained information, according to the Security Solutions
2.0
course.?
A. illegal drug trade
B. arms trafficking trade
C. human trafficking trade
D. money laundering trade
Answer: A

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NO.3 The security team of a major government agency discovers a breach involving employee data
that has
been leaked outside the agency. They discover that a software developer for the agency transferred
employee data from a secure primary system to a secondary system, for the purpose of software
development and testing. This secondary system was the target of a hacker.
Which type of breach source(s) is this?
A. cybercriminal only
B. malicious insider and cybercriminal
C. cybercriminal and well-meaning insider
D. well-meaning insider only
Answer: C

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NO.4 What are the three types of scans used to identify systems?
A. port, network, and vulnerability
B. protocol, hardware, and services
C. port, network, and protocol
D. hardware, network, and vulnerability
Answer: A

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NO.5 Why would a cybercriminal avoid using a trojan in a widespread attack?
A. trojans are easily caught by antivirus products
B. end-users are aware of clicking on non-trusted executables
C. trojans only infect one system at a time
D. execution of trojans are dependent on the operating system
Answer: C

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NO.6 An employee has become disgruntled with their employer, a payroll software manufacturer,
and one of
the employee's friends works for a competitor.
The employee copies some highly-confidential source code to a USB drive and gives the USB drive to
their friend after work.
Which source(s) of a breach are involved in this scenario?
A. malicious insider only
B. organized criminal only
C. malicious insider and organized criminal
D. well-meaning insider and malicious insider
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which group is the number one source of IT security attacks according to the Symantec
research
shared in the Security Solutions 2.0 course?
A. malicious outsiders
B. organized criminals
C. well-meaning insiders
D. malicious insiders
Answer: B

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NO.8 A cybercriminal wants to maintain future access to a compromised system.
Which tool would the cybercriminal use to accomplish this?
A. rootkit
B. keylogger
C. backdoor
D. trojan
Answer: C

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NO.1 Which is a Bean Provider's security-related responsibility?
A. assigns principals to roles in the application server
B. declares the role-link element in the deployment descriptor
C. declares the security-role element in the deployment descriptor
D. declares the security-role-ref element in the deployment descriptor
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which two are valid types for persistent fields in a CMP 2.0 entity bean? (Choose two.)
A. Java primitives
B. entity bean local interfaces
C. classes implementing java.io.Serializable
D. either java.util.Collection or java.util.Set
Answer: A C

SUN   310-090 practice test   310-090   310-090

NO.3 Click the Exhibit button.
All beans involved use container-managed transactions and all methods are marked as Required. At
runtime, methodB is unable to communicate with its resource and calls the setRollbackOnly method.
What is the result?
A. JMS message redelivery semantics will apply.
B. The rollback will propagate to the sender of the message.
C. The bean's onMessage method will reattempt the sequence.
D. Transactions started by the onMessage method will always commit.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which two APIs are provided to the Bean Provider by an EJB 2.0 container? (Choose two.)
A. JTA
B. JMX
C. JSP
D. JDO
E. JAXP
Answer: A E

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NO.5 Place the expertise on its associated EJB role.
Answer:

NO.6 Given:
Which two elements must be included in the <resource-ref> tag? (Choose two.)
A. <res-type>
B. <res-ref-name>
C. <resource-env-ref>
D. <environment-resource>
Answer: A B

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NO.7 Label the methods according to whether the container ensures that the identity of the associated
entity object is available or unavailable to the instance during the method.
Answer:

NO.8 Which statement is true about a session bean's lifecycle?
A. Session beans cannot receive re-entrant loopback calls.
B. A stateless session bean's home interface can have overloaded create methods.
C. Stateless session beans can implement javax.ejb.SessionSynchronization.
D. The EJB 2.0 container can make concurrent calls to any stateful session bean instance.
Answer: A

SUN   310-090 practice test   310-090   310-090   310-090

NO.9 Which two must a Bean Provider avoid in an enterprise bean to ensure that the bean is portable to
any compliant EJB 2.0 container? (Choose two.)
(Assume that all reference variables have been correctly and legally initialized.)
A. java.sql.Connection c = aDataSource.getConnection();
B. java.security.Principal p = context.getCallerPrincipal();
C. QueueSession q = aQueueConnection.createQueueSession(true, 0);
D. Object o = new Object();
Object o2 = o.getClass().getClassLoader();
E. java.io.FileInputStream fs = new java.io.FileInputStream("MyFile");
Answer: D E

