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Exam Code: C2090-417
Exam Name: IBM WebSphere Information Analyzer V8.0
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Exam Code: C4040-124
Exam Name: Power Systems with POWER7 and IBM i Sales Skills -v2
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Exam Code: C2020-180
Exam Name: IBM Cognos 8 BI Professional
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NO.1 What must be installed prior to AuditStage?
A. .NET Framework
B. Information Server
C. Java Run-time Environment
D. Microsoft Data Access Components
Answer: D

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NO.2 A company has embarked on the implementation of a centralized data warehouse.
Data Quality Assessment will be addressed at which two points in the implementation
project? (Choose
two.)
A. periodically during post-implementation
B. during the initial project plan development
C. during the analysis phase before actual design begins
D. during acceptance testing conducted after construction but before the warehouse is turned
over for use
Answer: CD

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NO.3 Which two roles must be assigned to a user to complete the configuration of
Information Analyzer?
(Choose two.)
A. data administrator
B. project administrator
C. database administrator
D. production administrator
Answer: AB

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NO.4 Given a review of a new column analysis, which review processes must be completed
in sequence?
A. domain analysis, then format analysis
B. format analysis, then properties analysis
C. domain analysis, then rebuild inferences
D. properties analysis, then classification analysis
Answer: C

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NO.5 For a data quality assessment project, which three roles are involved throughout the
assessment?
(Choose three.)
A. data modeler
B. data analyst
C. ETL developer
D. business analyst
E. business subject matter expert
Answer: BDE

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NO.6 Which two connectors are automatically available when defining a data source to
Information Analyzer?
(Choose two.)
A. ODBCConnector
B. JDBCConnector
C. DataStageConnector
D. WebSphereMQConnector
Answer: AD

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NO.7 When planning a data quality assessment project, application owners have expressed
reluctance to
provide real-time access to their source systems using Information Analyzer.
Which two concepts should be discussed and understood by the assessment team? (Choose
two.)
A. data standardization needed
B. data transformation rules needed
C. timeliness of data and its effect on structural metadata
D. timeliness of data and its effect on data assessment results
Answer: CD

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NO.8 Which two statements are true when importing metadata describing a data source?
(Choose two.)
A. Column definitions can be changed by the user during import.
B. Metadata can be discovered by using the Identify Next Level function.
C. Discovered metadata is automatically imported into the analysis database.
D. Metadata for table and column definitions can be discovered using the Identify All Levels
function.
Answer: BD

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Exam Code: C2090-312
Exam Name: IBM DB2 11 DBA for z/OS
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Exam Code: A4040-124
Exam Name: Assessment: Power Systems with POWER7 and IBM i Sales Skills -v2
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Exam Code: M2010-727
Exam Name: Cloud and Smarter Infrastructure Cloud & Service Management Sales Mastery v1
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NO.1 What problems does automated discovery solve for your customer?
A. None, developers always communicate with IT to let them know where applications are deployed
B. Automated discovery finds new applications as they are deployed and identifies where they are
running, saving the customer time in tracking and providing an accurate topology in the user
interface in case of system issues
C. None, your customer deploys their applications in the cloud and traditional APM tools cannot
monitor that workload
Answer: B

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NO.2 What are three key benefits of Optimize?
A. Breadth of searchable data, built-in expertise, and embedded analytics
B. Improve user satisfaction, simplify IT administration, and gain operational insight
C. Simplified behavioral learning, heterogeneous environment support and machine learning
algorithms
D. Improve user satisfaction, built-in expertise and machine learning algorithms
Answer: B

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NO.3 Virtualization optimization helps companies tackle the challenges of?
A. Patch
B. Storage
C. Application deployment
D. All of the above
Answer: C

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NO.4 Application Performance Management identifies the early occurrence and root cause of
performance issues throughout the application lifecycle. Which of the following are advantages of
SaaS over on-premise solutions?
A. The ability to download agents and point them to dashboards
B. Application dashboards that give users a quick, intuitive way to assess the health of what matters
most to them, application health.
C. Subscription pricing provides immediate total cost of ownership advantages
D. Diagnose and fix system problems and then notify stake holders
Answer: B

