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NO.1 Select the two correct statements about the Date Profiler.
A. It can profile string dates written in a variety of formats, such as DD/MM/YYYY or MM/DD/YYYY .
B. It provides a distribution for the day in the year, such as February 21, regardless of the year.
C. It allows the EDQ user to define a valid range of dates.
D. By clicking a date in blue, the user can drill down to the records that carried that value.
E. It rejects February 29 as an invalid date.
Answer: A,D

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NO.2 You are loading a file into a database but the file name is unknown at design time and will
have to be passed dynamically to a Package at run time; how do you achieve this?
A. Create a variable, use it in Topology at the File dataserver-level, and add it to a package as a
Declare Variable step
B. Create a variable, use it in Topology at the File dataserver-level, and add it to a package as a Set
Variable step
C. Create a variable, use it as the Resource Name of the File datastore, and add it to a package as a
Declare Variable step
D. Create a variable, use it as the Resource Name of the File datastore, and add it to a package as a
Set Variable step
Answer: D

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NO.3 Identify one correct statement regarding Exception steps in Load Plans.
A. Exception steps cannot be defined in a Load Plan.
B. Exception steps can only be defined for Parallel Steps in a Load Plan
C. Exception steps can only be defined for Serial Steps in a Load Plan.
D. Exception steps can be defined for most Step types in a Load Plan.
Answer: D

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Reference:https://s3.amazonaws.com/rmc_docs/oug_ireland_2012_rittman_odi.pdf(page 88)

NO.4 You want to add a new CDC subscriber in ODI after you have started the Journal process, what
steps do you need to go through in order to use this new subscriber?
A. Drop Journal, remove existing subscribers, add a new subscriber, start Journal, and edit the
default Journalizing filter in your Interfaces
B. Drop Journal,add anew subscriber, start Journal, and remove the default Journalizing filter in your
Interfaces
C. Drop Journal, add a new subscriber, start Journal, and edit the default Journalizing filter in your
Interfaces
D. Add anew subscriber and edit the default Journalizing filter in your Interfaces
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which two ODI knowledge modules are included in the Application Adapter for Hadoop?
A. IKM Oracle Incremental Update
B. IKM Hive Transform
C. IKM SQL to File Append
D. IKM FiletoHive
Answer: B,D

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Reference:http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E27101_01 /doc.10/e27365 /odi.htm

NO.6 Identify three objects from which scenarios can be generated.
A. Interface
B. Variable
C. Package
D. Knowledge modules
E. Trail
F. Extract
Answer: A,B,C

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Reference:http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E23943_01 /integrate.1111 /e12643 /scenarios.htm#BACDFAH
D(see topic 13.2)

NO.7 Select the three correct options for Token Checking in the EDQ parser.
A. Checking against a list of values.
B. Checking for duplicates.
C. Checking against a list of patterns.
D. Checking for typing errors.
E. Checking against a list of regular expressions.
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.8 In an ODI interface, to declare a lookup, is there a dedicated graphical object?
A. No, in ODI you can declare a lookup only using a join definition.
B. No, in ODI you can declare a lookup only using an ODI procedure.
C. Yes, there is a specific object, you click it and a wizard helps the developer to set the lookup.
D. Yes, there is a specific object and you need to prepare a configuration file to use it.
Answer: C

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NO.1 When building a Career Section, in order to preview it, which area within the Career
Section would you access?
A. Application Flow Properties
B. Career Section URL
C. Career Section Properties
D. Career Portal Pages
E. Career Section Preview
Answer: E

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Explanation:
Viewing Candidates Matching a Requisition Prerequisite A user type permission grants users access
to this feature. The requisition must be posted on a career section. Steps
1.In the requisition file, select the Posting and Sourcing tab.
2.In the Career Sections section, click Preview Matching Candidates. Result The Posting Requisitions
- Filter Matching Candidates window displays candidates matching the requisition.

NO.2 Your client would like to leverage the ACE prescreening to allow the system to automatically
sort and rank candidates who are applying to high volume positions. What type of question will you
want to avoid creating when setting up ACE prescreening for these high volume jobs?
A. Multiple Answers
B. Single Answers
C. Open Text
D. Competencies
E. Disqualification
Answer: D

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NO.3 When configuring a CSW, why is it important to designate a completion status within a step?
A. The Completion Status will allow the candidate to progress to the next step in the CSW.
B. The Completion Status will terminate the candidate selection process.
C. The Completion Status will require that all mandatory actions be completed before a hire can be
completed.
D. The Completion Status indicates that a candidate can move from one step to another even if
some activities are not completed in the step.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Actions available in the Next Action column are Candidate Selection Workflow (CSW) movements
only,either a
Move to the next step in the CSW
Change to the completion status within the current step If the current status is not a completion
status, the action displayed will be a move (change status) tothe first completion status of the
current step. If the current status is a completion status, then the action will be a move to the next
step at the initialstatus. In a one-step CSW (reference workflow), only statuses configured as a
"completion status" willshow up as next steps.

