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Exam Code: ST0-236
Exam Name: Altiris Client Management Suite 7.1 / 7.x Technical Assessment
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NO.1 Which agent plug-in must be distributed to deploy patches?
A. Inventory Rule Agent Plug-in
B. Software Management Framework Agent Plug-in
C. Patch Management Agent Plug-in
D. Software Update Agent Plug-in
Answer: D

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NO.2 An administrator sets up an inventory to run at 16:00 weekly on Wednesdays, with the setting
to throttle inventory reporting evenly over a period of 4 hours. All clients are refreshing their
configuration policies every 4 hours. The current time is 08:00 on Tuesday morning. When will the
inventory be collected?
A. Tuesday, within 4 hours of receiving the policy
B. Wednesday, between 14:00 and 18:00
C. Wednesday, at 16:00
D. Wednesday, between 16:00 and 20:00
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which protocol needs to be configured when using Real-Time System Manager to update a
user's password?
A. ASF
B. WMI
C. AMT
D. WS-MAN
Answer: B

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NO.4 What occurs after the Microsoft Vulnerability Analysis task detects vulnerabilities?
A. Patches are automatically created and run to fix the vulnerabilities.
B. Filters are automatically created and help target Software Update policies.
C. Inventory is received and updates are queued to run on a defined schedule.
D. Bulletins are applied to the managed computer.
Answer: B

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NO.5 A system administrator created a Software Portal entry that allows any user in the company to
install a specific program. For licensing purposes, the administrator needs to determine which
computers have the software. Which report can be used to track which computers have the software
in question?
A. the Audit Software Search report
B. the Add or Remove Program Search report
C. the Software Compliance Summary report
D. the Installed Software report
Answer: D

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NO.6 An administrator needs to create an image that can be used for a mass deployment in the
company. Which Deployment Solution task should be run before creating the image?
A. Run SIDGen to prepare the image for deployment
B. Run Prepare for Image Capture task before cloning
C. Run Capture Personality task before cloning
D. Run Deploy Sysprep task before cloning
Answer: B

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NO.7 A system administrator needs to change the domain to which a computer belongs. What must
the administrator create before creating a task to change a computer's domain?
A. a system configuration
B. an automation configuration
C. a Sysprep imaging configuration
D. an Apply System Configuration task
Answer: A

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NO.8 Microsoft released several critical and important updates and a system administrator needs to
determine which updates are applicable to the existing environment. Where can the administrator
access additional information about applicable software updates?
A. Microsoft Vulnerability Analysis
B. Patch Remediation Center
C. Software Updates Catalog
D. Software Update Management Center
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 250-513
Exam Name: Administration of Symantec Data Loss Prevention 12
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Last Update: 2014-09-29

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NO.1 A DLP administrator needs to decide if using Symantec Management Console (SMC) will
provide additional functionality over the built-in Agent Actions that can be performed via Agents >
Overview > Summary Reports.
What are two of the Agent Actions that can be performed with SMC that are unable to be used with
the built-in Agent Actions? (Select two.)
A. Set Under Investigation
B. Get Agent Configuration
C. Toggle Print Screen
D. Set Log Level
E. Gather Endpoint detection server logs
Answer: B,C

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NO.2 Which two operating systems are supported for Symantec Data Loss Prevention 12 servers?
(Select two.)
A. Windows 2003 Enterprise Edition 64-bit
B. Red Hat Linux 5 Enterprise 64-bit
C. Windows 2008 Server 32-bit
D. Red Hat Linux 6 Enterprise 64-bit
E. Windows 2008 R2 Enterprise Edition 64-bit
Answer: B,E

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NO.3 While encapsulating a disk, you discover that a volume is removed as a part of the existing
configuration. You want to restore the data on the disk as it was before removal of the disk. As the
first step, you recreate the volume using the vxdg make command.
What should you do next?
A. Replace the disk
B. Restore the plexes on the volume
C. Restore the data on the volume
D. Start the hot-relocation process
Answer: C

