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Exam Code: C_TB1200_88
Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - SAP Business One 8.8)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-31

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NO.1 Ronald, the buyer at Treadwell Tires, created a purchase order for two items from a vendor. A week
later, just before the vendor was to deliver those items, Ronald called to add a third item to the order.
However, Ronald did not add the third item to the existing purchase order. The vendor delivers all three
items at once. What is the most efficient way for the warehouse clerk to receive the three items into the
warehouse?
A. Copy the two items from the purchase order to a goods receipt PO and manually add a row in the good
receipt PO for the third item.
B. Create a separate purchase order for the third item, before referencing both purchase orders in one
goods receipt PO.
C. Create one goods receipt PO for the 2 items on the purchase order and a second goods receipt PO to
receive the third item.
D. Instead of using a goods receipt PO, use the inventory goods receipt to receive the items.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following are possible business partner master types?
Note. There are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. Buyers
B. Leads
C. Employees
D. Vendors
E. Customers
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.3 The sales manager wants to be informed when a sales employee issues an order that would produce a
gross profit less than 25%. However, he does not want the sales process to be blocked.
What is the easiest way to implement this.?
A. Use an alert with a predefined condition for gross profit deviation.
B. Schedule the Sales Analysis report to run when the gross profit is below the threshold.
C. Add a user-defined field to the sales order document, with a query to report when the gross profit is
less than 25%.
D. Use an approval procedure with a predefined condition for gross profit deviation.
Answer: A

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NO.4 The client wants to continue the numbering of invoices from the legacy system, so that there are no
gaps in the numbering. Additionally, sales quotations are issued by multiple employees, and the
numbering of sales quotations should continue for each employee. How can both these requirements be
implemented in SAP Business One?
A. In each user account, set the first and last document numbers for each document type.
B. Set the first invoice number using the document numbering function. In the same function create
multiple numbering series for sales quotations.
C. Set the first number for each type of document using the document numbering function.
D. Using the document settings function, set one document numbering range for invoices, and multiple
ranges for sales quotation documents.
Answer: B

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NO.5 What happens when a default payment method for customers is changed in the General Settings?
A. Any new customer master records will default to this payment method, but existing records will not
change.
B. New and existing customer master records will automatically receive this payment method.
C. When a new customer master record is created, a pop up box will appear with a choice of available
payment methods listed in General Settings.
D. When a new customer master record is created, the default payment method is assigned and cannot
be changed.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Mike from Miller Inc. created a forecast showing a need for 100 staplers by June 1. Currently there are
10 staplers in inventory. Existing sales orders have a committed quantity of 50 staplers. When Mike runs
MRP to produce a production order to manufacture staplers, the recommended production order is for 90
staplers. Why does MRP recommend this amount?
A. The maximum stock requirement is set to 90.
B. MRP never considers sales orders as demand.
C. The minimum stock requirement is set to 10.
D. The planning definitions are set to consume forecasts.
Answer: D

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NO.7 During Business Blueprint, the customer indicated they want to run perpetual inventory with moving
average valuation method. They went into production a week ago and they now want some existing
products to use standard cost valuation instead. How can this be accomplished?
A. The moving average valuation method is only a default, and can be changed to standard cost for an
item at any time.
B. Once an item has been imported into SAP Business One, the valuation method is fixed and the items
must be deleted and re-imported to change the method.
C. As long as there are no open transactions and there is no inventory for the item, they can change the
valuation method.
D. They can move the items to an item group with the standard cost valuation method. This automatically
changes the valuation method.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Top Toys defined their sub-periods as months. How often should they run the period-end closing
utility?
A. They are required to run the period-end closing utility both at the end of each month and at the end of
the fiscal year.
B. Depending on their financial processes, they should run the period-end closing utility at the end of the
fiscal year and also can run it at the end of each month.
C. Depending on their financial processes, they can run the period-end closing utility at the end of each
month and also at the end of each quarter.
D. Because they defined their sub-periods as months, the system requires them to run the period-end
closing utility at the end of each month.
Answer: B