NO.4 What two elements does the Configuration profile control within the Recruiting Center?
A. Search Widget
B. Core Navigation Bar
C. Coverage Areas
D. User Types
Answer: A,D

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Explanation:
D: A center stage is selected for each configuration profile and a configuration profile is tied to each
user.
A: Users can save a search query if the feature is activated in the user's configuration profile and if
the user type permission has been granted. The fields that can be selected in the Recruiting Center
to customize a search query are set by the system administrator for each configuration profile. If a
user is not linked to a configuration profile or is linked to a configuration profile for which the
system administrator has not selected additional fields, then only the set of default fields are
displayed when customizing a search query in the Recruiting Center.

NO.5 Identify two configurations that must be selected in the user type to allow hiring managers
access to only their requisitions.
A. View Requisitions -> Only if this user is an owner of the requisitions or a collaborator
B. View Requisitions -> Only if this user is an owner of the requisition, a collaborator or if the
requisitions are associated with coverage area
C. Access "Requisitions- Section
D. View Requisitions -> Without Restriction
Answer: B,C

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NO.6 What processes can be assigned unique candidate files?
A. Viewing and editing general profiles
B. Creating candidate profiles
C. Viewing and editing job submissions
D. Segmentation of candidate capture types
E. Modifying field-level security
Answer: B

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Explanation:
The candidate file identifier is used to specify which candidate-specific information is presented in
the Candidate column of candidates lists.

NO.7 Your client would like ensure that candidates have the ability to search for jobs in a variety of
ways. They would also like to provide visibility into jobs that candidates are a match for based on
data that has been collected by the system. How would you ensure that this functionality is
available?
A. Activate the Setting Display Personal Jobs List on the Career Portal Page Settings.
B. Activate the Setting Display Personal jobs List on the Career Section Properties.
C. Activate My Jobs Page on the Career Section Portal Page settings.
D. Activate My Jobs Page on the Personal Jobs List on the Career Section Properties.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
* If the candidate's submission has expired and the requisition is still posted, the Modify link is
replaced with the Reapply link on the candidate's My Jobs page.
* candidates are entering their profile inthecareer section.

NO.8 As opposed to a general profile, which two elements are visible only on a job submission in
the candidate file?
A. Prescreening Questions
B. Attachment tab
C. Disqualification Questions
D. Referrals tab
E. History tab
Answer: A,B

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NO.1 Which two statements are true about enabling write-back flash cache?
A. When enabling write-back flash cache in a non rolling manner, it is important to ensure that
asmdeactivatonoutcome is set to YES and asmModestatus is set to ONLINE for all grid disks.
B. Before using write-back flash cache, you need to verify the minimum required versions.
C. Before write back-flash cache is enabled, you need to drop the Flash Cache first.
D. The setting flashCacheMode should be set to writeback by updating cellinit.ora and restarting
cellsrv.
E. When enabling write-back flash cache in a rolling manner, dcli should be used to inactivate the
grid disks on all cells first.
Answer: B,C

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Explanation:
B: Exadata storage version 11.2.3.2.1 is the minimum version required to use this write back flash
cache option.
C: Steps for Enabling Write back flash cache:
First of all, you don't need the stop CRS or database (This is ROLLING method) ,you can do it cell
by cell.
*drop flashcache
*Be sure asmdeactivationoutcome is YES is before disabling grid disk

NO.2 Changes for Linux system performance optimization
Which of the software changes listed are permitted on Exadata Storage Servers?
A. 1, 2, 3, and 4
B. only 3 '
C. none
D. only 2
E. only 1 and 2
F. only 2 and 3
Answer: E

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Explanation:
1. The Storage Server Patch is responsible for keeping our cell nodes always up-todate, fixing
possible problems, and this patch includes different component patches, like kernel patches,
firmware, operation system, etc... for the Storage Server. Incorrect: 3,4: security scan tools changes
and Linux system performance optimization changes would be on the database server.
4. The mpstat output from OS Watcher shows a database node as being 90% idle on an average.
What would you do to get a full picture of CPU utilization on the entire Exadata RAC cluster?
A. Average the mpstat id1 output from all the nodes.
B. Ask application users if they have noticed a slowdown in screen response.
C. Look for an increase in batch job servicing times.
D. A & B above
Answer: A

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NO.3 Exadata Database Machine offers an Intelligent Platform Management Interface for the
various components in the Exadata product. Which option is true?
A. IPMI can be used to remotely start and stop servers.
B. IPMI can be used to remotely log in to the operating system.
C. IPMI commands can be executed by using SNMP traps.
D. IPMI settings can be secured by backing up the Oracle Linux installation on the storage system.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
IPMI - short for Intelligent Platform Management Interface - is an interface standard that allows
remote management of a server from another using standardized interface. The servers in the
Exadata Database Machine follow that. It's not an Exadata command but rather a general Linux one.
To power on a cell or database server, issue this from another server: # ipmitool -H prolcel01-ilom
-U root chassis power on
To stop a server, use the shutdown command. To stop immediately and keep it down, i.e. not reboot,
execute:# shutdown -h -y now

NO.4 Identify three best practices for applying asmdeactivationoutcome es on Exadata Database
Servers and Exadata Storage Servers?
A. Backing up database servers and storage cells is not recommended before performing planned
maintenance.
B. Database server updates can be rolled back using the the "yum downgrade" procedure.
C. Bundle patches do not require testing before being installed on a production system.
D. It is recommended that Exadata systems with Data Guard configured use the "Standby First"
patching approach.
E. Patching should never be interrupted due to a connection drop. It is therefore recommended that
you use VNC or the screen utility.
F. Before patching cells in a rolling manner, you must check asmdeactivationoutcome amModestatus
and make sure that cells on all disks are online and that disks can be deactivated.
Answer: D,E,F