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NO.4 While working under Veritas Volume Manager, you want to put a disk under the Veritas
Volume Manager control. You execute the command vxdiskadd c0t1d0.
What is the result of this command?
A. The command puts first disk under VxVM control on the first controller.
B. The command initializes second disk on the first controller.
C. The command encapsulates the second disk on the first controller.
D. The command checks for the disks can be encapsulated.
Answer: B

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NO.5 An administrator is applying a newly created agent configuration to an Endpoint server. Upon
inspection, the new configuration is unassigned in the Endpoint Server Details.
What is a possible cause for the new configuration failing to be assigned?
A. the system default settings were saved to the new agent configuration
B. the server that the new agent configuration was applied to needs to be recycled
C. the new agent configuration was saved without applying it to the Endpoint server
D. the new agent configuration was copied and modified from the default agent configuration
Answer: C

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NO.6 An administrator is attempting to add a new detection server to the Enforce UI. However, the
administrator only has the ability to add Network Monitor and Endpoint servers. The option to add
a Discover server is missing. What does the administrator need to do to add an additional server
type?
A. log in as Sys Admin/Server Administrator role
B. update the software license file
C. restart the Vontu Monitor service
D. restart Vontu Monitor Controller service
Answer: B

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NO.7 What causes the majority of data loss prevention violations?
A. hackers exploit vulnerabilities and exfiltrate confidential data
B. companies lack security policies to prevent loss of confidential data
C. employees unintentionally expose confidential data
D. system backups are performed improperly
Answer: C

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NO.8 You need to create a traditional third-mirror breakoff snapshot in disk group "testdg" on a
volume named "testvol". You've used the vxassist command to start the creation of the snapshot,
synchronizing in the background.
How do you determine whether the snapshot is ready?
A. Use "vxprint -g testdg -ht testvol" to display the status of testvol, and check the STATE column of
the vxprint output; if the snapshot plex is ready, its state will be "ACTIVE".
B. Use "vxprint -g testdg -ht testvol" to display the status of testvol, and check the STATE column of
the vxprint output; if the snapshot plex is ready, its state will be "SNAPATT".
C. Use "vxprint -g testdg -ht testvol" to display the status of testvol, and check the STATE column of
the vxprint output; if the snapshot plex is ready, its state will be "SNAPDONE".
D. Use "vxprint -g testdg testvol" to display the status of testvol, and check the STATE column of the
vxprint output; if the snapshot plex is ready, its state will be "SNAPATT".
Answer: C

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Exam Name: Administration of Symantec Data Loss Prevention 12
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Exam Code: ST0-250
Exam Name: Symantec Messaging Gateway 10.5 Technical Assessment
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Exam Code: 250-405
Exam Name: Administration of Symantec Management Platform 7.5
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NO.1 Which Symantec Management Platform component initiates policy-based communication?
A. Notification Server
B. Symantec Management Agent
C. Configuration Management Database (CMDB)
D. Symantec Management Console
Answer: B

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NO.2 Refer to the Exhibit.
A target has been created with two rules: 1) 'exclude computers not in' filter Windows XP
Computers, and 2) 'include computers in' filter All Computers. There are 150 computers in the
Windows XP Computers filter. There are 200 computers in the All Computers filter. How many
computers will be in the target?
A. 50
B. 150
C. 200
D. 350
Answer: C

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NO.3 What defines the link between user and computer resources?
A. Resource Association
B. Resource Data Class
C. Resource Type
D. Resource Link
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which statement is true about the Default Shared Schedules shipping with Notification Server?
A. They cannot be deleted.
B. They cannot be modified.
C. They can override maintenance windows.
D. They cannot be disabled.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which Symantec Management Platform component processes data sent by the Altiris Agent
and stores it in the Configuration Management Database?
A. Symantec Management Console
B. Software Management Framework
C. Notification Server
D. Site Services
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which two tabs are used to modify security roles in the Symantec Management Console?
(Select two.)
A. Permissions
B. Privileges
C. Rights
D. Security
E. Membership
Answer: B,E

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NO.7 If installation of the Package Service on the Site Server is forgotten, what is the impact on a
new hierarchy implementation?
A. Replication performance is degraded.
B. Data replication stops.
C. Hierarchy installation is denied.
D. Hierarchy replication switches to HTTP .
Answer: C