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NO.5 What solutions are the building blocks towards an agile, flexible and optimized environment?
A. Virtualization Optimization
B. Cloud Enabled Data Center
C. Virtualization Optimization and the Cloud Enabled Datacenter
D. None of the above
Answer: D

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NO.6 IBM has identified a market shift in buyers from traditional IT toward what role?
A. Marketing
B. Operations
C. Line of business
Answer: A

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NO.7 The Endpoint and Mobility Management portfolio of solutions and capabilities align with which
IBM division?
A. Collaboration Solutions
B. Cloud & Smarter Infrastructure
C. Smarter Solutions
Answer: B

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NO.8 What are the most common challenges that organizations are facing when it comes to mobile
management?
A. Increased severity and frequency of security attacks.
B. Increasing infrastructure complexity and unique mobile requirements are time consuming and
costly.
C. Poor BYOD strategies and incentives are having a greater impact on productivity and can result in
losing potential talent and new recruits.
D. All of the Above
E. B & C only.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: C2090-552
Exam Name: IBM Optim Implementation for Distributed Systems (2009)
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Exam Code: A2010-565
Exam Name: Assess: IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 Implementation
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NO.1 Which two statements are true about installing IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 (ITNMJ on
a Solaris platform? {Choose two.)
A. The ITNM destination directory must be owned as root.
B. If ITNM is installed as a non-root user, all future Tivoli products must be installed as the same user.
C. The setup_setuid_as_root.sh script must be run as root if ITNM is installed and will run as non-root.
D. The setup_setuid_as_root.sh script must be run as non-root if ITNM is installed and will run as
non-root.
E. Multiple ITNM installations on the same server can be installed with both the root account and a
non-root account.
Answer: B,C

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NO.2 What is the primary issue with installing IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 (ITNM) as a root
user on a single UNIX system in combination with other Tivoli products?
A. The system will not run properly as a root user.
B. ITNM might not be compatible with other Tivoli products.
C. There are no issues related to installing as root on a UNIX system.
D. There are extra post-installation configuration steps to complete in order to run the core components
as the root user.
Answer: B

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NO.3 How should an administrator deploy IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 using a command line
installation on a Windows system?
A. console_install.exe
B. launchpad_console.exe
C. launchpad.exe -console
D. install.exe -i console
Answer: D

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NO.4 The scope of the discovery contains the IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 (ITNM) server
and the gateway trace file shows that this is being used successfully as the correct NcpServerEntity.
However, the isolated suppression method is not working. What would cause this?
A. The ITNM server is not being directly polled for status.
B. The ITNM server is not connected to the rest of the topology.
C. There was no SNMP access to the ITNM server so the IP address is not known.
D. The Root Cause Analysis plug-in has not been explicitly configured to use the ITNM server.
Answer: B

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NO.5 In IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 what leads to Fatal messages in the message level log
of a ncp process?
A. process is hung
B. process is terminated
C. process has not started
D. process is running with errors
Answer: B

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NO.6 In IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 given a requirement to discover a new node but not
place it in the topology correctly, which two tasks must be performed when doing partial rediscovery?
(Choose two.)
A. ensure the option Network Discovery Configuration > Advanced > Enable Rediscovery Rebuild Layers
is checked
B. ensure the necessary agents are enabled under Network Discovery Configuration > Partial
Rediscovery Agents tab
C. ensure the option Network Discovery Configuration > Advanced > Enable Rediscovery Rebuild Layers
is unchecked
D. ensure the option Network Discovery Configuration > Advanced > Enable Rediscovery of Related
Devices is checked
E. ensure the option Network Discovery Configuration > Advanced > Enable Rediscovery of Related
Devices is unchecked
Answer: B,C