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NO.9 SG Products will go live tomorrow. The A/R and A/P balances need to be transferred from the legacy
system. How should the implementation consultant proceed to ensure that the A/R and A/P control
accounts are correct and up to date in the new system?
A. Import all open sales and purchase orders from the legacy system. The control accounts will then be
correct.
B. Copy the balances from both the Profit and Loss and the Balance Sheet legacy accounts so that the
control accounts are correct.
C. Copy the A/P and A/R account balances from the legacy Balance Sheet. The control accounts will then
be correct.
D. Import the open invoice balances for each individual business partner. The control accounts will then
be correct.
Answer: D

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NO.10 The customer successfully went live last week. What is the best method for the implementation
consultant to maintain the continuous reliability of the customer system?
A. Install the Service Manager
B. Create a Service Level Agreement
C. Activate the services of the remote support platform for SAP Business One
D. Upgrade the customer system to the latest patch level
Answer: C

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NO.11 Your client has asked for a report on service contract history. What is the easiest way to identify the
correct fields needed in the report?
A. With a service contract in the active window, open the Query Wizard. It will automatically show the
table and field names for the active window.
B. Open a service contract document and right-mouse click on a field to see the table and field name.
C. Reference the DI-API online help the see the table and field names for the service contract object.
D. Open a service contract and toggle the System Information view to see the table and field names at the
bottom of the screen.
Answer: D

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NO.12 A delivery document is created for a shipment of 10 printers to Madison and Daughters Inc. One of the
employees creates an A/R invoice but forgets to reference the existing delivery document. Madison and
Daughters Inc. uses perpetual inventory. What unplanned effect will occur by posting these two unrelated
documents in the system?
A. The customer will be charged for 20 printers.
B. There will be a posting to an inventory variance account.
C. The invoice will reverse the previous entry to the cost of sales account.
D. The inventory account will be credited for 20 printers.
Answer: D

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NO.13 When Jade Logistics creates a sales order, they want to see the description for the item so they can
communicate this to the customer. How can this requirement be met?
A. In the sales order, right-mouse click in the item code field to see the item description.
B. This information is standard in the sales order and you can make it visible in the sales order row using
form settings.
C. Once an item is selected for the sales order, the description and other item specifications are
automatically provided in the Logistics tab of the order.
D. Add a user-defined field in the item row to display the description for the item.
Answer: B

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NO.14 You are in the project preparation phase of a customer implementation at Ruby Manufacturing. So far
everything has gone to plan. Which of these could signal an unexpected project overrun?
A. The company will run the manufacturing add-on from an SAP partner that was recommended.
B. There are 15 employees who will need to work with SAP Business One.
C. You hear a rumor that two new logistics warehouses will be opening in the next month.
D. The production manager will also act as a functional lead on the project.
Answer: C