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13. Which statement describes the relationship between Site Server and Notification Server?
A. Site Server assists Notification Server by providing packages and tasks to the Altiris Agent.
B. Site Server sends information, events, and data from the Inventory Rule Agent to Notification
Server.
C. Site Server assists Notification Server by running reports.
D. Site Server takes over all functions for Notification Server.
Answer: A

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14. Which two methods can an administrator use to create tasks? (Select two.)
A. clone an existing task
B. clone a task report
C. right-click a reports folder and select New -> Task
D. right-click a Jobs and Tasks Portal folder and select New -> Task
E. clone an existing patch
Answer: A,D

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15. Two administrators run the same report that displays Windows XP SP1 workstations
imported from Active Directory. The North America Symantec Administrator returns 2,500
workstations. The Marketing Manager returns 500 workstations. When they compare the results,
they find that there is an overlap of 100 workstations. Why is there an overlap in the reports?
A. Because the workstations belong to multiple organizational groups in same organizational view.
B. Because the workstations belong to organizational groups in separate organizational views
C. Because of workstation security privilege intersection
D. Because of workstation security role filters
Answer: B

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NO.8 What must an administrator do to edit a sample task?
A. Clone the sample task and edit the original task
B. Right-click and select the task's properties
C. Clone the source folder of the sample
D. Clone the sample task and edit the clone
Answer: D

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Exam Name: Symantec Data Loss Prevention 12 Technical Assessment
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NO.1 You have a system that has two disks-disk01 and disk02, which are mapped into the system
configuration during boot as disks c0t0d0s2 and c0t1d0s2, respectively. A failure has caused disk01
to become detached.What would you do to view the status of the failed disk01?
A. Use the vxdg list command
B. Use the vxdg -s list command
C. Use the vxprint command
D. Use the vxdisk list command
Answer: D

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NO.2 An information security officer has detected an unauthorized tool on desktops being used to
transmit data with encrypted communications.
Which Symantec Data Loss Prevention feature should the information security officer use to prevent
this tool from accessing confidential data?
A. removable storage monitoring
B. network protocol monitoring
C. application path filtering
D. application monitoring
Answer: D

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NO.3 You have a nonredundant concatenated volume named datavol in a disk group named datadg.
The volume has a file system on it. One of the underlying disks of the volume called datadg02 fails
temporarily due to a power failure. You fix the problem of the power failure, and ensure that the
disk is powered back again. You ensure that both the system and VxVM can see the disk again. Then,
you reattach the disk back to the disk media record.
Which command will you execute next to be able to run fsck on the file system?
A. vxvol -g datadg start datavol
B. vxrecover -s datavol
C. vxrecover -ns
D. vxvol -g datadg -f start datavol
Answer: D

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NO.4 You are managing a Storage Foundation 5.0 server that has Storage Foundation Management
Server (SFMS) software installed. You force a placement policy to a file system using the Storage
Foundation Management Server (SFMS).
What is the outcome when a policy is forced to a file system?
A. The current policies of the file system are overwritten by the SFMS policies.
B. The file system will retain its policies and discard the SFMS policies.
C. The file system will incorporate the changes of both the policies.
D. The file system will apply the SFMS policies only in the case where its own policies cannot be
assigned.
Answer: A

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NO.5 A DLP administrator needs to forward data loss incidents to the company's Security
Information and Event Management (SIEM) system.Which response rule action provides the
administrator with the ability to accomplish this task?
A. All: Send Email Notification
B. All: Log to a Syslog Server
C. All: Add Note
D. All: Set Attribute
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which valid automated response option should an administrator choose for Email Prevent?
A. modify the message subject or add specific RFC-2822 headers
B. add metadata to email headers of confidential email
C. modify the body of email messages containing confidential data
D. process confidential email re-routed to a specified email list
Answer: A