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NO.5 Consider this CellCLI command:
CellCLI> CREATE GRIDDISK ALL HARDDISK PREFIX=data, size=423G;
Which two statements describe what happens when you execute this command?
A. It creates one 423 GB grid disk on the first available cell hard disk.
B. It creates one 423 GB grid disk on each available cell hard disk.
C. It creates grid disks on the outermost 423 GB that is available on each hard disk.
D. It creates grid disks on the innermost 423 GB that is available on each hard disk.
E. It creates an Exadata Smart Flash Cache on all flash drives.
Answer: B,C

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Explanation:
* Example: CellCLI> create griddisk all harddisk prefix=temp_dg, size=570G This command will
create 12 Griddisks, each of 570G in size from the outer (fastest) sectors of the underlying Harddisks.
It fills up the first 2 Celldisks entirely, because they have just 570G space free - the rest is already
consumed by the OS partition.

NO.6 You get a Host Unreachable error when you attempt to connect to a server through a network
terminal command line. What are two other ways in which you can connect?
A. Use the ILOM Web GUI.
B. Use the dcli command at the root prompt on a database node.
C. Attach a terminal device to the back panel of the server with a serial cable.
D. Connect by using SQL *Plus.
E. Log in as root on the database node using the Net1 IP address.
Answer: A,C

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Explanation:
In addition to gaining shell access via SSH to manage your Exadata servers, you can also access them
from the Integrated Lights Out Management (ILOM) console or KVM console.
and should typically not require modifications unless you have changed network information inside
your database machine.
Note: A KVM switch (with KVM being an abbreviation for "keyboard, video and mouse") is a
hardware device that allows a user to control multiple computers from one or more[1] keyboard,
video monitor and mouse. Although multiple computers areconnected to the KVM, typically a
smaller number of computers can be controlled at any given time

NO.7 Which is the best location to point your customer to, for finding the latest Exadata patches?
A. owner's guide
B. Patch database in MyOracle Support
C. MyOracle Support note 888828.1
D. MyOracle Support for database patches, ULN for OS patches, and Sun Support for Server and
InfiniBand patches.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Before starting, we would like to share and note here two documents from My Oracle Support, aka
metalink. These notes must be the first place that you need to go to review before patching the
Exadata environment.
* (B) Database Machine and Exadata Storage Server 11g Release 2 (11.2) Supported Versions (Doc ID.
888828.1)
-This is for the second and third generation (V2 and X2) for Oracle Exadata, using Sun hardware.
* Database Machine and Exadata Storage Server 11g Release 1 (11.1) Supported Versions (Doc
ID. 835032.1)
* - This is for the first generation (V1) for Oracle Exadata, using HP hardware.

NO.8 Consider the following software changes that are performed manually on a Linux server:
1.Changes for Linux kernel firewall configuration
2.Changes for custom performance monitoring tools
3.Changes for security scan tools

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NO.1 Your database is running in archivelog mode. Examine the parameters for your database
instance:
LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_l ='LOCATION=/disk1/arch MANDATORY' LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_2
='LOCATION=/disk2/arch' LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_3 ='LOCATIO=/disk3/arch' LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_4
='LOCATIONs/disk4/arch' LOG_ARCHIVE_MIN_SUCCEED_DEST=2
While the database is open, you notice that the destination set by the log_archive_dest_1 parameter
is not available. All redo log groups have been used.
What happens at the next log switch?
A. The database instance hangs and the redo log files are not overwritten.
B. The archived redo log files are written to the fast recovery area until the mandatory destination is
made available.
C. The database instance is shutdown immediately.
D. The destination set by the log_archive_destparameter is ignored and the archived redo log files
are created in the next two available locations to guarantee archive log success.
Answer: D

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NO.2 You notice that the performance of your production 24/7 Oracle 12c database has significantly
degraded. Sometimes you are not able to connect to the instance because it hangs. You do not want
to restart the database instance.
How can you detect the cause of the degraded performance?
A. Enable Memory Access Mode, which reads performance data from SGA.
B. Use emergency monitoring to fetch data directly from SGA for analysis.
C. Run Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) to fetch information from the latest
Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) snapshots.
D. Use Active Session History (ASH) data and hang analysis in regular performance monitoring,
E. Run ADDM in diagnostic mode.
Answer: C

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* In most cases, ADDM output should be the first place that a DBA looks when notified of a
performance problem.
* Performance degradation of the database occurs when your database was performing optimally in
the past, such as 6 months ago, but has gradually degraded to a point where it becomes noticeable to
the users. The Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) Compare Periods report enables you to
compare database performance between two periods of time.
While an AWR report shows AWR data between two snapshots (or two points in time), the AWR
Compare Periods report shows the difference between two periods (or two AWR reports with a total
of four snapshots). Using the AWR Compare Periods report helps you to identify detailed
performance attributes and configuration settings that differ between two time periods.
Reference: Resolving Performance Degradation Over Time