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NO.15 The implementation consultant has just demonstrated the service type purchase order to the client.
The client lead is very concerned that they have to select from the entire list of G/L accounts when they
create a service type purchase order. There are several accounts that the client lead can select for
different types of services. What can the consultant suggest to help the client lead?
A. Define a project for each type of service, and associate a G/L account. When the client lead selects the
project, the G/L account is used.
B. Add a user-defined field to the purchase order row, with a list of valid values for the short list of
accounts. The client lead can choose from the short list.
C. Add user-defined values to the G/L account field in the purchase order row, with a fixed list of values
containing the short list of G/L accounts. The client lead can choose from the short list.
D. Set the short list of G/L accounts as default accounts on the Purchasing tab in the G/L Account
Determination.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 6102.1
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Virtual Services Platform 9000 Implementation Exam)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 67 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP) is used by the IP Multicast router, to learn about the
existence of host group members on their directly attached subnets.
Which statement about IGMP is true?
A. The IP Multicast routers get this information by listening for IP hosts broadcasting IGMP queries and
reporting their host group memberships.
B. The IP Multicast routers get this information by broadcasting IGMP queries and listening for IP hosts
reporting their host group memberships.
C. The IP Multicast routers get this information by recognizing the modified MAC address of a Multicast
packet and adding that MAC address to the Multicast tree.
D. The IP Multicast routers get this information by listening for Multicast Servers broadcasting IGMP
queries and listening for IP hosts reporting their host group memberships.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Avaya recommends that the Switch Fabric (SF) modules be installed in both Slot SF1 and Slot SF4.
What is the reason behind this recommendation?
A. It provides optimal load balancing between the SF modules.
B. It provides redundancy tor the bandwidth management.
C. It takes full advantage of the orthogonal midplane architecture.
D. It provides redundancy in case of a power supply failure.
E. It provides lossless SF failover.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Given the following ACL applied to an interface:
filter acl ace 1 5 name "xxxx" filter acl ace action 1 5 deny
filter acl ace ip 1 5 ip-protocol-type eq tcp
filter acl ace protocol 1 5 dst-port eq 23
filter acl ace 1 5 enable
What is the result of this filter?
A. permit telnet traffic
B. deny ftp traffic
C. permit only tcp traffic
D. deny telnet traffic
E. deny only tcp traffic
Answer: D

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NO.4 A Virtual Services Platform (VSP) 9000 chassis has the following connections:
Four 10GBaseER core connections in ports 3/4 , 3/8, 4/4, 4/8 (9024XL cards)
40 Copper 100BaseT connections for server aggregation (9048GT card)
How many Switch Fabric (SF) modules need to be installed in the roar of the chassis to ensure that all of
the IO cards operate at full performance, even if a single SF modules fails (n + 1 SF redundancy)?
A. Install three SFs in St modules 1, 2, 4.
B. Install four SFs in SF modules 1, 2, 3, 4.
C. Install five SFs in SF modules 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.
D. Install six SFs in SF modules 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6.
Answer: D

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NO.5 A Split Multi Link Trunking (SMIT) for switch clustering is being configured.
Which statement is a configuration requirement for the SMIT?
A. The CP-Limit is configured on edge switch stacks.
B. VLANs that are defined on the SMLT are also defined on the tote IST.
C. Neighboring edge switch stacks should be connected to each other via the DMLT connection to add
resilient paths in the event of an SMLT failure.
D. Alternate the primary path of the SMLT connection Lo load balance the switch core.
Answer: B

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NO.6 A campus network requirement is to introduce Virtual Routing and Forwarding (VRF) in the existing
Virtual Services Platform (VSP) 9000 core. The technician needs to configure VRF on the VSP 9000.
Which statement represents the proper order for configuring a new VRF?
A. Create a new VLAN, add an IP address, create a VRF, and move the VLAN to the new VRF.
B. Create a VRF, add an IP address, create a new VLAN, and move the VLAN to the new VRF.
C. Create a VRF, create a new VLAN, add an IP address, and move the VLAN to the new VRF.
D. Create VRF, create a new VLAN, move the VLAN to the new VRF, and add an IP address.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which command can be used to determine the management IPv6 address on the Virtual Services
Platform (VSP) O000?
A. Show interfaces mgmtEthernet 1/1
B. Show ip interface vrf mgmtRouter
C. Show ipv6 interface vrf mgmtRouter
D. Show ipv6 address interface
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which types of packets will port mirroring not capture.?
A. Packets that are dropped on the ingress MAC
B. Packets that are destined for the standby CP
C. Packets that are properly forwarded through the VSP
D. Packets that have a destination address of 255.255.255.255
Answer: A