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NO.7 A system administrator has a large amount of data that is not being accessed on the
company's storage devices. This excess amount of data is causing slow access to the active data. You
want to set up automatic relocation of data so that data expires as per its defined age.
What should you do?
A. Use the Data Movement Service (DMS) to set the threshold for automatic relocation of data.
B. Use the Quality of Storage Service (QoSS) to set the threshold for automatic relocation of data.
C. Use the Virtual Data Aging Service (VDAS) to set the threshold automatic relocation of data.
D. Use the Intelligent Volume Service (IVS) to set the threshold for automatic relocation of data.
Answer: B

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NO.8 When you attempt to start the RAID-5 volume, you are prompted with an error message
"VxVM ERROR V-5-1-1237 Volume r5vol is not startable; some subdisks are unusable and the parity
is stale." You want to remove this error and start the RAID-5 volume.
How will you ensure that you do not encounter this error again?
A. Use a single RAID-5 log plex in RAID-5 volumes.
B. Change the subdisks.
C. Use two or more RAID-5 log plexes in RAID-5 volumes.
D. Reattach the subdisks.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 250-405
Exam Name: Administration of Symantec Management Platform 7.5
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Exam Code: ST0-202
Exam Name: Symantec Mobile Management Suite (CMS/ITMS) (March 2013) STS
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NO.1 Which type of content is impossible to include in and distribute through the SMM Mobile
Library?
A. PDF
B. Visio
C. spreadsheet
D. YouTube video link
Answer: B

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NO.2 It is possible to enable a user to enroll their device with an e-mail address rather than an
enrollment URL in both the Symantec Mobile Management for Configuration Manager 2007 and
Symantec Mobile Management for SMP products. What step is necessary to enable a mobile
device user to enroll with their e-mail address rather than an enrollment URL?
A. attach the device to the internal network to allow email enrollment
B. add a new text record to the DNS server(s)
C. add an attribute to the Active Directory user object enabling email enrollment
D. attach the device to an external network to allow email enrollment
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which file types are unacceptable for encrypted previews?
A. .doc, .docx
B. .xls, .xlsx
C. .pdf
D. .mp3, .mp4
Answer: D

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NO.4 What tool must an administrator generate to allow access to reporting data from an external
source?
A. Data API Access Key
B. One Time Password
C. OAuth Token
D. LDAP login
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which option does an administrator apply to content without requiring a content policy?
A. Allow Offline Access
B. Fail-safe Revocation Timer
C. Auto Upgrade
D. Content Expiry
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which action must an administrator perform to install Mobile Management on a Symantec
Mobile
Management Server (Site Server)?
A. log into the Symantec Management Console from the Site Server > download the necessary
files > install Symantec Mobile Management
B. download and launch the Symantec Installation Manager from Symantec's website on the Site
Server > install Symantec Mobile Management
C. install Symantec Agent on the Site Server > rollout the install to the Site Server from the
Symantec Management Console
D. push the installer to the Site Server from the Symantec Management Console > run the
UpdateSiteServer.exe that is on the Consoles Desktop
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which two options does an administrator use to specify if profiles can be removed from an iOS
device? (Select two.)
A. the device user can be allowed to remove a policy without specifying a password
B. the device user can be restricted from removing all policies from a device
C. the device user can be restricted from removing a specific policy from a device
D. the device user can be allowed to remove a policy by specifying a password
E. the device user can be prompted to contact the administrator to remove a policy
Answer: A,D

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NO.8 Which iOS profile type allows configuration of Exchange ActiveSync account in the native iOS
email client?
A. SCEP
B. EAS
C. iCal
D. Email
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 250-405
Exam Name: Administration of Symantec Management Platform 7.5
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Exam Code: 850-001
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NO.1 Refer to the Exhibit.
A target has been created with two rules: 1) 'exclude computers not in' filter Windows XP
Computers, and 2) 'include computers in' filter All Computers. There are 150 computers in the
Windows XP Computers filter. There are 200 computers in the All Computers filter. How many
computers will be in the target?
A. 50
B. 150
C. 200
D. 350
Answer: C

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NO.2 If installation of the Package Service on the Site Server is forgotten, what is the impact on a
new hierarchy implementation?
A. Replication performance is degraded.
B. Data replication stops.
C. Hierarchy installation is denied.
D. Hierarchy replication switches to HTTP .
Answer: C