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NO.10 Which is a capability guaranteed by all EJB 2.0 containers?
A. JTA support
B. server failover
C. load balancing
D. servlet support
E. server clustering
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The EJB container must not allow the same enterprise bean to be deployed multiple times.
B. The EJB container must allow IIOP invocations on remote component and home interfaces.
C. The EJB container is not required to support publishing home references in a CORBA CosNaming
service.
D. The EJB container must implement the resource manager connection factory classes for resource
managers configured with the container.
E. The EJB container must allow enterprise beans deployed in the same enterprise archive to access one
another directly without having to go through home or remote interfaces.
Answer: B D

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NO.12 Which two statements about a client's reference to a session bean's remote home interface are true?
(Choose two.)
A. The reference can be passed as a method argument.
B. The reference provides the client with the IP address of the bean instance.
C. The reference provides the client with access to at least one create method.
D. A new home reference must be obtained for each new reference to a remote component interface.
Answer: A C

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NO.13 Which two are required to properly implement a CMP entity bean class? (Choose two.)
A. Declare variables for all persistent fields.
B. Provide constructors to initialize the CMP fields.
C. Do not implement the ejbFind<METHOD> methods.
D. Provide implementation code for get and set methods to store and retrieve the persistent fields.
E. Implement ejbCreate<METHOD> methods for all home interface create<METHOD> methods.
Answer: C E

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NO.14 Given:
Which EJB role is responsible for supplying this information?
A. Deployer
B. Bean Provider
C. Container Provider
D. System Administrator
E. Application Assembler
Answer: E

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NO.15 What two statements are true about EJB 2.0 container crashes? (Choose two.)
A. Entities will survive.
B. An entity bean's primary key will survive.
C. Message-driven bean instances will survive.
D. Stateful session bean instances will survive.
E. Crashes are guaranteed to be transparent to clients using entity beans.
Answer: A B

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NO.16 Which two actions could adversely affect the portability of an EJB 2.0 bean? (Choose two.)
A. changing a thread's priority
B. directly reading or writing a file descriptor
C. using java.net.Socket to be a network client
D. demarcating a transaction in a stateless session bean
E. using bean-managed transactions in a message-driven bean
Answer: A B

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NO.17 Which method can be found in BOTH the EJBHome and EJBLocalHome interface?
A. getHomeHandle()
B. getEJBMetaData()
C. remove(Handle handle)
D. remove(Object primaryKey)
Answer: D

SUN   310-090   310-090

NO.18 Which two are guaranteed to a Bean Provider using an EJB 2.0 container? (Choose two.)
A. access to the JCE API
B. access to JavaMail API
C. access to the JXTA API
D. access to the JAXP API
Answer: B D

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NO.19 Which is a feature of EJB 2.0?
A. It provides synchronous message handling through message driven beans.
B. It provides support for both local and remote client views for session beans.
C. It provides support for both local and remote client views for message driven beans.
D. It guarantees that all services represented by an object will have conversational state.
Answer: B

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NO.20 Who must ensure that a bean's environment entries are set to meaningful values?
A. Deployer
B. Bean Provider
C. EJB Server Provider
D. System Administrator
E. Application Assembler
F. EJB Container Provider
Answer: A

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NO.21 Which method from javax.ejb.EJBContext returns an object that allows a Bean Provider to demarcate
transactions?
A. begin()
B. getAutoCommit()
C. getTransaction()
D. beginTransaction()
E. getUserTransaction()
Answer: E

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NO.22 What are two programming restrictions in the EJB 2.0 specification? (Choose two.)
A. An enterprise bean must not declare static fields as final .
B. An enterprise bean must not attempt to load a native library.
C. An enterprise bean must not attempt to create a new security manager.
D. An enterprise bean must not propagate a RuntimeException to the container.
E. An enterprise bean must not attempt to obtain a javax.naming.InitialContext .
Answer: B C

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NO.23 Which exception can be thrown by the findByPrimaryKey method of a remotely called entity bean using
container-managed persistence?
A. javax.ejb.EJBException
B. javax.ejb.DuplicateKeyException
C. javax.ejb.NoSuchEntityException
D. javax.ejb.ObjectNotFoundException
Answer: D