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NO.7 What does this entry do in the DiscoCollectorFinderSeeds.DOMAIN.cfg in IBM Tivoli Network Manager
IP Edition V3.9 (ITNM).?
insert into collectorFinder.collectorRules ( m_Host, m_Port, m_NumRetries ) values ( "172.16.25.1", 8082,
5 ) ;
A. The collector agent running on the ITNM server connects to the EMS running on port 8082 to collect its
data.
B. The collector agent running on the ITNM server connects to the collector running on port 8082 to
collect its data.
C. The collector agent running on 172 16 25 1 connects locally to the collector running on port 8082 to
collect its data.
D. The collector agent running on the ITNM server connects to the collector running on 172.16.25 1 port
8082 to collect its data.
Answer: D

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NO.8 A customer wants to add some logic around specific IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 poller
generated events. Where would an administrator put this logic?
A. add an exception filter clause to the ncmonitor.noEvent table
B. modify the nco_p_ncpmonitor rules file to include the required logic
C. modify the ncp_poller event generation ruleset to prevent the events from being sent
D. change the EventGatewaySchema.cfg configuration file to prevent the events from reaching the
ObjectServer
Answer: B

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Exam Code: P2070-074
Exam Name: IBM Information Mgmt Content Manager Tech Mastery Test V1
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NO.1 Event logging is stored in:
A. A file
B. The Library Server Database
C. The Resource Manager Database
D. The Websphere Database
Answer: B

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NO.2 What are the different Item Types that can be created in IBM Content Manger v8?
A. Item and Document
B. Resource and File
C. Item, Document, Resource and Document Part
D. Item, Document, Resource and File
Answer: C

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NO.3 In IBM Content Manager v8.4, the WEBi Client is available as well as the eClient. What
would
determine your choice of a client as of the Webi version 1.0.3?
A. eClient can do email
B. Client for Windows cannot do email
C. WEBi does not yet recognize advanced document routing decision making
D. eClient can recognize versions in CM
Answer: C

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NO.4 Event logging is set in the System Administration tool for: .?
A. Each itemtype part
B. All itemtypes alike
C. An itemtype
D. Worknode
Answer: C

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NO.5 IBM Content Manager v8.4.1 added an important functionality. What is it?
A. Ability to call out to FileNet BPM processes
B. LDAP integration capability with Microsoft Active Directory
C. Integration with TSM DR-550 Server
D. Use of Tivoli Total Access Manager in lieu of AD
Answer: A

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NO.1 How can discovery be configured to run at 7:00 p.m. every night?
A. run the script $PRECI`SION_HOME/scripts/perl/scripts/ncp_autodiscovery.pl 1900
B. edit the SPRECISIONJHOMBdisco/stitchers/FullDiscovery.stch file and add in the line within
the StitcherTrigger section:
ActOnDemand(( m_TimeOfDay) values (1900););
C. edit the $PRECISION_HOME/disco/stitchers/FullDiscovery.stch file and add in the line within
the StitcherTrigger section:
ActOnTimedTrigger(( m_TimeOfDay) values (1900););
D. edit the $PRECISION_HOME/disco/stitchers/FullDiscovery stch stitcher and add in the line
within the StitcherRules section:
ActOnDemand(( m_TimeOfDay) values (1900););
Answer: C

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NO.2 In IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 given a requirement to discover a new node but not
place it in the topology correctly, which two tasks must be performed when doing partial rediscovery?
(Choose two.)
A. ensure the option Network Discovery Configuration > Advanced > Enable Rediscovery Rebuild Layers
is checked
B. ensure the necessary agents are enabled under Network Discovery Configuration > Partial
Rediscovery Agents tab
C. ensure the option Network Discovery Configuration > Advanced > Enable Rediscovery Rebuild Layers
is unchecked
D. ensure the option Network Discovery Configuration > Advanced > Enable Rediscovery of Related
Devices is checked
E. ensure the option Network Discovery Configuration > Advanced > Enable Rediscovery of Related
Devices is unchecked
Answer: B,C