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13. Which statement describes the relationship between Site Server and Notification Server?
A. Site Server assists Notification Server by providing packages and tasks to the Altiris Agent.
B. Site Server sends information, events, and data from the Inventory Rule Agent to Notification
Server.
C. Site Server assists Notification Server by running reports.
D. Site Server takes over all functions for Notification Server.
Answer: A

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14. Which two methods can an administrator use to create tasks? (Select two.)
A. clone an existing task
B. clone a task report
C. right-click a reports folder and select New -> Task
D. right-click a Jobs and Tasks Portal folder and select New -> Task
E. clone an existing patch
Answer: A,D

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15. Two administrators run the same report that displays Windows XP SP1 workstations
imported from Active Directory. The North America Symantec Administrator returns 2,500
workstations. The Marketing Manager returns 500 workstations. When they compare the results,
they find that there is an overlap of 100 workstations. Why is there an overlap in the reports?
A. Because the workstations belong to multiple organizational groups in same organizational view.
B. Because the workstations belong to organizational groups in separate organizational views
C. Because of workstation security privilege intersection
D. Because of workstation security role filters
Answer: B

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NO.3 What defines the link between user and computer resources?
A. Resource Association
B. Resource Data Class
C. Resource Type
D. Resource Link
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which statement is true about the Default Shared Schedules shipping with Notification Server?
A. They cannot be deleted.
B. They cannot be modified.
C. They can override maintenance windows.
D. They cannot be disabled.
Answer: A

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NO.5 What must an administrator do to edit a sample task?
A. Clone the sample task and edit the original task
B. Right-click and select the task's properties
C. Clone the source folder of the sample
D. Clone the sample task and edit the clone
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which Symantec Management Platform component initiates policy-based communication?
A. Notification Server
B. Symantec Management Agent
C. Configuration Management Database (CMDB)
D. Symantec Management Console
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which two tabs are used to modify security roles in the Symantec Management Console?
(Select two.)
A. Permissions
B. Privileges
C. Rights
D. Security
E. Membership
Answer: B,E

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NO.8 Which Symantec Management Platform component processes data sent by the Altiris Agent
and stores it in the Configuration Management Database?
A. Symantec Management Console
B. Software Management Framework
C. Notification Server
D. Site Services
Answer: C

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Exam Name: Administration of Symantec Management Platform 7.5
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NO.1 Which two tabs are used to modify security roles in the Symantec Management Console?
(Select two.)
A. Permissions
B. Privileges
C. Rights
D. Security
E. Membership
Answer: B,E

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NO.2 What must an administrator do to edit a sample task?
A. Clone the sample task and edit the original task
B. Right-click and select the task's properties
C. Clone the source folder of the sample
D. Clone the sample task and edit the clone
Answer: D

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NO.3 A named resource target contains 50 computers in the Sales Department. Several policies and
tasks are applied to this target. An administrator modifies one of these policies by changing this
target so that the policy now applies to 25 computers in the Engineering Department. How are the
policies and tasks affected?
A. Only the policy that the administrator changed is affected; all others only apply to the 50
computers in the Sales Department.
B. Only the policies and tasks that the administrator created are affected and apply to the 25
computers in the Engineering Department.
C. Every policy and task that applies to the target now applies to 75 computers in both the Sales and
Engineering Departments.
D. Every policy and task that applies to the target now only applies to the 25 computers in the
Engineering Department.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Refer to the Exhibit.
A target has been created with two rules: 1) 'exclude computers not in' filter Windows XP
Computers, and 2) 'include computers in' filter All Computers. There are 150 computers in the
Windows XP Computers filter. There are 200 computers in the All Computers filter. How many
computers will be in the target?
A. 50
B. 150
C. 200
D. 350
Answer: C

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NO.5 What defines the link between user and computer resources?
A. Resource Association
B. Resource Data Class
C. Resource Type
D. Resource Link
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which Symantec Management Platform component processes data sent by the Altiris Agent
and stores it in the Configuration Management Database?
A. Symantec Management Console
B. Software Management Framework
C. Notification Server
D. Site Services
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which Symantec Management Platform component initiates policy-based communication?
A. Notification Server
B. Symantec Management Agent
C. Configuration Management Database (CMDB)
D. Symantec Management Console
Answer: B