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NO.9 A customer is mirroring multiple ports to a single monitor port.
What happens if the mirrored traffic exceeds the bandwidth of the monitor port?
A. The traffic will be buffered until there is available bandwidth.
B. The excess traffic will be dropped randomly.
C. The excess traffic will be dropped based upon the mirror priority of the ingress port.
D. The excess traffic will be dropped based upon the port priority of the ingress port.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which two management ports are available on the CP module? (Choose two.)
A. Serial interface
B. USB (host) interface
C. Ethernet interface
D. Modem interface
Answer: A,D

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Total Q&A: 104 Questions and Answers
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NO.1 In which failover scenario is the Alternate Gatekeeper List used?
A. H.323 endpoints that have lost connection to the gatekeeper
B. H.248 gateways that have lost connection to the server
C. H.323 endpoints that have lost connection to the IPSI
D. IPSIs that have lost connection to the server
Answer: A

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NO.2 A Communication Manager Messaging user reports that someone is accessing their mailbox and
deleting messages.
Which logs would you check to see who logins into the mailbox and message status A. Administrators Log
B. Subscriber Log
C. Mailbox Log
D. Activity Log
Answer: A

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NO.3 A user is a new employee of ABC Co. and their manager supplies them with 9600 desktop IP telephone
and login information and tells the user to plug the cord into the jack near their desk. The user plugs in the
telephone, lifts the handset, but there is no dial tone and call cannot be made.
What should the user do? (Choose two)
A. Unplug the telephone and plug it back again.
B. returns the telephone because it is defective
C. Wait for the prompt for the extension number and password
D. Plug the telephone into another jack.
Answer: A,D

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NO.4 Which two SAT based tools are helpful in diagnosing call setup sequences and processor two.?
A. List trace station/tac/ras command
B. Status media processor hoard
C. mst (Message Sequence Tracecommand
D. status processor -ip-inter face
E. List measurements clan/dsl/a
Answer: A

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NO.5 An IP telephone is registered and has dial tone, but Telephones In the same work area work properly.
What Is the likely source of the problem?
A. Faulty gateway port
B. Incorrect dial plan
C. Station administration
D. Trunk group administrator
Answer: C

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NO.6 Avaya Communication Manager 6.0 offers the Feature and Evolution server options. Which two IP
station protocols do the Feature and Evolution server options support? (Choose two)
A. SIP
B. T.38
C. RTP
D. H.323
E. UDP
Answer: A,D

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NO.7 Which two SAT commands are useful in monitoring overall system performance

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Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Aura Contact Recording and Avaya Aura Quality Monitoring Implementation Exam)
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Total Q&A: 62 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 A technician has installed a now Avaya Aura Viewer server and configured It to store data coming from
five different Avaya Aura Contact Recording (Avaya CR) systems. The technician has created just a query
for testing functionality and is able to retrieve calls and play them. The customer was called for
information but they notice that there are no calls associated to one of the Avaya CRs (name ver2).
What are two possible causes of this problem? (Choose two.)
A. The query has not been released to Server2.
B. Server2 is a standby recorder for one of the other Avaya CRs, so it did not record any calls ' time
intervals the query was fun.
C. Server2 was not included as a "Capture Platform" into the Viewer Administration page.
D. Grant rights were not granted to the customer for Server2.
E. Server2 was not included as a "Location" in the Viewer Administration page.
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 While waiting to activate an Avaya Aura Contact recording (Avaya CR) license, some tests are run with
the five-day license.
Once the full license is obtained, what is the path to update the Avaya CR to the full license?
A. System > License > Change License
B. System > Manage Users > Change License
C. General Setup > Recorder > License
D. General Setup > Recorder > Key Management Server
Answer: A

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NO.3 It is strongly recommended to install the RedHat operating system (OS) from the kickstart file (ks.cfg).
Which three components are necessary to create a ks.cfg file using the kickstart tool? (Choose three)
A. The IP addresses of the network interfaces
B. The name of extra RedHat Package manager (RPM) packages to be installed
C. The MAC address of the Network Interface Card (NIC) Eth0
D. The IP address of the Network Time protocol (NTP) server
E. The/var partition size
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.4 A technician has successfully installed the Avaya Aura Quality Monitoring (Avaya QM) software on a
client site, and needs to configure the software. The Avaya QM solution is being deployed as a single
server solution. As part of the configuration the Voice Cards must be specified.
Which kind of voice card should be created?
A. Dialogic D/240JCT
B. Dialogic D/82JCT
C. VR1000
D. Dialogic DSE DL-300x
Answer: B