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NO.3 A customer wants to deploy IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 (ITNM) in their environment.
They plan to discover and monitor specific various network devices and servers that are throughout their
enterprise. The customer wants to ensure that they manage only a list of devices in their network with a
specific naming convention. They currently keep track of these devices using a CSV file of IP addresses,
hostnames and locations and have SNMP and ping access to these systems. Currently their DNS server
and SysName naming conventions are not consistent. The customer also wants to ensure that they do
not discover IP addresses outside the CSV list.
Which discovery seeding method best suits their ITNM configuration?
A. configure the Collector Finder by seeding the discovery and converting the CSV file to an XML file
B. configure the Ping Finder by adding a list of subnets from the list of IP addresses using the CSV file
C. configure the File Finder to point to the CSV file on the Network Manager server with a comma
delimiter
D. ensure Feedback is enabled and then configure the Ping Finder and the File Finder by adding a list of
subnets using the CSV file
Answer: C

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NO.4 A custom event has been added requiring the creation of a new EventMap. How is this EventMap
associated with the RCA plug-in?
A. register the EventMap with the RCA plug-in using the ncp_gwplugins.pl script
B. ensure that the Eventld is mapped to the EventMap in the NcoGatelnserts.cfg file
C. edit the EventGatewaySchema.cfg and include the EventMap in the ncp2nco section
D. no action needed - any EventMap in the EventGatewaySchema.cfg file will be passed to the RCA
plug-in by default
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is the primary issue with installing IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 (ITNM) as a root
user on a single UNIX system in combination with other Tivoli products?
A. The system will not run properly as a root user.
B. ITNM might not be compatible with other Tivoli products.
C. There are no issues related to installing as root on a UNIX system.
D. There are extra post-installation configuration steps to complete in order to run the core components
as the root user.
Answer: B

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NO.6 How should an administrator deploy IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 using a command line
installation on a Windows system?
A. console_install.exe
B. launchpad_console.exe
C. launchpad.exe -console
D. install.exe -i console
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which restriction is in place when using a silent install mode?
A. The installation process cannot be canceled at any time
B. The silent install file cannot be edited after it has been created.
C. The silent install file cannot be moved between hosts and then reused.
D. The silent install mode is only suitable for a default standard installation
Answer: A

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NO.8 A customer wants to add some logic around specific IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 poller
generated events. Where would an administrator put this logic?
A. add an exception filter clause to the ncmonitor.noEvent table
B. modify the nco_p_ncpmonitor rules file to include the required logic
C. modify the ncp_poller event generation ruleset to prevent the events from being sent
D. change the EventGatewaySchema.cfg configuration file to prevent the events from reaching the
ObjectServer
Answer: B

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NO.1 What steps should a Primary Support Provider take before escalating an issue to IBM
Customer Support1?
A. Ask the customer to download product documentation
B. Forward emails from the customer to IBM Customer Support
C. Run IBM Support Assistant Lite, get all MustGather information, search the IBM Knowledge Base
D. All of the above
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is the recommended IBM technology that may be used to view and control remote
environments in order to troubleshoot an issue?
A. Same time
B. Fix Central
C. Assist On-Site
D. Electronic Service Request
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which party owns the responsibility of communicating a Problem Management Record (PMR)
solution to the end customer?
A. The Primary Support Provider will provide the final solution to the customer because they own
the relationship with the customer
B. Since they are most familiar with the code, the IBM Developer will provide the final solution to
the customer
C. The IBM Customer Support engineer will provide the final solution to the customer, because they
own the relationship with the customer.
D. Because both parties have a case open on the issue, the Primary Support Provider and the IBM
Customer Support engineer are required to jointly present the final solution to the customer
Answer: A

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Reference:https://public.dhe.ibm.com/partnerworld/pub/swg/tivoli/lessons/lesson_1_ibm_softwar
e _support_provider_overview_v11.03.21.pdf(slide 11)

NO.4 When should a Primary Support Provider use the telephone to communicate with a customer
that has logged a support call with them?
A. When the customer has to be told bad news
B. When the customer is in a different time zone
C. When the message includes links to documentation
D. When the message has to be conveyed to more than one person
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which upload protocols are supported by the ECuRep Tool?
A. SCP , TCP , FTP and Secure FTP
B. TCP , UUCP , HTTP and HTTPS
C. E-mail, HTTP and HTTPS, FTP and Secure FTP
D. E-mail, UUCP , SCP , TCP
Answer: C