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NO.24 Which two must be in an ejb-jar file, either by inclusion or reference? (Choose two.)
A. an enterprise archive (.ear) file
B. a deployment descriptor in the format defined by the EJB 2.0 specification
C. the class files for the classes that implement the home and remote interfaces
D. the class files for the interfaces and superinterfaces used by the bean, except J2SE or J2EE interfaces
E. the class files for the stub classes of the EJBHome andEJBObject interfaces, if remote interfaces are
deployed for the bean
Answer: B D

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NO.25 Which two must a Bean Provider supply for each enterprise bean in the deployment descriptor?
(Choose two.)
A. security roles
B. the JNDI name of the enterprise bean
C. the enterprise bean type: session, entity, or message-driven
D. the value of the transaction attributes for the home and component interface methods
E. the fully-qualified name of the class that implements the enterprise bean's business methods
Answer: C E

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NO.26 Which transaction attribute may cause a javax.transaction.TransactionRequiredException to be
thrown?
A. Required
B. Supports
C. Mandatory
D. RequiresNew
Answer: C

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NO.27 Which accurately describes a characteristic of EJB 2.0?
A. EJB 2.0 is an example of a web-based component model.
B. EJB 2.0 components must be directly accessible via HTTP.
C. EJB 2.0 is an example of a component model for GUI applications.
D. EJB 2.0 applications can link to legacy systems using a J2EE connector.
Answer: D

SUN test questions   310-090 original questions   310-090

NO.28 Which feature is mandatory for an EJB 2.0 compliant container?
A. JMX support
B. JVM co-resident JSPs
C. deferred database writes
D. lazy loading of entity bean data
E. client principal caller propagation
Answer: E

SUN   310-090 practice test   310-090 original questions   310-090 practice test

NO.29 What is true about using java.net.Socket and java.net.ServerSocket within session bean business
methods?
A. Both classes can be used.
B. Neither class can be used.
C. Of the two classes, only java.net.Socket can be used.
D. Of the two classes, only java.net.ServerSocket can be used.
Answer: C

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NO.30 Which statement about EJB QL is true?
A. An EJB QL query must contain the ORDER BY clause.
B. An EJB QL query is statically defined in the ejb-jar.xml deployment descriptor.
C. Duplicate values are always removed from EJB QL query results by the container.
D. It is legal to use an input parameter in the FROM clause or the SELECT clause of an EJB QL query.
Answer: B

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2014年3月30日星期日

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NO.1 While observing the index statistics, you find that an index is highly fragmented, thereby resulting in
poor database performance. Which option would you use to reduce fragmentation without affecting the
users who are currently using the index?
A.Validate the index structure using the ANALYZE...INDEX command.
B.Rebuild the index using the ALTER INDEX..REBUILD ONLINE command.
C.Change the block space utilization parameters using the ALTER INDEX command.
D.Deallocate the unused space in the index using the ALTER INDEX..DEALLOCATE UNUSED command.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which two statements are true about Shared SQL Area and Private SQL Area? (Choose two.)
A.Shared SQL Area will be allocated in the shared pool.
B.Shared SQL Area will be allocated when a session starts.
C.Shared SQL Area will be allocated in the large pool always.
D.Private SQL Area will be allocated in the Program Global Area (PGA) always.
E.Shared SQL Area and Private SQL Area will be allocated in the PGA or large pool.
F.The number of Private SQL Area allocations is dependent on the OPEN_CURSORS parameter.
Answer: AF

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NO.3 You have set Tablespace Full Metrics Threshold values for the USERS tablespace as follows:
Warning (%): 90
Critical (%): 95
Which background process is responsible for issuing alerts when the threshold is crossed?
A.System monitor (SMON)
B.Process monitor (PMON)
C.Memory manager process (MMAN)
D.Manageability Monitor process (MMON)
Answer: D

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NO.4 Open the database.
Identify the correct sequence of steps?
A.1, 2, 4, 3, 5, 6
B.2, 4, 3, 5, 6; 1 not required
C.4, 5, 6, 2, 3; 1 not required
D.5, 2, 3, 4; 1 and 6 not required
Answer: A