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NO.5 A technician has finished installing an Avaya Aura Archive system that has been added to an existing
solution, consisting of three Avaya Aura Contact Recording (Avaya CR) servers and one Avaya Aura
Viewer system.
Before starting the Archive, what can be done to ensure that calls can be archived?
A. fromAuraarchive server, ping each of the Avaya CR servers by means of the name configured in the
"Machine Name fieldinthe"Capture Platform Information" window inside the Viewer application.
B. FromArchiveserver, ping each Avaya CR servers by means of theirIp-addresses.
C. Check that the EWareCalls database was created during archive installation.
D. Verify from the "Recorder Status/Server" window on the AvayaCR thatthe "Link to Viewer" field is
showing "UP".
Answer: A

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NO.6 A technician has configured one Avaya Aura Contact Recording (Avaya CR) system to be used only 1
Avaya Aura Quality Monitoring (Avaya QM). Everything has been configured under the "Operation/Quality
Monitoring" tab in the Avaya CR administration window, and the "link to Quality" shows UP on the
"Recorder Status/Server" window. After a few calls are made, it is discovered that no calls are being
recorded correctly.
What are two possible reasons for this? (Choose two.)
A. The field "Can he Service Observed" is set to "N" for the Class of Restriction (COR) assigned the
recorder ports. The field "Can be a Service Observer" is set to "N" for the COR assigned to the extension
b-ordered.
B. The field "Can be Service Observed" is set to "N" for the COR for the agent logged in on the extension
being recorded.
C. The field "Can be a Service Observer" is set to "N" for the COR assigned to the recorder ports.
D. The field "Can be Service Observed" Is set to "N" for the COR assigned to the extension being
recorded.
Answer: C,D

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NO.7 A technician is installing Avaya Aura Viewer on a large customer site with 500 recording channels. The
customer has an existing SQL database that they want to use.
What would be the correct option for this?
A. Put the database and Viewer on the same server.
B. Put the Viewer on a separate server.
C. Put the Avaya Contact Recording Master (with no IP recording), the TDM Recorder, the database and
the Viewer on the same server.
D. Put the database, the Viewer, and the Avaya Aura Archive on the same server.
Answer: B

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NO.8 A technician has just installed an Aura Contact Recording (Avaya CR) system that uses Station Bulk
Recording, the customer has provided the list of extensions, login IDs and skills that need to be recorded,
and the technician wants to try one first to validate the configuration.
Which statement describes how to verify that the system is configured correctly.?
A. Add one of the agent login IDs in the table "Station to be Recorder" under "Operation/Station Bulk|
Recording". Then verify from Recorder Status/Ports that one the recorder ports has been assigned to the
extension where the agent is logged in, and that the state shows "Connected".
B. Add one of the extensions in the table "Station to be Recorder"under Operation/Station Bulk
Recording". Then verify from Recorder Status/Ports that one of the recorder ports has been assigned to
the extension, and that the state shows "Connected".
C. No extensions in the system need to be configured as they will automatically be picked up by the
system, once the field "Filter Calls by VDN and/or Skill Hunt Group" under Operation/ Station Bulk
Recording" has been populated with the skills provided.
D. Add one of the extensions in the table "Station to be Recorder" under "Operation/Station Bulk
Recording". Then verify from Recorder Status/Ports that one of the recorder ports has been assigned to
the extension, and that the state shows "Idle".
Answer: B