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Reference:http://www-05.ibm.com/de/support/ecurep/send.html

NO.6 Which of these best describes a Primary Support Provider's Level 1 Customer Support
responsibilities?
A. Taking the first support call from their customer and escalating it to IBM
B. Logging all calls in a call tracking system and utilizing the tools available to troubleshoot the issue.
C. Testing new software versions of IBM products and communicating the release of said software
to customers that have purchased the software from IBM.
D. Incorporating and testing any program fix provided by IBM Customer Support (as appropriate),
and delivering or communicating the problem resolution, bypass, circumvention, or other notice of
restriction to the customer.
Answer: B

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e _support_provider_overview_v11.03.21.pdf

NO.7 What is required of the customer when a Primary Support Provider wishes to escalate an issue
to IBM Customer Support?
A. The customer must open a Problem Management Report (PMR) through the Service Request (SR)
Portal.
B. The customer must grant IBM Customer Support access to their systems so they can upgrade
their software.
C. There is no customer requirement, the Primary Support Provider will escalate the issue to IBM
Customer Support
D. The customer must install the latest version and patches of the software before IBM Customer
Support can be engaged.
Answer: C

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NO.8 When troubleshooting, it is imperative to gather log files from what time period?
A. After the issue occurred
B. Before the issue occurred
C. When the issued occurred
D. One month before and one month after the issue occurred
Answer: B

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NO.1 There are many applications deployed in a large WebSphere Application Server cluster. A
system administrator is required to give Configurator role access to a developer for a single
application deployed in that cluster.
How should the administrator meet this requirement and restrict Configurator role access for a
single application?
A. Create a J2C authentication alias for that developer.
B. Create an Administrative user role and provide Configurator access to the developer.
C. Create an Administrative group role and provide Configurator access to the developer.
D. Create an administrative authorization group, scope it only for that application and create an
Administrative user or group role to give Configurator access to the developer.
Answer: A

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NO.2 A WebSphere Application Server cell was configured with a deployment manager node and a
custom node. An operator manually changed some configuration files in the custom node, and the
node became out of synch with the master repository.
The system administrator used the Synchronize button in the system administration session of the
Integrated Solutions Console (ISC) to try to resynchronize the node, but the node remained out of
sync.
What should the administrator do to fix it?
A. Use the Full Resynchronize button.
B. Invoke "sync" operation on NodeSync MBean.
C. Recreate the custom profile with the same name without deleting the node.
D. Manually copy all the deployment manager configuration files to the custom node.
Answer: A

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NO.3 A customer has enabled LTPA as their authentication mechanism and has web resources that
are not secured by proper security constraints. A system administrator is required to
ensure that all web resources are secured.
How should the administrator accomplish this?
A. Enable "Authenticate when any URI is accessed".
B. Enable "Authenticate only when the URI is protected".
C. Enable "Authenticate only when the URI is protected".
D. Map the application security roles to the configured user registry's groups.
Answer: A

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NO.4 A JAX-WS EJB stateless session bean web service needs to be accessed by consumers
outside the corporate domain.
Which configuration will help a system administrator meet the requirement?
A. Open firewall ports for both bootstrap and orb listener ports within the cell.
B. Configure plug-in in the DMZ to send request to the cluster members.
C. Configure on demand router (ODR) in the DMZ to send requests to the cluster members.
D. Configure HTTP tunneling to send the client-side Object Request Broker (ORB) request to the
server-side ORB.
Answer: A

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NO.5 A system administrator runs aPythonscript that creates and configures several servers and
realizes that the script fails before completing. Although many tasks succeeded, they are rolled back
when the script fails.
Before running the script again, what can the administrator add to the script after each task so the
completed tasks are committed even if other tasks fail?
A. AdminApp.update ()
B. AdminConfig.save()
C. AdminControl.invoke(server, 'sync')
D. AdminTask.backupJobManager('server')
Answer: C