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6. Note the following points describing various utilities in Oracle Database 11g:
1. It enables the high-speed transfer of data from one database to another.
2: It provides a complete solution for the backup, restoration, and recovery needs of the entire database.
3: It enables the loading of data from an external file into an Oracle database.
4: It provides a tape backup management for the Oracle ecosystem.
Which point describes Oracle Secure Backup?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
E.1, 2, and 4
F.1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which two statements about the background process of the database writer are true? (Choose two.)
A.It is possible to have multiple database writers in an Oracle instance.
B.It writes dirty buffers, if any, to data files whenever a checkpoint occurs.
C.It writes dirty buffers, if any, to data files whenever a transaction commits.
D.It writes dirty buffers, if any, to data files before the log writer (LGWR) writes.
Answer: AB

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NO.6 Note the functionalities of various background processes:
1. Perform recovery at instance startup.
2: Free the resources used by a user process when it fails.
3: Cleanup the database buffer cache when a process fails.
4: Dynamically register database services with listeners.
5: Monitor sessions for idle session timeout.
6: Cleanup unused temporary segments.
7: Record the checkpoint information in control file.
Which option has the correct functionalities listed for a background process?
A.Checkpoint (CKPT): 1, 2, 5
B.System Monitor (SMON): 1, 6
C.Process Monitor (PMON): 4, 6, 7
D.Database Writer (DBWR): 1, 3, 4
Answer: B

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NO.7 Note the following functionalities of various background processes:
1. Record the checkpoint information in data file headers.
2: Perform recovery at instance startup.
3: Cleanup unused temporary segments.
4: Free the resources used by a user process when it fails.
5: Dynamically register database services with listeners.
6: Monitor sessions for idle session timeout.
Which option has the correct functionalities listed for a background process?
A.Archiver Process (ARCn): 1, 2, 5
B.System Monitor Process (SMON): 1, 4, 5
C.Process Monitor Process (PMON): 4, 5, 6
D.Database Writer Process (DBWn): 1, 3, 4
Answer: C

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NO.8 Examine the following statement that is used to modify the constraint on the SALES table:
SQL> ALTER TABLE SALES MODIFY CONSTRAINT pk DISABLE VALIDATE;
Which three statements are true regarding the above command? (Choose three.)
A.The constraint remains valid.
B.The index on the constraint is dropped.
C.It allows the loading of data into the table using SQL *Loader.
D.New data conforms to the constraint, but existing data is not checked.
E.It allows the data manipulation on the table using INSERT/UPDATE/DELETE SQL statements.
Answer: ABC

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NO.9 Identify the memory component from which memory may be allocated for:
1. Session memory for the shared server
2: Buffers for I/O slaves
3: Oracle Database Recovery Manager (RMAN) backup and restore operations
A.Large Pool
B.Redo Log Buffer
C.Database Buffer Cache
D.Program Global Area (PGA)
Answer: A

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NO.10 You have issued a SHUTDOWN ABORT command to bring down your database instance. Consider
the steps that will be performed later when you open the database:
1. SGA is allocated.
2: Control file is read.
3: Redo log files are read.
4: Instance recovery is started.
5: Background processes are started.
6: Data files are checked for consistency.
7: Server parameter file or the initialization parameter file is read.
Which option has the correct order in which these steps occur?
A.7, 1, 5, 2, 3, 6, 4
B.1, 2, 3,7, 5, 6, 4
C.7, 1, 4, 5, 2, 3, 6
D.1, 7, 5, 4, 2, 3, 6
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which two statements are true about the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR)? (Choose two.)
A.All AWR tables belong to the SYSTEM schema.
B.The AWR contains systemwide tracing and logging information.
C.The snapshots collected by the AWR are accessible through data dictionary views.
D.The snapshots collected by the AWR are used by self-tuning components in the database.
Answer: CD

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NO.12 View the Exhibit and examine the privileges granted to the SL_REP user.
The EMP table is owned by the SCOTT user. The SL_REP user executes the following command:
SQL> GRANT SELECT ON scott.emp TO hr;
Which statement describes the outcome of the command?
A.The command executes successfully.
B.The command produces an error because the EMP table is owned by SCOTT.
C.The command produces an error because SL_REP has the GRANT ANY OBJECT PRIVILEGE without
ADMIN_OPTION.
D.The command produces an error because SL_REP does not have the SELECT privilege with
GRANT_OPTION on the EMP table.
Answer: A

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NO.13 Your test database is running in NOARCHIVELOG mode. Which statement is true regarding the type of
backups that can be performed on the database?
A.You can perform online whole database backups.
B.You can perform offline whole database backups.
C.You cannot perform schema-level export/import operations.
D.You can perform the backup of only the SYSTEM tablespace when the database is open.
Answer: B