NO.3 Automatic Undo Management is enabled for your database. You want a user to retrieve
metadata and historical data for a given transaction or for transactions in a given time interval.
Which three are prerequisites to fulfill this requirement?
A. Minimal supplemental logging must be enabled.
B. The database must be running in archivelog mode.
C. Flashback Data Archive must be created and the flashback archive administer system privilege
must be granted to the user.
D. The flashback any table privilege must be granted to the user.
E. The select any transaction privilege must be granted to the user.
F. Therecycle binparameter must be set to on.
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.4 Users report this error message when inserting rows into the orders table:
ERROR atline1:
ORA-01654f:unable to extend index USERS.ORDERS_IND by 8in tablespace INDEXES
You determine that the indexes tablespace is out of space and there is no free space on the
filesystem used by the Oracle database.
Which two must you do to fix this problem without affecting currently executing queries?
A. drop and re-create the index
B. coalesce the orders ind index
C. coalesce the indexes tablespace
D. perform an on line table rebuild using dbns_redefir.ition.
E. rebuild the index online moving it to another tablespace that has enough free space for the index
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 For which two requirements would you use the Database Resource Manager?
A. limiting the CPU used per database call
B. specifying the maximum number of concurrent sessions allowed for a user
C. specifying the amount of private space a session can allocate in the shared pool of the SGA
D. limiting the degree of parallelism of operations performed by a user or group of users
E. specifying an idle time limit that applies to sessions that are idle and blocking other sessions
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NO.6 In which three scenarios is media recovery required?
A. when a tablespace is accidentally dropped from a database
B. when archived redo log files are lost
C. when data files are lost
D. when one of the online redo log members is corrupted
E. when all control files are lost
Answer: A,D,E

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Reference:http://docs.oracle.com/cd/A87860_01/doc/server.817/a76993/recoscen.htm

NO.7 Which three statements are true about Consolidated Database Replay?
A. The workload capture and replay systems must have the same operating system (OS).
B. Multiple workload captures from multiple databases can be replayed simultaneously on all
pluggable databases (PDBs) in a multitenant container database (CDB).
C. A subset of the captured workload can be replayed.
D. The number of captured workloads must be the same as the number of PDBs in a multitenant CDB
.
E. Multiple replay schedules can be defined for a consolidated replay and during replay initialization,
you can select from any of the existing replay schedules.
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.8 Which two statements are true when row-archival management is enabled?
A. Visibility of theORA_ARCHIVE_STATEcolumn is controlled by the row archival visibility session
parameter.
B. TheORA_ARCHIVE_STATEcolumn is updated manually or by a program that can reference activity
tracking columns, to indicate that a row is no longer considered active.
C. The row archival visibility session parameter defaults to all rows.
D. TheORA_ARCHIVE_STATEcolumn is visible if it is referenced in the select list of a query.
E. TheORA_ARCHIVE_STATEcolumn is updated automatically by the database based on activity
tracking columns, to indicate that a row is no longer considered active.
Answer: A,D

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NO.1 You want to track and store all transactional changes to a table over its lifetime.
To accomplish this task, you enabled Flashback Data Archive with the retention of 5 years.
After some time, the business requirement changed and you were asked to change the
retention from 5 years to 3 years.
To accomplish this, you issued the following command:
ALTER FLASHBACK ARCHIVE fla1 MODIFY RETENTION 3 YEAR;
What is the implication of this command?
A. The command produces an error because the retention time cannot be reduced.
B. All historical data is retained but the subsequent flashback data archives are maintained for only
three years.
C. All historical data is purged and the new flashback data archives are maintained for three years.
D. All historical data older than three years is purged from the flashback archive FLA1.
Answer: D

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NO.2 You create two resource plans, one for data warehouse loading jobs at night and the other for
application jobs at day time. You want the resource plans to activate automatically so that the
resource allocation is optimum as desired by the activity.
How would you achieve this?
A. Implement job classes
B. Implement Scheduler windows
C. Implement the mapping rule for the consumer groups
D. Set the SWITCH_TIME resource plan directive for both the resource plans
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which data dictionary view would you query to find the name of the default permanent
tablespace of the database?
A. DICTIONARY
B. DBA_TABLESPACES
C. DBA_DIRECTORIES
D. DBA_STORED_SETTINGS
E. DATABASE_PROPERTIES
F. DBA_TABLESPACE_GROUPS
Answer: E

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NO.4 You issued the following commands to configure settings in RMAN:
RMAN> CONFIGURE DEVICE TYPE sbt PARALLELISM 1;
RMAN> CONFIGURE DEFAULT DEVICE TYPE TO Sbt;
RMAN> CONFIGURE DATAFILE BACKUP COPIES FOR DEVICE TYPE sbt TO 2;
RMAN> CONFIGURE ARCHIVELOG BACKUP COPIES FOR DEVICE TYPE sbt TO 2;
RMAN> CONFIGURE DATAFILE BACKUP COPIES FOR DEVICE TYPE DISK TO 2;
Then you issued the following command to take the backup:
RMAN> BACKUP DATABASE PLUS ARCHIVELOG;
Which statement is true about the execution of the above command?
A. The backup will terminate because the FORMAT clause was not configured for the channel
B. It backs up two copies of data files to tape and disk, and two copies of archived log file on tape
C. It backs up the data files and archived log files to disk, making two copies of each data file and
archived logfile
D. It backs up the data files and archived log files to tape, making two copies of each data file and
archived logfile
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which statements are true regarding system-partitioned tables? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Only a single partitioning key column can be specified.
B. All DML statements must use partition-extended syntax.
C. The same physical attributes must be specified for each partition.
D. Unique local indexes cannot be created on a system-partitioned table.
E. Traditional partition pruning and partitionwise joins are not supported on these tables.
Answer: D,E