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NO.6 A system administrator needs to install WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment
V8.5.5 multiple times and would like to automate the task of installing the product. The
administrator wants to create a response file based on an initial installation and use this for future
installations.
How can the administrator accomplish this task?
A. Use the IBM Packaging Utility.
B. Use the Installation Manager console mode.
C. Complete a silent installation with the -log option.
D. Start the Installation Manager GUI with the -record option.
Answer: D

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The workload of this web application is expected to increase during special marketing campaigns.
Which one of the following topologies should the administrator configure to address the
requirements for this new environment?
A. A Liberty collective environment with autonomic managers and on demand router (ODR).
B. A flexible management environment supported by one admin agent running in each node of
thecell.
C. A dynamic cluster with autonomic managers, application placement controller and intelligent
routers.
D. A heterogeneous cell with enough servers to support the peak load spread across multiple nodes
on the same machine.
Answer: C

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NO.8 What does the administrator need to do to verify a successful installation?
A. Launch the Installation Manager GUI, and verify the installation by going to File -> View Installed
Packages.
B. Run the command IBMIM listlnstalledPackages and check that the appropriate WebSphere
Application Server package is listed.
C. Check for INSTCONFSUCCESS message at the end of the <webSphere Application Server install
directory><log directory>log.txt file.
D. Use the installer command to compare the checksum of the product file to the correct checksum
value in the bill-of-materials file and make sure that the checksums match.
Answer: C

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NO.1 What is a characteristic of a view that hasactivated workflow in Rational Focal Point (RFP)?
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C. Users can only update the current state with defined transitions.
D. It is possible to have several prerequisites that need to be fulfilled before transitions can be made.
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A. unclear or changing requirements
B. slowdowns in global economy
C. uninformed stakeholders
D. competing products hitting the market earlier
Answer: A

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NO.3 Where does the Workspaces link in the top menu take the user?
A. to a list of workspaces the user has access to
B. to a list of workspace templates
C. to a list of all workspaces contained in the database
D. to a list of workspaces the selected module is contained within
Answer: A

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NO.4 A software developer wants to keep key stakeholders updated on the progress of the product
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feature of Rational Focal Point best meets these developer requirements?
A. workspaces
B. Priority Overview
C. public homepage
D. workspace export
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is the TOP challenge faced by product teams that is met by Rational Focal Point (RFP)?
A. decision process not based on objective information(politics)
B. unwillingness to stop projects underway
C. poorly defined portfolio decision criteria
D. inability to properly value product opportunities
Answer: D

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NO.6 What is NOT a step in the review process?
A. review the Action List
B. determine ownership of neededcorrections
C. prioritize the requirements
D. estimate the consequences of unfulfilled checkpoints
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which chart does a user right-click to display Disagreement Indicators?
A. Bar Chart
B. Stacked Bar Chart
C. XYChart
D. Radar Chart
Answer: B

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A. history attributes to organize and display working history of the project
B. e-mail notifications, which provide rankings as to importance and most use
C. data stored in one database, the Gantt chart andintegration to MS Project
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Exam Name: IBM WebSphere Application Server Developer Tools V8.5 with Liberty Profile
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Exam Code: C2010-505
Exam Name: IBM SmartCloud Control Desk V7.5.1 IT Asset Management Implementation
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Exam Code: A2040-408
Exam Name: Assessment: IBM Notes and Domino 9.0 Social Edition Application Development Update
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NO.1 Which two Software Catalog cron task parameters are required when the PARTIALRUN option is
set to 7?
A. PORT
B. History
C. Enabled
D. HOSTNAME
E. PASSWORD
Answer: C,D

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NO.2 What is required before a license can be put into the ACTIVE status?
A. The license must be related to a General Ledger account.
B. The license must be related to an item in the Item Master.
C. The license must have at least one row in the Associated Products section.
D. The license must be allocated to one or more item(s) in the Allocation section.
Answer: A

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NO.3 What are two components of a work plan?
A. Items
B. Labor
C. Materials
D. Failure Codes
E. Classifications
Answer: C,E