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NO.14 View the Exhibit and identify the component marked with a question mark.
A.Checkpoint (CKPT)
B.Process Monitor (PMON)
C.Archiver Processes (ARCn)
D.Recoverer Process (RECO)
E.Memory Manager process (MMAN)
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which is the correct description of a pinned buffer in the database buffer cache?
A.The buffer is currently being accessed.
B.The buffer is empty and has not been used.
C.The contents of the buffer have changed and must be flushed to the disk by the DBWn process.
D.The buffer is a candidate for immediate aging out and its contents are synchronized with the block
contents on the disk.
Answer: A

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NO.16 View the Exhibit and examine the attributes of an undo tablespace.
In an OLTP system, the user SCOTT has started a query on a large table in the peak transactional hour
that performs bulk inserts. The query runs for more than 15 minutes and then SCOTT receives the
following error:
ORA-01555: snapshot too old
What could be the reason for this error?
A.The query is unable to get a read-consistent image.
B.There is not enough space in Flash Recovery Area.
C.There is not enough free space in the flashback archive.
D.The query is unable to place data blocks in undo tablespace
Answer: A

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NO.17 Observe the information in the columns:
1. The SGAa. Text and parsed forms of all SQL statements
2: The cursor stateb. Run-time memory values for the SQL statement, such as rows retrieved
3: User-session datac. Security and resource usage information
4: The stack spaced. Local variables for the process
Which option has the correct match between the memory areas and their contents?
A.1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a
B.1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a
C.1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d
D.1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c
Answer: C

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NO.18 You have executed this command to change the size of the database buffer cache:
SQL> ALTER SYSTEM SET DB_CACHE_SIZE=2516582;
System altered.
To verify the change in size, you executed this command:
SQL> SHOW PARAMETER DB_CACHE_SIZE
NAME TYPE VALUE
------------------- ----------- ------------------
db_cache_size big integer 4194304
Why is the value set to 4194304 and not to 2516582?
A.because 4194304 is the granule size
B.because 4194304 is the standard block size
C.because 4194304 is the largest nonstandard block size defined in the database
D.because 4194304 is the total size of data already available in the database buffer cache
Answer: A

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NO.19 These are points that describe the contents of different memory components:
1. Descriptive information or metadata about schema objects that are queried by using SQL statements
2: The run-time area for data manipulation language (DML) or data definition language (DDL) statements
3: Results of SQL queries and PL/SQL functions
4: Executable forms of SQL cursors, PL/SQL programs, and Java classes
5: The information necessary to reconstruct changes made to the database by a transaction
Which of these will be stored in the Shared Pool if the necessary configurations are done?
A.1 and 2
B.2 and 5
C.1, 3, and 4
D.3, 4, and 5
E.1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: C

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NO.20 The database instance is currently using SPFILE. View the Exhibit and examine the error that you
received while running the DB Structure Integrity check.
Given below are the steps to recover from the error in random order:
1. Shut down the instance, if not already done.
2: Copy one of the remaining control files to a new location.
3: Change the value of the CONTROL_FILES initialization parameter to correspond to the new location of
the control files.
4: Start up the database instance to the NOMOUNT stage.
5: Recover the database to the point of failure of the control file.

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NO.1 A company wants to implement a policy that employees should only use the CRM on Demand
application when they are in the company office. What is the best way to implement this policy in the
application?
A. Navigate to the Company Profile page and change the company Authentication Type to Single-Sign on
Only.
B. Monitor the Sign-In Audit to identify users that do not conform to the policy and Inactivate their user
credentials.
C. Use the Company Administration > Security Settings page to enter the specific IP address ranges for
the company network.
D. Change the sign-in page for user authentications to a page behind the company firewall.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Your company's Sales department is contemplating the use of a custom object to track information
related to a new record type called "Orders". As the system administrator, you're responsible for making
sure that the Sales department is aware of the limitations associated with the use of custom objects.
Select two application areas not compatible with custom objects.
A. Analytics
B. Forecasting
C. Books of Business
D. Assignment Manager
E. Web Services
Answer: A, C

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NO.3 You have been asked to set up the sales quota information for the Individual sales reps in your region
where is this information entered?
A. The Forecast Definition page
B. The Role Management wizard
C. The Territory Details page
D. The User Detail page
E. The Opportunity Page Layout page
Answer: D