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NO.6 Examine these Data Pump commands to import objects to non-existent users hr1 and oe1.
S expdp system/manager Schemas =hr,oe directory =EXP_ DIR include = table
$ impdp system/manager Schemas = hr1,oe1 Directory = EXP_DIR Dumpfile = export.dat
Remap_schema =hr:hr1,oe :oe1
What would be achieved by running the above commands?
A. expdp will fail because no path has been defined for the dumpfile.
B. expdp will succeed but Impdp will fail because users do not exist.
C. impdp will create two users called hrl and oe1 and import all objects to the new schemas
D. impdp will create two users called hrl and oe1 and import tables owned by hr and oe schemas to
hr1 and oe1 schemas, respectively.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which three tasks can be performed using a duplicate database? (Choose three.)
A. Testing the backup and recovery procedures
B. Testing the upgrade of an Oracle database to a new release
C. Testing the effect of an application changes on database performance
D. Continuously updating archive log files from the target database to support failover
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.8 Identify two options that Oracle recommends while configuring the backup and recovery
environment for your recovery catalog. (Choose two.)
A. configuring control file autobackup to be ON
B. backing up data filed only and not the archived redo log files
C. running the recovery catalog database in NOARCHIVELOG mode.
D. setting the retention policy to a REDUNDANCY value greater than 1
E. backing up the recovery catalog to the same disk as that of the target database
Answer: A,D

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Exam Name: Oracle GoldenGate 11g Certified Implementation Exam Essentials
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NO.1 When implementing GoldenGate on a 11gR2 Oracle database and after running the
GoldenGate Database profiling script, you discover that certain objects are compressed, what
should you do?
A. Contact Oracle support
B. Continue the implementation of OGG and exclude those objects from replication
C. Configure OGG with Classic Capture
D. Configure OGG with Integrated Capture
Answer: D

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NO.2 What GoldenGate process is responsible for capturing changes in the source database?
A. Manager
B. Replicate
C. Extract
D. Server Collector
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Reference:
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NO.3 Which Replicat parameter is used when looking up table definitions in a file?
A. SPECIALRUN
B. DEFERAPPLYINTERVAL
C. SOURCEISFILE
D. SOURCEDEFS
Answer: D

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NO.4 Select the statement that is supported by OGG DDL Replication.
A. ENCRYPT
B. ALTGLOBAL
C. CREATE ROLE
D. ALTDB
Answer: C

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NO.5 Select the commands that give statistics regarding OGG process and memory resource usage.
A. SEND...REPORT
B. SEND...STATS
C. SEND...CACHEMGR
D. INFO...SHOWSTATS
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is the GoldenGate command line interface?
A. SQLCUI
B. GGSCI
C. GGCTRL
D. GGCUI
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which database platform does GoldenGate not natively support?
A. Sybase
B. FoxPro
C. DB2
D. Teradata
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which Manager Parameter sets will report current lag every hour and write a critical message
for any Extract/Replicate with a lag over 60 minutes?
A. LAGBEPOBTHOURS 1, LAGINFO 1 and LAGCRITICAL 60
B. LAGREPORTMINUTES 60, LAGINFOHOURS 1
C. LAGREPOBT 1, I.AGCRITICALHOURS 1
D. LAGREPOBTHOURS 1, LAGINFOMINUTES 30, LAGCR JTTCAI-M I
Answer: B

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Reference :
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NO.1 What describes the nature of the activities within the Project Execution and Control phase?
A. They are dependent upon one another.
B. They are dependent upon earned value.
C. They are ongoing.
D. They are grouped according to priority.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which is the type of closure described as the mechanical an analytical step associated with the
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A. Contractual
B. Typical
C. Intra-business
D. Conventional
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which is true about OUM Manage?
A. It emphasizes clearly documenting the scope of the project and the exact procedures to
implement changes to this scope.
B. It is not possible to control the project timeline without a detailed project plan.
C. It is necessary to only document the items in the scope.
D. If the project sponsor requires a functional change, the project team must comply with the
request.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
The Manage focus area is organized into 13 processes: Bid Transition (A)Scope Management
Financial Management
Work Management Risk Management Issue and Problem Management Staff Management
Communication Management Quality Management Configuration Management Infrastructure
Management Procurement Management Organizational Change Management
Collectively, these processes form a comprehensive set of tasks required to manage Oracle-based
development and implementation projects. Every project includes most, if not all, of these
processes, whether they are the responsibility of a consulting organization, a client organization, or
a third party.