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NO.4 Which functionality can be used to copy predefined values to a Service Request?
A. Quick Insert
B. Reconciliation
C. Service Catalog
D. Ticket Template
Answer: D

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NO.5 II the hostname and IP address of an asset discovery solution changed, which IBM Tivoll
Integration Composer component needs to be updated?
A. Schema
B. Mapping
C. Data Source
D. Data Destination
Answer: D

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NO.6 The Promoted Flag in the Deployed Asset application is used to indicate what about the
deployed asset?
A. It has been promoted to a discovered asset.
B. It has been promoted to an authorized asset.
C. It has been created by the promotion of an asset.
D. It has been created by the promotion of a deployed asset.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which application allows licenses to be associated with contract line items?
A. Licenses
B. Master Contracts
C. Deployed Software
D. Software Contracts
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which two tasks are performed in the Receiving application?
A. return items to vendor
B. receive purchase order line items
C. receive purchase request line items
D. issue received items to the Incident application
E. issue received items to the Service Request application
Answer: C,E

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Exam Code: C4070-622
Exam Name: System z Business Resiliency Solution Selling
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Exam Code: C4060-156
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NO.1 A customer is documenting their Disaster Recovery process, and is considering all aspects of
running the business.
The following elements have been identified as essential:
-Secondary data center location and equipment -Key responsibilities of critical business units
-Up-to-date emergency contact information for all staff
In addition to these elements, which personnel should be listed as essential to be actively engaged
in the event of a disaster?
A. Mid-level management
Storage administrators
Application development programmer(s)
Network administrator(s)
B. System programmer(s)
Performance and capacity management team
Network administrator(s)
Operations analyst
C. Workload schedulers
System operator(s)
Storage administrator(s)
Disaster Recovery Manager
D. Database administrator(s)
System programmer(s)
Network administrator(s)
Disaster Recovery manager
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following considered as an element of High Availability for the System z platform?
A. GRS STAR
B. Capacity Backup (CBU)
C. Sysplex Failure Management (SPM)
D. Modified Indirect Data Address Word (MIDAW) facility
Answer: C

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NO.3 A customer's service level agreement has the following components and configuration
characteristics:
-RTO=24 hours -RPO=1 hour -Flash Copy to a single set of disks at a remote site -Tape backup once
per day
What would be the state of the data if a disaster occurred during a resynchronization process?
A. There would be some data loss, but the data would need to be resynchronized.
B. There would be some data loss, but RPO and RTO would support service level agreements.
C. The data would be unreliable and their RTO and RPQ would exceed service level agreements.
D. The data would be reliable with the tape backup, and support the RTO, but the RPO would
exceed service level agreements.
Answer: C

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4. When considering an environment with one zEnterprise server (CEO) and one instance of z/OS,
which of the following contributes to High Availability?
A. Parallel sysplex
B. Application failover
C. Processor Unit Sparing
D. Multiple copies of the data
Answer: C

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5. Which of the following are typically included as a part of the services component in any of the
GDPS family of products?
A. Project planning Local field support Installation assistance tools Web based training programs
B. Disaster recovery planning Development of test methodology Network implementation services
Remote implementation assistance
C. Availability planning Onsite education and training Configuration recommendations Installation
and customization assistance
D. Sizing tools TCO cost recovery tools Workload and batch analysis tools Capacity and performance
monitoring tools
Answer: C

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6. Which of the following should be included in a manufacturing customer's Business Resilience
plan?
A. Supply chain management procedure
B. Security badge replacement procedure
C. Process to record employee time cards
D. Procurement and capital acquisition processes
Answer: A

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7. A customer has an RTO of 1 to 2 hours, and an RPO of <10 seconds. The primary concerns are
to protect against a regional failure and the cost of the solution. Which of the following supports
these requirements?
A. GDPS/XRC
B. GDPSMZGM
C. GDPS/PPRC
D. GDPS/Active Active
Answer: A