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NO.4 As a Regional Sales Manager, you would like to create a list of all Accounts you access on a dally
basis. In the "Search In" drop-down list of the "New Account List" page, you select "All Records I own."
What records will be returned every time you run this list? Select the three correct answers.
A. All records you own
B. All records shared with you by the owner through the team feature
C. All records you or your subordinates own
D. All records where you or your subordinates are on the team
E. All records shared with you through the group assignment feature
Answer: A, B, E

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NO.5 Your company uses a custom list of Industries to classify your accounts, but the CRM Industry field type
is set to pick list (read only) on the Account Field Setup page. You need to have the custom Industry
names appear in the Industry field pick list on the Account detail page. As the Administrator, how do you
resolve this issue?
A. Add a new Industry field and assign it the Pick list type; then edit the pick list
B. Change the field type of the default Industry field to an editable pick list.
C. Change the display name of an unused field with an editable pick list
D. Go to Data Rules & Assignment and modify the Industry Definitions.
Answer: A

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NO.6 What is the first step in customizing a layout for the Account Lookup Window?
A. Navigate to the Account Search Layout1
B. Click the My Setup link
C. Navigate to the Layout Wizard for Related Lists
D. Navigate to the Page Layout Wizard
Answer: D

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NO.7 By default, how is progress toward sales quota targets tracked in CRM on Demand?
A. On the Pipeline Dashboard
B. On the User Profile page
C. On the Forecast Detail page
D. On the Opportunity Detail page
Answer: C

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NO.8 One of the Service Coordinators In your department is not receiving emails when new service requests
are assigned to her. The system administrator that built the service request assignment rules is on
vacation so you are helping troubleshoot this issue. What is the most likely cause of this issue?A. The
Email Notification workflow action is inactive.
B. The Service Request record in question is missing Information in key fields.
C. The workflow responsible for the assignment is inactive.
D. The email notifications are sent to the user's manager.
E. The Send Email Notification check box Is not selected for the assignment rule.
Answer: C

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NO.9 As a CRM administrator, you're evaluating different data sharing strategies to implement in your
organization. Your main driver is to allow record owners to select which users to give access to their data.
What piece of functionality best meets your requirement?
A. Group Sharing
B. Books of business
C. Workflows
D. Team Sharing
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which two statements are true about Workflow rules?
A. You can select only one record type, with up to three trigger events, for each Workflow rule.
B. You can select only one record type and one trigger event for each Workflow rule.
C. A Workflow rule must have a Condition so the appropriate records can be identified on which to
execute the actions.
D. Once you save a Workflow rule, you cannot change its record type, trigger event or condition.
E. Once you save a Workflow rule, you cannot change its record type or trigger event, but you can change
its condition.
Answer: B, E

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NO.11 An account manager needs to be able to have Read only access to the Opportunity records created by
the sales team, which are associated to his accounts. However, he reported that while he can see an
Opportunity related Information section on his Account Detail page, he sees an Access Denied error
instead of a list of Opportunity records. What is the likely problem?
A. The Has Access role setting Is not selected for Opportunity records.
B. The default Access Profile does not have at least Read/Edit access for Opportunity related information.
C. The Can Read All Records role setting Is not selected for Opportunity records.
D. The default Access Profile does not have Inherit Primary access for Opportunity related Information,
E. The Can Read All Records role setting is not selected for Account records.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Select the true statement regarding book structure.
A. Your book structure should closely reflect how your company organizes its data.
B. Your book structure should always reflect your company's corporate hierarchy.
C. Your book structure should reflect your company's geographical distribution.
D. Your book structure should reflect Financial Cost Centers for financial reporting.
Answer: B

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NO.13 You created an Account Assignment Rule and added users to the Team Assignment section on the Rule
Detail page. When the rule is triggered and an Account record is assigned, which two actions occur?
A. All users on the team are given the same access level as the assigned record owner to the Account,
and Its related Contact and Opportunity records.
B. All users on the team are also assigned to the territory specified in the Assign To Territory field for the
rule.
C. Unless you selected the Include Team Assignment check box for the rule, no users are assigned to the
team.
D. Only the users that meet the rule criteria are assigned to the team.
E. Each user on the team is given the specified access level to the Account, and its related Contact and
Opportunity records.
Answer: A,C