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NO.8 A Symantec Management Platform 7.5 administrator attempts to discover all network
resources using the ping function, and none are found. After conferring with the network
administrator, it is determined that ping is blocked on all network devices for security purposes.
Which other protocol can the administrator use to discover network devices using Network
Discovery?
A. CDP
B. HIP
C. ARP
D. RIP
Answer: C

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NO.1 Which two features are available only with Storage Foundation Enterprise? (Select two.)
A. Cross-platform Data Sharing (CDS)
B. Dynamic Storage Tiering (DST)
C. Veritas Operations Manager (VOM)
D. Dynamic Multipathing (DMP)
E. ability to import LUN snapshots
Answer: AB

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NO.2 Which type of storage virtualization presents disks from multiple arrays and multiple vendors virtually
to one or more servers?
A. host-based
B. network-based
C. storage-based
D. web-based
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which command displays the number of paths for disk hds9500-alua0_57?
A. vxdisk -p list hds9500-alua0_57
B. vxdisk scandisk hds9500-alua0_57
C. vxdmpadm list hds9500-alua0_57
D. vxdisk list hds9500-alua0_57
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which scenario requires host-based storage virtualization?
A. A server needs access to network-attached storage.
B. Servers with different operating systems need to access a single disk array.
C. Multiple servers need to access a single disk array.
D. A server needs to mirror data across disk arrays from different vendors.
Answer: D

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NO.5 An administrator sets up site awareness on a host, and wants to verify that everything is set up
correctly.
Which command should they execute to break off one of the sites to verify the configuration?
A. vxbreak site
B. vxfiredrill
C. vxdg detachsite
D. vxsite detach
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which Storage Foundation utility is used to generate random read and random write work loads so that
the performance of a file system can be analyzed?
A. vxbench
B. vxtrace
C. vxstat
D. vmstat
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which command should be used to lock a mounted vxfs file system?
A. fsck
B. mountlock
C. vxedit
D. fsadm
Answer: D

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NO.8 Refer to the exhibit.
What can the administrator determine about the layout of the volume described in the 'vxprint' output
provided in the exhibit?
A. The volume is striped across six disks.
B. The volume is mirrored with two plexes striped across three columns.
C. The volume is layered with two sub-volumes mirrored across three disks.
D. The volume is mirrored with three plexes striped across two columns.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: ST0-114
Exam Name: PGP Universal Server 3.0 Technical Assessment
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Last Update: 2014-07-07

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Exam Code: ST0-47X
Exam Name: Symantec NetBackup 6.5 (STS)
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NO.1 Which of the following will cause Silent Enrollment to fail.?
A. Directory Synchronization is enabled and there are multiple directories enabled.
B. LDAP Enrollment is enabled but the Bind DN has been entered correctly.
C. Key Reconstruction is enabled.
D. The Windows username / password are different than the LDAP credentials for the user.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Your customer's PGP Universal Server is running in Learn Mode and they want to automatically create
external users. How could this be done?
A. By simply sending email to external users (with a no-key policy of Smart Trailer or Web Messenger).
B. By configuring Directory Synchronization to import external users? keys.
C. By enabling the Verified Directory service (so that external users can manually upload their keys).
D. It is not possible to automatically create external users in Learn Mode.
Answer: D

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NO.3 PGP Desktop can perform SMIME and / or PGP encryption.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.4 If you move an encrypted file out of a PGP NetShare protected folder and onto your Windows desktop
what happens?
A. The file is decrypted
B. The file remains encrypted
C. The file remains encrypted only if it is protected by the blacklist
D. If advanced user mode is enabled it stays encrypted
E. It is decrypted if the file is data created by an application on the blacklist
Answer: B