NO.4 What is not true about planning in OUM?
A. OUM has been developed with the intent that the approach for a given project be built up from a
core set of activities.
B. Projects should be tailored down from the full OUM work breakdown structures.
C. OUM takes an iterative and incremental approach to planning a project.
D. Tasks within OUM are considered place holders for work.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
Incorrect: Not A:OUM is designed to support a broad range of project types. As such, it must be
flexible andscalable. The appropriate point of balance for a given project will vary based on a
number of project risk and scale factors. The method has been developed with the intent that the
approach for a given project be "built up" from a core set of activities to implement an appropriate
level of discipline, rather than "tailored down".
Not C:OUM recognizes the advantages of an iterative and incremental approach to development
and deployment of information systems. Any of the tasks within OUM may be iterated. Whether or
not to iterate, as well as the number of iterations, varies. Tasks may be iterated to increase quality of
the work products to a desired level, to add sufficient level of detail, or to refine and expand the
work products on the basis of user feedback.

NO.5 Tasks in the Project Execution and Control phase are ongoing. How often they are executed?
A. In each iteration
B. Three times
C. Five times
D. At the beginning of each week
E. As needed
Answer: A

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NO.6 Select the three key project roles as prescribed by OUM Manage.
A. Stakeholder
B. Change Control Board
C. Issue Review Board
D. Project Team
E. Testing Committee
Answer: A,B,D

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Explanation:
A:Project managers use OUM to make sure they and their stakeholders develop a shared
understanding of what is needed, choose an appropriate architecture, and transfer the ownership of
the end-product to the stakeholders.
B:CCB(Change Control Board)is a review committee that discusses and approves requests for
changes to On Demand customer system configurations. The change requests are fulfilled in the
following ways:
A work guideline is generated by engineering for operations to use and implement.
The changes are included in Oracle Certified Configurations.
D:Project teams to take advantage of this experience by

NO.7 At the end of iteration phase, during Project Execution and Control, which three key tasks
should be conducted?
A. QM.050 Perform Quality Assurance
B. WM.050 ManageApprovals
C. CMM.030 Manage Project Team Communication
D. PKM.020 Conduct Baseline Risk Assessment
E. SM.060 Close Scope management
F. PKM.060 Conduct Post-Production Risk Assessment
G. OCHM.040 Establish Follow-Up process
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.8 What is not true about risk management in OUM Manage?
A. The project manager should regularly conduct risk assessments.
B. Risks become even more critical during the Project Execution and Control Phase.
C. Particular attention should be paid to risks prior to production cutover.
D. If a baseline risk assessment is done during the Project Startup phase, there are no further risk
assessment required on the project.
Answer: D

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NO.1 Activating Auto Service Request (ASR) Assets______.
A. is done on the Asset only
B. is done on both the Asset and the ASR Manager system
C. is done on the ASR Manager system only
D. is done on My Oracle Support only
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is out-of-order execution?
A. A feature of certain processors, where instructions are processed based on the availability of data
B. A feature of certain multicore processors, where a core can be given processing priority over
other
cores
C. A memory architecture feature, where specific data can be delivered to processors at the fastest
possible rate
D. A feature of certain operating systems, where programs are executed based on the availability of
data
Answer: A

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NO.3 dentify the three ways that integrated, no-chip networking improves network performance.
A. Eliminates I/O protocol translation inefficiencies
B. Reduces memory latency
C. Eliminates the need for multiple DMA (direct memory access) engines
D. Provides higher memory bandwidth
Answer: ABC

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NO.4 What is the main objective of having Enterprise Installation Standards (EIS)?
A. To create a framework for tracking improperly installed systems
B. To produce consistent, high-quality installations
C. To produce systems optimized for Oracle software deployment
D. To create a framework for tracking properly installed systems
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which two tasks are required to install and configure Oracle VM Server for SPARC
Management
Information Base (MIB) software?
A. Install Oracle VM Server for SPARC MIB software on the primary and guest domains
B. Install Oracle VM Sever for SPARC MIB software on the primary domain only
C. Load the Oracle VM Server for SPARC MIB module into the Oracle Solaris SMA
D. Load the Oracle VM Server for SPARC MIB module into the Oracle Solaris FMA
Answer: BC

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NO.1 You need to create a table for a banking application. One of the columns in the table has the
following requirements:
1. You want a column in the table to store the duration of the credit period.
2) The data in the column should be stored in a format such that it can be easily added and
subtracted with date data type without using conversion functions.
3) The maximum period of the credit provision in the application is 30 days.
4) The interest has to be calculated for the number of days an individual has taken a credit for.
Which data type would you use for such a column in the table?
A. DATE
B. NUMBER
C. TIMESTAMP
D. INTERVAL DAY TO SECOND
E. INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH
Answer: D

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NO.2 Evaluate the following SQL statement:
Which statement is true regarding the outcome of the above query?
A. It executes successfully and displays rows in the descending order of PROMO_CATEGORY .
B. It produces an error because positional notation cannot be used in the order by clause with set
operators.
C. It executes successfully but ignores the order by clause because it is not located at the end of the
compound statement.
D. It produces an error because the order by clause should appear only at the end of a compound
query-that is, with the last select statement.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Examine the structure proposed for the transactions table:
Which two statements are true regarding the creation and storage of data in the above table
structure?
A. The CUST_STATUS column would give an error.
B. The TRANS_VALIDITY column would give an error.
C. The CUST_STATUS column would store exactly one character.
D. The CUST_CREDIT_LIMIT column would not be able to store decimal values.
E. The TRANS_VALIDITY column would have a maximum size of one character.
F. The TRANS_DATE column would be able to store day, month, century, year, hour, minutes,
seconds, and fractions of seconds
Answer: B,C

