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Exam Code: C4090-456
Exam Name: IBM XIV Storage System Technical Solutions V4
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C4090-456 Practice Test Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-08-03

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Exam Code: A4040-224
Exam Name: Assessment: Power Systems with POWER7 Common Technical Sales Skills -v2
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NO.1 Which two of the following IBM products assure online data migration? (Select two)
A. DS8870
B. XIV Storage System
C. SAN Volume Controller
D. DS5000series
E. FlashSystems
Answer: B,C

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NO.2 What is a benefit of the XIV system's grid-based architecture?
A. differentcapacitydrives can be mixed within the system but not in the same module
B. any module can act as an interface module
C. SSDs must be installed in the interface modules only
D. each module contains processing, caching and storage
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which tool can natively manage an XIV system?
A. Veritas StorageFoundationSuite
B. IBM Systems Director
C. Tivoli Storage Manager
D. Tivoli Storage Productivity Center
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which statement is true when comparing an XIV Model 214 to Model 114?
A. Model 214 supports more HDDs in a fully configured system.
B. Model 214 supports ECoFconnectivityover dedicated ports.
C. Model 214 adds aniSCSI 10Gb/s configuration option.
D. Model 214 adds SSD caching functionality.
Answer: C

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NO.5 A customer has purchased a six module XIV Gen3 for a new project, which is located in a new
data center. A new requirement states that a portion of the project data must be replicated to an
existing six module XIV (Gen2) at the customer's primary data center, 500 km away. The target XIV
has sufficient capacity but no Fibre Channel connectivity exists between sites. The customer
therefore decides to use iSCSI replication.
Which upgrade is required to meet the requirements?
A. add modules to both XIV systems
B. add modules to the new (primary) XIV Gen3
C. add modules to the existing (secondary) XIV
D. replace the new (primary) XIV Gen3 InfiniBand switches with Ethernet switches
Answer: C

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NO.6 Based on best practice, what is the optimal number of SVC Fibre Channel connections to a full
15 module XIV?
A. connect the SVC to 6 XIV ports
B. connect the SVC to 9 XIV ports
C. connect the SVCto 12 XIV ports
D. connecttheSVCtol6XlVports
Answer: C

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NO.7 What is the fastest way to see which volume is receiving the most IOPS on the XIV?
A. openXIVTopinthedefaultview
B. opentheXIV GUI and checkthe volume view
C. run XCLI command xcii volume_max_iops_list
D. open XIV GUI and select the first 12 volumes, and then next 12 and so on
Answer: A

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NO.8 On an XIV system, what factor must be considered when using snapshots?
A. snapshots must be unlocked before restore
B. restoring a snapshot invalidates all earlier snapshots
C. snapshots cannot be moved independently to another storage pool
D. 17 GB of hard capacity is immediately consumed at creation per snapshot
Answer: C

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Exam Code: P2090-045
Exam Name: IBM InfoSphere Information Server for Data Integration Fundamentals Technical Mastery Test v1
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P2090-045 Dumps PDF Total Q&A: 55 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-07-13

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Exam Code: P2180-023
Exam Name: IBM PureApplication System Technical Sales Mastery Test v1
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P2180-023 Test Questions Total Q&A: 53 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-07-13

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Exam Code: A4040-224
Exam Name: Assessment: Power Systems with POWER7 Common Technical Sales Skills -v2
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A4040-224 Exam Cost Total Q&A: 85 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-07-13

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NO.1 The IBM CE is only person allowed to perform certain system level operations on IBM
PureApplication System. Name some of those operations. (Choose two.)
A. The IBM CE uses a special user id named "ibmce" which is hidden from the user console
B. The IBM CE needs to request a special password tied to the system from IBM Support
C. The Client Hardware Administrator will need to enable login for the IBM CE
D. The IBM CE has full administrative permissions to the system
Answer: B,C

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NO.2 Figure 1 illustrates a typical ordering of parts startup within the Virtual Systems pattern editor.
What can you deduce from it? (Choose three.)
A. There are two default constraints that cannot be modified or deleted
B. The IBM HTTP server and the custom nodes can start in any order
C. The Deployment Manager and DB2 parts are involved in a default constraint
D. The DB2 part has to start first
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.3 When creating a script package archive which file is used to define all the configuration
parameters that can be specified as part of the deployment process?
A. cbscript.json
B. config.sh
C. virtualimage.properties
D. appmodel.json
Answer: A

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NO.4 A customer has created a virtual application that he wants to customize for two different
scenarios: 1.Development - where the workload demands are known to be low and predictable
2.Production where workload demands are erratic and in which case they want to incorporate a
scaling policy to dynamically scale VMs based on workload demand How can he best leverage IBM
PureApplication System to accomplish this task?
A. Create two different patterns, one for the development scenario and one for the production one
B. Create a development and a production environment profile for deployment of the virtual
application
C. Define two distinct layers in the virtual application pattern and assign the components and
policies accordingly
D. Create the virtual application as a reusable component that he can then augment for the
production scenario
Answer: C

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NO.5 The Publish function in Rational Application Developer (RAD), when used in conjunction with
IBM PureApplication System, does one of the following:
A. Adds the application to an existing Virtual Application pattern and completes any linkages
between components
B. Creates a new Virtual Application pattern and populates it with the application from RAD
C. Adds the application to an existing Virtual Application pattern and starts a new instance of the
pattern
D. Adds the application to an existing Virtual Application pattern
Answer: D

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NO.6 What are available administration interfaces to IBM PureApplication System? (Choose three.)
A. Web Console
B. Command line tool
C. Representational state transfer (REST) APIs
D. Eclipse based plug-in
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.7 Add-ons are specialized scripts that customize virtual machine configurations providing fine
tuning for hardware and operating system configurations. Although add-ons have been
implemented modeling script packages, there are subtle differences between them. Which of the
following is NOT true?
A. You can not specify the order of execution of add-ons in the pattern editor
B. Add-ons always run at system creation time, never user-initiated or at deletion time
C. Add-ons always run before any user supplied script packages
D. Add-ons are pre-defined in IBM PureApplication System. You cannot supply your own
Answer: D

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NO.8 An administrator on IBM PureApplication System wants to delegate his current role for catalog
content, virtual instances, and pattern types to another user. Which of the following settings would
the administrator grant?
A. Cloud administration
B. Workload resource administration
C. Hardware administration
D. Security administration
Answer: B

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