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NO.5 An Additional Decryption Key (or ADK):
A. Is often split into shares for security.
B. Can be used for decryption of files and emails.
C. Should only be used in situations clearly defined by an organization's security policies.
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.6 The application whitelist only works if the files are stored in a PGP NetShare encrypted folder.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.7 Clustering can be done during or after installation and setup of a PGP Universal Server.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.8 The WDE Disk Administrator Passphrase allows an administrator to?
A. Log into the PGP Universal Server.
B. Authenticate at BootGuard on any system in the Consumer Policy.
C. Change a user WDRT from the server.
D. Run a bypass on the user system even if it is powered down.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 251-351
Exam Name: Admin of Veritas Storage Foundation HA 5.0 for Windows
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Exam Code: ST0-174
Exam Name: Symantec Data Loss Prevention 11.5 Technical Assessment
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NO.1 Which profile contains information to enable the VPN on Demand functionality for the Data Loss
Prevention for Tablets solution.?
A. DLP Agent profile
B. SCEP profile
C. iOS profile
D. VPN client profile
Answer: C

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NO.2 An administrator has completed the example document training process, but is having difficulty deciding
whether or not to accept a VML profile. Where can the administrator find information regarding the quality
of each training set at a granular, per-fold level?
A. machinelearning_training_process.log file
B. machinelearning_native_filereader.log file
C. machinelearning_training.log file
D. machinelearning_native_manager.log file
Answer: C

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NO.3 What are two benefits of the Symantec Data Loss Prevention 11.5 security architecture? (Select two.)
A. Communication is initiated by the detection servers inside the firewall.
B. SSL communication is used for user access to the Enforce Platform.
C. Endpoint Agent to Endpoint Server communication uses the Triple Data Encryption Standard (Triple
DES).
D. Confidential information captured by system components is stored using Advanced Encryption
Standards (AES) symmetric keys.
E. All indexed data uploaded into the Enforce Platform is protected with a two-way hash.
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 Which product must run on a physical server?
A. Endpoint Prevent
B. Network Monitor
C. Enforce D. Network Prevent
Answer: B

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NO.5 An approved Endpoint device has been configured and added as an exception to a policy that blocks
the transfer of sensitive data. Data transfers to these approved Endpoint devices are still being blocked.
What should the Data Loss Prevention administrator do to resolve this?
A. disable and enable the policy involved for the changes to take effect
B. edit the exception rule to ensure Match On is set to "Attachments"
C. verify that the proper device ID or class has been entered
D. assign the Endpoint device configuration to all the Endpoint servers
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which two components are required for the Symantec Data Loss Prevention for Tablets solution in
addition to the Tablet Prevent and Enforce servers? (Select two.)
A. DLP Agent
B. Virtual Private Network Gateway
C. Web Proxy
D. 2010 Exchange Server
E. Mobile Device Management
Answer: B,C

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NO.7 Which two should be used to collect log information from Enforce servers? (Select two.)
A. enable the VontuSNMP service and set the community strings accordingly
B. use the Log Collection and Configuration tool
C. navigate manually to the log directory of the Enforce server installation
D. .access the Enforce Log Viewer page athttps://<VONTU_SRV>/logs?view=true
E. use dbgmonitor from sysinternals to connect to the debug output of the service
Answer: B,C

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NO.8 A scanner fails to return results upon completion of the scan process. Which file should be removed to
eliminate previous scan issues?
A. scanner_typeScanner.cfg
B. Clean.exe
C. ScannerControllerLogging.properties
D. logs
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 250-510
Exam Name: Administration of SymantecTM Data Loss Prevention 10.5 - BETA
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Exam Code: 250-370
Exam Name: Administration of Symantec NetBackup 7.0 for Windows
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NO.1 What must be running on a Linux Enforce server to enable the Symantec Data Loss Prevention user
interface?
A.selinux
B.iptables
C.xwindows
D.ssh
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which two products can be run on virtual servers? (Select two.)
A.Endpoint Discover
B.Endpoint Prevent
C.Network Monitor
D.Enforce
E.Network Prevent
Answer: DE

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NO.3 Which two statements describe an effective data loss prevention (DLP) program? (Select two.)
A.DLP is best implemented as a departmental initiative.
B.DLP is primarily driven by the network team.
C.An incident response team is rarely required.
D.Employee education is important.
E.Business stakeholders are held accountable for risk reduction.
Answer: DE