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Explanation:
VARCHAR2(size)Variable-length character data (A maximum size must be specified:
minimum size is 1; maximum size is 4, 000.)
CHAR [(size)] Fixed-length character data of length size bytes (Default and minimum size
is 1; maximum size is 2, 000.)
NUMBER [(p, s)] Number having precision p and scale s (Precision is the total number of
decimal digits and scale is the number of digits to the right of the decimal point; precision
can range from 1 to 38, and scale can range from -84 to 127.)
DATE Date and time values to the nearest second between January 1, 4712 B.C., and
December 31, 9999 A.D.

NO.4 View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the product, component, and PDT_COMP
tables.
In product table, PDTNO is the primary key.
In component table, COMPNO is the primary key.
In PDT_COMP table, <PDTNO, COMPNO) is the primary key, PDTNO is the foreign key referencing
PDTNO in product table and COMPNO is the foreign key referencing the COMPNO in component
table.
You want to generate a report listing the product names and their corresponding component names,
if the component names and product names exist.
Evaluate the following query:
SQL>SELECT pdtno, pdtname, compno, compname
FROM product _____________ pdt_comp
USING (pdtno) ____________ component USING (compno)
WHERE compname IS NOT NULL;
Which combination of joins used in the blanks in the above query gives the correct output?
A. JOIN; JOIN
B. FULL OUTER JOIN; FULL OUTER JOIN
C. RIGHT OUTER JOIN; LEFT OUTER JOIN
D. LEFT OUTER JOIN; RIGHT OUTER JOIN
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which normal form is a table in if it has no multi-valued attributes and no partial
dependencies?
A. First normal form
B. Second normal form
C. Third normal form
D. Fourth normal form
Answer: B

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NO.6 View the Exhibit and evaluate the structure and data in the CUST_STATUS table.
You issue the following SQL statement:
Which statement is true regarding the execution of the above query?
A. It produces an error because the AMT_SPENT column contains a null value.
B. It displays a bonus of 1000 for all customers whose AMT_SPENT is less than CREDIT_LIMIT.
C. It displays a bonus of 1000 for all customers whose AMT_SPENT equals CREDIT_LIMIT, or
AMT_SPENT is null.
D. It produces an error because the TO_NUMBER function must be used to convert the result of the
NULLIF function before it can be used by the NVL2 function.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
The NULLIF Function The NULLIF function tests two terms for equality. If they are equal the function
returns a null, else it returns the first of the two terms tested. The NULLIF function takes two
mandatory parameters of any data type. The syntax is NULLIF(ifunequal, comparison_term), where
the parameters ifunequal and comparison_term are compared. If they are identical, then NULL is
returned. If they differ, the ifunequal parameter is returned.

NO.7 Examine the types and examples of relationships that follow:
1.One-to-one a) Teacher to students
2.One-to-many b) Employees to Manager
3.Many-to-one c) Person to SSN
4.Many-to-many d) Customers to products
Which option indicates the correctly matched relationships?
A. 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, and 4-d
B. 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, and 4-b
C. 1-c, 2-a, 3-b, and 4-d
D. 1-d, 2-b, 3-a, and 4-c
Answer: C

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NO.8 View the Exhibit for the structure of the student and faculty tables.
You need to display the faculty name followed by the number of students handled by the faculty at
the base location.
Examine the following two SQL statements:
Which statement is true regarding the outcome?
A. Only statement 1 executes successfully and gives the required result.
B. Only statement 2 executes successfully and gives the required result.
C. Both statements 1 and 2 execute successfully and give different results.
D. Both statements 1 and 2 execute successfully and give the same required result.
Answer: D

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NO.1 You notice a high number of waits for the db file scattered read and db file sequential read
events in the recent Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) report. After further
investigation, you find that queries are performing too many full table scans and indexes are not
being used even though the filter columns are indexed.
Identify three possible reasons for this.
A. Missing or stale histogram statistics
B. Undersized shared pool
C. High clustering factor for the indexes
D. High value for the DB_FILE_MULTIBLOCK_READ_COUNT parameter
E. Oversized buffer cache
Answer: A,C,D

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Explanation:
D: DB_FILE_MULTIBLOCK_READ_COUNT is one of the parameters you can use to minimize I/O
during table scans. It specifies the maximum number of blocks read in one I/O operation during a
sequential scan. The total number of I/Os needed to perform a full table scan depends on such
factors as the size of the table, the multiblock read count, and whether parallel execution is being
utilized for the operation.

NO.2 The trace files may be aggregated by using the trcess utility.