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NO.14 You have a requirement to set up an Expenses object. This object will be used often by marketing and
sales users and you need to create a set of lists to appear on their Expenses home pages. The marketing
users will want lists that search on an Expense Category pick list field and the sales users will want lists
that search on an Expense Date field. You decided you will use a Custom Object for the Expenses object.
What recommended best practice should you keep in mind when setting up the fields for the new
Expenses object?
A. Create a new Expense Date field with a Field Type of Date/Time so that your lists can query correctly
for different locales.
B. Select the Required check boxes at the field level for both the Expense Date and Expense Category
fields so all users have to fill in these values.
C. Rename Indexed fields to use for the Expense Date and Expense Category fields so your lists run
faster.
D. Deselect the Copy Enabled check box for the Expense Date and Expense Category fields so your lists
run faster.
Answer: D

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NO.15 Sales management wants sales representatives to only have access to a few of the prebuilt reports
available in the application. You have been asked to make this subset of reports available to the users
with the Sales Rep role. What is the best way to accomplish this?
A. Create a custom Reports Homepage layout and deselect the prebuilt reports that you do not want to
appear on the page. Then, edit the role to associate the new layout.
B. Create a custom Web applet for the Reports Homepage to provide links to only those prebuilt reports
that you want to expose for the role- Then, edit the role to give access to the Web applet,
C. Deselect the View Prebuilt Analyses privilege for the role. Open the prebuilt reports In Answers and
save them In a Company Wide Shared folder. Then, give folder access to the role.
D. Rename a Custom Object to Reports and add the appropriate prebuilt reports as child objects. Then,
remove access to the standard Reports tab for the role.
Answer: B

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NO.16 Once a forecast is set up, it typically does not need to be updated unless certain events take place
which two events may require an update of the forecast definition.?
A. Creating a new forecast report In Analytics
B. Creating a new access profile for a role including in the forecast
C. Deactivating employees with the roles Included In the forecast
D. Changing the expiration date of the forecast alert message
E. Changing the reporting structure
Answer: B, C

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NO.17 Bill Williams is a manager of a sales team His role has the Can Read All Records setting enabled for
Accounts. His role also gives him read only default access and Read/Edit owner access to accounts.
Jane Jones is a sales representative who reports to Bill Williams. Her role gives her Read only default
access and Read/Edit/Delete owner access to accounts. Jane owns the ACE Industries account record in
CRM on Demand. Manager Visibility is enabled.
Jane changes the owner on the ACE Industries account to Frank Ford, a sales representative who does
not report to Bill Williams, but to a sales manager on another team. What kind of access does Bill Williams
have to the ACE Industries Record?
A. Read-Only
B. Read/Edit/Delete
C. Read/Edit
D. Read/Create
E. No access
Answer: A

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NO.18 Sales managers want you to build a report that allows them to view revenue totals by product category
and industry for each sales representative and select different years to filter the data. Which of the report
views described below would best meet their needs?
A. pie chart view with Owner selected for the chart and fiscal year selected for the legend.
B. A pivot table view with Owner in the Sections section and Fiscal Year In the Pages section.
C. A table views with Fiscal Year In the first column position and a filter on the owner column
D. Pivot table view with Fiscal Year in the Sections section and Owner in the Pages section.
E. A vertical bar chart view with Owner on the vertical axis and Fiscal Year on the horizontal axis.
Answer: D

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NO.19 You have a requirement to set up an Expenses object- This object will be used often by marketing and
sales users and you need to create a set of lists to appear on their Expenses home pages. The marketing
users will want lists that search on an Expense Category pick list field and the sales users will want lists
that search on an Expense Date field. You decided you will use a Custom Object for the Expenses object.
What recommended best practice should you keep in mind when setting up the fields for the new
Expenses object?
A. Create a new Expense Date field with a Field Type of Date/Time so that your lists can query correctly
for different locales.
B. Select the Required check boxes at the field level for both the Expense Date and Expense Category
fields so all users have to fill in these values.
C. Rename indexed fields to use for the Expense Date and Expense Category fields so your lists run
faster.
D. Deselect the copy enabled check box for the expense date and expense category fields so your lists
run faster.
Answer: A

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NO.20 You're helping your VP Sales decide how often Sales Reps should submit their forecast. What are the
forecast frequency options in CRM on Demand?
A. Weekly
B. Bi-weekly
C. Monthly
D. Bi-monthly
E. Quarterly
Answer: C

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