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NO.4 Which two actions are associated with FlexResponse? (Select two.)
A.manually quarantine files
B.automatically quarantine files on file shares
C.modify a response within a policy
D.automatically quarantine files on endpoints
E.apply digital rights to content
Answer: AE

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NO.5 Which products run on the same detection server?
A.Network Protect and Network Discover
B.Endpoint Discover and Network Discover
C.Network Monitor and Network Prevent
D.Network Discover and Network Monitor
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which two recommendations should an organization follow when deploying Endpoint Prevent? (Select
two.)
A.test the agent on a variety of end-user images
B.initially enable monitoring of the local file system
C.enable monitoring of many destinations and protocols simultaneously
D.configure, test, and tune filters
E.configure blocking as soon as the agents are deployed
Answer: AD

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NO.7 Which detection server setting enables detecting text within markup language tags?
A.ContentExtraction.MarkupAsText
B.ContentExtraction.EnableMetaData
C.Detection.EncodingGuessingEnabled
D.Lexer.Validate
Answer: A

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NO.8 How is the incident count for a new system managed in order to avoid overwhelming the incident
response team?
A.Match count thresholds are set.
B.More than one policy is enabled.
C.Many incident responders are allowed access to the system.
D.Incidents are auto-filtered to hide false positives.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 250-511
Exam Name: Administration of Symantec(TM) Data Loss Prevention 11
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Exam Code: 250-270
Exam Name: Administration of Symantec NetBackup 7.0 for Unix
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NO.1 An administrator is remotely logged into a Symantec NetBackup 7.0 server via the terminal window
and needs to configure robots and drives.
Which command should be used to complete the configuration?
A. vmconf
B. tpreq
C. nbdevconfig
D. tpconfig
Answer: D

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NO.2 An organization has Symantec NetBackup 7.0 client machines with a large number of files distributed
across multiple file systems that are being backed up to a library with high-speed tape drives.
Which two steps should the administrator take to ensure the greatest number of backup streams are
active concurrently? (Select two.)
A. select the "Enable multiple data streams" policy attribute and edit the "Maximum jobs per client" master
server host property
B. create a "Media Server Load Balancing" type storage unit group to enable additional backup streams to
become active simultaneously
C. enable the client-side deduplication feature so that only unique data is sent from the client to the media
server
D. select the Enable multiplexing attribute within the storage unit and the policy schedule
E. configure the "Max drives this master" attribute to the number of tape drives that are available within
the library
Answer: AD

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NO.3 Where are exclude list configurations stored?
A. media server
B. master server
C. client
D. Enterprise Media Manager (EMM) server
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which two databases are used by Symantec NetBackup 7.0? (Select two.)
A. Media
B. Image
C. Volume
D. EMM
E. Device
Answer: BD

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NO.5 Which two media status designations are excluded in the count against maximum number of partially
full media? (Select two.)
A. Frozen
B. Imported
C. Active
D. Available
E. Inactive
Answer: AB

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NO.6 Which two types of information are displayed in the Tape Summary report? (Select two.)
A. the number of tapes that are suspended
B. the number of tapes that are offsite
C. the number of tapes that are using compression
D. the number of tapes that are active
E. the number of tapes each client is using
Answer: AD

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NO.7 Which two statements are true about the function of the Initiate Import utility in Symantec Netbackup
7.0? (Select two.)
A. Phase I creates a list of expired images.
B. Phase II lists and creates image files from tape or disk.
C. Phase I reads and creates image files in the image database.
D. Phase I requires each tape to be mounted if tape media is used.
E. Phase II imports the backups and creates fragments.
Answer: AD

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NO.8 A company has just expanded the Symantec NetBackup 7.0 environment by adding an additional
media server.
What is the fastest way to update several hundred Symantec NetBackup clients with the new media
server information?
A. run the update_all_clients script
B. run the add_media_server_on_clients script
C. specify the new media server in the Backup, Archive, and Restore interface
D. specify the new media server in the client properties
Answer: B

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