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NO.9 A technician has successfully installed the Avaya Aura Quality Monitoring (Avaya QM) software on a
client site, and needs to configure the Software.
What needs to be configured at level1?
A. Switches
B. DataConnections
C. Servers
D. Sites
Answer: D

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NO.10 You have just installed one Avaya Aura viewer system and have made some test calls that appear to
have been recorded successfully by the Avaya Aura Contact Recoding (Avaya CR) system. While being
recorded, one of the test calls was put on and then taken of hold. When you run a query using Avaya CR
Search and replay
you expect to __________ and when you run a query from Viewer, in the Viewer
query Results Windows you expect to _______ for the same call.
A. see two segments which can be connected by means of Universal Call ID (UCID) and you will haveto
listen to two audio files; see only one segment and you will hear only one audio file playing the whole
conversation
B. see two segments which can be connected by means of UCID and you will have to listen to two audio
files; see two segments and you will hear two audio files playing
C. see one segment and you will hear one audio file that stops playing right after the call has b-put on hold;
see only one segment and you will hear only one audio file playing the whole conversation
D. see two segments which can be connected by means of UCID and you will have to listen to two audio
files; see only one segment and you will hear only one audio file stopping right after the call has been put
on hold
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 3302
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Contact Center Control Manager Implementation and Maintenance Exam)
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Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 A customer is installing Avaya Contact Center Control Manager (ACCCM) with two locations and two
Communication Managers (CM). The customer requires that the ACCCM controls the number ranges that
are allowed to be configured for extensions on each CM. Location 1 will be allowed extensions 1000-1999,
and Location 2 will be allowed extensions 2000-2999.
Using ACCCM, how can this be configured.?
A. Add twodial plans in ACCCM. Dial Plan1would be configured for ExtensionsRange1000-1999, Range
Management enabled. Dial Plan 2 would beconfigured for Extensions Range 2000-2999, Range
Management enabled. Dial Plan 1 is assigned to Location 1 and Dial Plan 2 is assigned to Location 2.
B. Add two dial plans In ACCCM. DialPlan 1 would be configured for Extensions Range 10001999, In
Range enabled. Dial (Man A would be configured for Extensions Range 2000-2999, In Range cabled. Dial
Plan 1 is assigned to I oration 1 and Dial Plan 2 is assigned to Location 2.
C. Add one dial plan in ACCCM. The Dial Plan would be configured for Extensions Range 1000-
2999,Range Managementenabled. The Dial Plan is assigned to Location 1 and to Location 2.
D. Add one dial plan in ACCCM. The Dial Plan would be configured forExtensions Range 10002999, In
Rangeenabled. The Dial Plan is assigned toLocation1 and to Locution 2.
Answer: B

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NO.2 A customer plans to integrate Avaya Contact Center Control Manager (ACCCM) with Active Directory.
Which statement describes the ACCCM requirement that is mandatory for connectivity?
A. The ACCCM server must be a member of the domain or a trusted domain.
B. The LDAP Port must be 636.
C. Provisioning servermust run with Administrative Domain Account.
D. Windows servermustbe 2008 R2 64-bit.
Answer: A

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NO.3 The Avaya Contact Center Control Manager (ACCCM) Web UI is responsible for the ACCCM Admin
Web interface. There are multiple functional buttons and action bars available on each tab. The exhibit
depicts the Users tab.
What is the section outlined in red in the illustration?
A. Main details area
B. Organization Chart action bar
C. Quick Search
D. User/agent action bar
Answer: D

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NO.4 You have Installed Avaya Contact Center Control Manager (ACCCM) and you need to synchronize with
the Communication Manager (CM) for the first time.
Which statement is true regarding the Synchronizer?
A. The synchronizer can be used for initial data migration only.
B. Only the initial synchronization will be done through the Web interface.
C. The Synchronizer can only be used as a sync service that synchronizes information on a daily basis.
D. Only the initial synchronization will be done from the Synchronizer windows application.
Answer: C