NO.3 Identify two situations in which the alert log file is updated.
A. Running a query on a table returns ORA-600: Internal Error.
B. Inserting a value into a table returns ORA-01722: invalid number.
C. Creating a table returns ORA-00955: name us already in used by an existing objects.
D. Inserting a value into a table returns ORA-00001: unique constraint (SYS.OK_TECHP) violated.
E. Rebuilding an index using ALTER INDEX . . . REBUILD fails with an ORA-01578: ORACLE data block
corrupted (file # 14, block # 50) error.
Answer: A,E

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Explanation:
The alert log is a chronological log of messages and errors, and includes the following items:
*All internal errors (ORA-600), block corruption errors (ORA-1578), and deadlock errors (ORA-60)
that occur
*Administrative operations, such as CREATE, ALTER, and DROP statements and STARTUP ,
SHUTDOWN, and ARCHIVELOG statements
*Messages and errors relating to the functions of shared server and dispatcher processes
*Errors occurring during the automatic refresh of a materialized view
*The values of all initialization parameters that had nondefault values at the time the database and
instance start
Note:
*The alert log file (also referred to as the ALERT.LOG) is a chronological log of messages and errors
written out by an Oracle Database. Typical messages found in this file is: database startup,
shutdown, log switches, space errors, etc. This file should constantly be monitored to detect
unexpected messages and corruptions.

NO.4 Which three statements are true about Oracle Data Pump export and import operations?
A. You can detach from a data pump export job and reattach later.
B. Data pump uses parallel execution server processes to implement parallel import.
C. Data pump import requires the import file to be in a directory owned by the oracle owner.
D. The master table is the last object to be exported by the data pump.
E. You can detach from a data pump import job and reattach later.
Answer: A,B,D

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Explanation:
B: Data Pump can employ multiple worker processes, running in parallel, to increase job
performance.
D: For export jobs, the master table records the location of database objects within a dump file set.
/ Export builds and maintains the master table for the duration of the job. At the end of an export
job, the content of the master table is written to a file in the dump file set.
/ For import jobs, the master table is loaded from the dump file set and is used to control the
sequence of operations for locating objects that need to be imported into the target database.

NO.5 Your multitenant container database (CDB) contains a pluggable database, HR_PDB. The
default permanent tablespace in HR_PDB is USERDATA. The container database (CDB) is open and
you connect RMAN.
You want to issue the following RMAN command:
RMAN > BACKUP TABLESPACE hr_pdb:userdata; Which task should you perform before issuing the
command?
A. Place the root container in ARHCHIVELOG mode.
B. Take the user data tablespace offline.
C. Place the root container in the nomount stage.
D. Ensure that HR_PDB is open.
Answer: A

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NO.6 You database is running an ARCHIVELOG mode.
The following parameter are set in your database instance:
LOG_ARCHIVE_FORMAT = arch+%t_%r.arc
LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_1 = 'LOCATION = /disk1 /archive'
DB_RECOVERY_FILE_DEST_SIZE = 50G
DB_RECOVERY_FILE = '/u01 /oradata'
Which statement is true about the archived redo log files?
A. They are created only in the location specified by the LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_1 parameter.
B. They are created only in the Fast Recovery Area.
C. They are created in the location specified by the LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_1 parameter and in the
default location $ORACLE_HOME/dbs/arch.
D. They are created in the location specified by the LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_1 parameter and the
location specified by the DB_RECOVERY_FILE_DEST parameter.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
You can choose to archive redo logs to a single destination or to multiple destinations. Destinations
can be local-within the local file system or an Oracle Automatic Storage Management (Oracle ASM)
disk group-or remote (on a standby database). When you archive to multiple destinations, a copy of
each filled redo log file is written to each destination. These redundant copies help ensure that
archived logs are always available in the event of a failure at one of the destinations. To archive to
only a single destination, specify that destination using the LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST and
LOG_ARCHIVE_DUPLEX_DEST initialization parameters. ARCHIVE_DEST initialization parameter. To
archive to multiple destinations, you can choose to archive to two or more locations using the
LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_n initialization parameters, or to archive only to a primary and secondary
destination using the LOG_ ARCHIVE_DEST and LOG_ARCHIVE_DUPLEX_DEST initialization
parameters.

NO.7 Your database has the SRV1 service configured for an application that runs on middle-tier
application server. The application has multiple modules. You enable tracing at the service level by
executing the following command:
SQL > exec DBMS_MONITOR.SERV_MOD_ACT_TRACE_ENABLE ('SRV1');
The possible outcome and actions to aggregate the trace files are as follows:
1.The command fails because a module name is not specified.
2.A trace file is created for each session that is running the SRV1 service.
3.An aggregated trace file is created for all the sessions that are running the SRV1 service.

NO.8 In your database, you want to ensure that idle sessions that are blocking active are
automatically terminated after a specified period of time.
How would you accomplish this?
A. Setting a metric threshold
B. Implementing Database Resource Manager
C. Enabling resumable timeout for user sessions
D. Decreasing the value of the IDLE_TIME resource limit in the default profile
Answer: D

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Explanation:
An Oracle session is sniped when you set the idle_time parameter to disconnect inactive sessions.
(It's only like sniping on ebay in that a time is set for an action to occur.)
Oracle has several ways to disconnect inactive or idle sessions, both from within SQL*Plus via
resources profiles (connect_time, idle_time), and with the SQL*net expire time parameter. Here are
two ways to disconnect an idle session:
Set the idle_time parameter in the user profile Set the sqlnet.ora parameter expire_time