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NO.5 What arc three advantages of the Audit Server? (Choose three.)
A. the ability to rollback the CM administration
B. the ability to restart the License, Provisioning, and Synchronizer services in Windowsin event of
afailure
C. the ability to schedule delayed saves during maintenance hours
D. abilitytoprovide a Security Firewall to Avaya Contact Center Control Manager (ACCCM)
E. auditing to a single field level
F. unlimited database entries
Answer: A,E,F

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Exam Code: 132-S-911-3
Exam Name: Avaya (Specialist IP Telephony Implement and Support Elective Exam)
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NO.1 Which Communication Manager (CM) feature utilizes PSTN connectivity when IP WAN
bandwidth limit
has been reached?
A.Inter-Gateway Alternate Routing
B.Intra-Gigabit Analytical Resource
C.Intelligent Global Access Routing
D.Intelligent Gatekeeper Associated Routes
Answer:A

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NO.2 Which two statements are true about DHCP? (Choose two.)
A.a DHCP server is required to configure all Avaya IP telephones
B.a DHCP server can be used to send the DNS server address to the client
C.one DHCP server is required for each subnet containing clients that require the service
D.a DHCP server is used to send an IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway address
to the client
Answer:B D

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NO.3 Your customer asks you to verify the current subnet mask assigned to a remote Avaya
G700 Media
Gateway P330 stack management interface. Which command should you use to obtain this
information?
A.session stack
B.show interface
C.show interface mgp
D.show interface stack manager
Answer:B

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NO.4 Your customer is unable to light message waiting lights at a small branch office using
a shared Intuity
voice mail system on a QSIG network running DCS. What is the first command you should
execute?
A.list ip-interfaces
B.list media-gateway
C.display-ip-network-region
D.status station
Answer:D

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NO.5 Which is a characteristic of a global VLAN ID?
A.must have at least five digits
B.can vary from one device to another
C.supports QoS between multi-vendor WAN/LANs
D.remains consistent across all VLAN tagging schemes
Answer:D

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NO.6 What color is the LED when a TN circuit pack is executing a test?
A.red
B.green
C.yellow
D.amber
Answer:C

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NO.7 Within a single Avaya Communication Manager 4.0, how can you have conflicting four
digit extensions
for separate locations in a four digit plan?
A.you insert an additional digit on the incoming trunk group form
B.you enter a different UDP code on the dial plan analysis form and take it off in the incoming
trunk group
C.you enter an extra digit on the dial-plan analysis and delete a digit in the routing pattern
D.you enter X where x is the location number on the uniform dial plan and prefix an additional
first digit;
the changed number matches in AAR analysis and goes to a pattern
Answer:D

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NO.8 You are migrating from a Definity server to an S8500/S87XX server. Where is the IPSI
board located?
A.It is always placed into slot number 1.
B.The location depends on which media server is used.
C.It can be slotted into any available media gateway slot.
D.The location depends on which media gateway is used.
Answer:D

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NO.9 You are working with the powerful concept of a network region section. Which three
parameters can be
set on the IP network region screen? (Choose three.)
A.H.323 endpoint
B.SIP enabled endpoints
C.hairpinning and shuffling
D.UDP port range parameters
E.QoS parameters such as DiffServ/TOS and 802.1p/Q
Answer:C D E

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NO.10 A customer is using Avaya 4600 Series IP Telephones on an Avaya S87xx Server
using several
TN799DP (CLAN) and TN2302 (Medpro) cards. Telephones located at a remote site are
unable to
register with the CLAN. The CLAN can ping and be pinged. Which two commands or
troubleshooting
methods can identify the problem? (Choose two.)
A.list sys-link
B.status station
C.list trace ras station
D.use a network sniffer between the phone and the network
Answer:C D

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NO.11 Which two statements about VoIP Monitoring Manager are true? (Choose two.)
A.VoIP Monitoring Manager is a GUI-based tool that can chart historical graphs of audio
performance on
VoIP endpoints
B.VoIP Monitoring Manager can be used to troubleshoot VoIP endpoints registration
problems and call
signaling problems
C.the reporting interval of VoIP Monitoring Manager can be varied depending on the required
granularity
of the performance statistics
D.VoIP Monitoring Manager is a text-based tool that has the look and feel of a CLI and can
be embedded
into Cajun switches as an add-on feature
Answer:A C

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NO.12 A customer has purchased 20 Avaya IP telephones over a period of three years.
Knowing that the IEEE
802.3af standard has been ratified, the customer decided to purchase a C360-PWR switch to
provide
in-line power to the IP telephones. However, only 15 of the phones power up when they are
connected to
the C360-PWR. Upon investigation you discover the five phones which would not receive
power from
C360-PWR are Generation 1 models that are not 802.3af compliant. Which three methods
should you
use to power these phones? (Choose three.)
A.356A adapter
B.individual power brick
C.1152A1 mid-span unit with adapter
D.other vendor 802.3af compliant device
E.IP phone 4600 Ethernet 30A base switch
Answer:B C E

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NO.13 In an S87xx MultiConnect, Port Network 18 has no IPSI. Which command will show the
IPSI that is in
control of that Port Network?
A.Status fiber 18
B.List ipserver-interface
C.Status port-network 18
D.Status sys-link 18a0101 current
Answer:D

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NO.14 A company purchases the right to use Avaya IP Softphone for 100 stations. The users
complain that
the call center buttons (AUX, After-Call, Login, and Logout) programmed on their stations no
longer work
as expected. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
A.TCP/UDP port blockage in the corporate WAN
B.improper administration of the stations in the PBX
C.users trying to use the application for non-supported functions
D.improper installation of the Avaya IP Softphone application on the users' PCs
Answer:C

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NO.15 An Avaya IP phone is connected over a WAN link to the main office where the TN799
CLAN and
TN2302 IP Media Processor are located. The Avaya IP phone is registered properly on the
CLAN. A DCP
phone calls the Avaya IP phone and the call is answered. The audio quality is poor in both
directions, but
the call stays up until one of the users disconnects. Which two conditions cause this audio
quality problem?
(Choose two.)
A.insufficient IP media processor resources
B.use of the G.711 codec to transmit audio over the WAN link
C.implementing Weighted Fair Queuing (WFQ) on the edge router
D.intermittent connectivity between the Avaya IP phone and the CLAN
Answer:B C

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NO.16 Which two Avaya Communication Manager commands display the VoIP statistics of a
specific extension
active on call? (Choose two.)
A.status station
B.display station
C.list trace station
D.display trace station
Answer:A C

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NO.17 In an Enterprise Survivable Server (ESS) scenario, how do you save translations to
your ESS server?
A.save trans
B.save trans all
C.save ESS settings
D.save trans cluster ESS
Answer:B

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NO.18 Which two parameters are found in an H.323 Signaling Group form? (Choose two.)
A.QoS parameters
B.a default gateway
C.the far-end network region
D.a TN799 C-LAN for call signaling
Answer:C D

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NO.19 DHCP option codes 128 to 254 are reserved for site-specific options. A single number
out of this range
is commonly utilized by vendors to configure their Avaya IP phones via DHCP (Option 176).
Which
additional option code supports vendor-specific options?
A.3
B.23
C.43
D.63
Answer:C

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NO.20 You have an S8720 Server optioned for Software Duplication. Which Ethernet port is
the Duplication
Link assigned to?
A.Ethernet 1
B.Ethernet 2
C.Ethernet 3
D.Ethernet 4
Answer:B

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Exam Code: 6002-1
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Aura(TM) Communication Manager and CM Messaging (R6.0) Implementation Exam)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 69 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

6002-1 (Avaya Aura(TM) Communication Manager and CM Messaging (R6.0) Implementation Exam) Free Demo Download: http://www.it-tests.com/6002-1.html

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