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Exam Code: C2090-555
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Exam Code: A2010-599
Exam Name: IBM Tivoli Storage Productivity Center V5.1 Implementation
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Exam Code: M2020-229
Exam Name: IBM SPSS Predictive Analytics Sales Mastery v1
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NO.1 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, which statement is true regarding the select statement of Client 2 if both of the clients are
connected to the same logged database?
A. Client 2 will select the rows that had col1=20 and were updated to have col1=25 by Client 1.
B. Client 2 will get an error that the "record is locked" or the "table is locked".
C. Client 2 will keep waiting for client 1 to finish its transaction.
D. Client 2 will return successfully without selecting any rows.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which keyword is used to determine whether a comparison is true for every value returned from a sub
query?
A. NOT
B. ALL
C. SOME
D. EVERY
Answer: B

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NO.3 User A creates a user defined routine. Which privilege must be granted to other users before they can
use user A's UDR?
A. select on the tables used in the procedure
B. execute on the procedure
C. DBA on the database
D. resource on the database
Answer: B

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NO.4 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, which statement is true regarding the update statement of Client 2 if both of the clients are
connected to the same logged database?
A. Client 2 will update col1 of the rows having col1=20 that were updated to have col1 = 25 by client 1.
B. Client 2 will get an error that the "record is locked".
C. Client 2 will keep waiting for client 1 to finish its transaction.
D. Client 2 will return successfully without updating any rows.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which two statements are true about the COMMIT WORK statement? (Choose two.)
A. The keyword WORK is optional.
B. The COMMIT WORK statement releases all row locks but not table locks.
C. All of the successful modifications that the transaction makes are saved to disk when you issue a
COMMIT WORK statement.
D. A new transaction automatically starts after each COMMIT WORK or ROLLBACK WORK statement in
anonlogged database.
Answer: A,C

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NO.6 Which two steps are necessary to enable encryption with the Communication Support Modules?
(Choose two.)
A. Add an entry to the concsm.cfg file.
B. Add an entry to the options column of thesqlhosts file or registry.
C. Set the CSMENConconfig variable.
D. Set the encryption flag in theencrypt_db table in the sysadm database.
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 Why would you want to create a table with a lock mode row as opposed to a lock mode page?
A. to have the highest level of contention within transactions operating on the table
B. to reduce the number of locks when accessing rows out of the table
C. to have increased concurrency
D. to keep more information in memory for each locked row
Answer: C

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NO.8 You can use a "role" to enforce which two kinds of security or access control in an instance and/or its
data? (Choose two.)
A. Access to data within a table at a row and column level.
B. Access to data based on the types of tasks to be performed.
C. Control which user(s) may or may not create databases.
D. Control which user(s) may or may not execute administrative functions.
Answer: B,D

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Exam Name: IBM SmartCloud Enterprise+ (SCE+) Sales Mastery Test
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Exam Code: A2010-568
Exam Name: Assess: IBM Tivoli Composite Application Manager for Application Diagnostics V7.1 Implementation
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NO.1 Which parameter should be modified if the memory consumption of the Data Collector
is problematic?
A.memory.limit
B.internal.memory.limit
C.dc_collector_mem_limit
D.datacollector.memory.limit
Answer:B

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NO.2 Which three parameters are needed when configuring the J2EE Collector for Oracle?
(Choose three.)
A.Oracle Home
B.Application Server Hostname
C.Application Server IP Address
D.Application Server Control Password
E.Application Server Control Host Name
F.Application Server Control User Name
Answer:DEF

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NO.3 Which two parameters are needed when configuring the J2EE Data Collector for
JSAS on iPlanet
Application Server (IAS)? (Choose two.)
A.SJSAS Domain Admin Server Listen Home
B.Sun Java System Application Server Home
C.Sun Java System Application Server Version
D.SJSAS Domain Admin Server Listen Address
E.Sun Java System Application Server Operating System
Answer:BC

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NO.4 When viewing a stack trace in the Managing Server Visualization Engine, where is the
method found
which is causing the slow down in performance?
A.at the top of the trace
B.on page 2 of the trace
C.at the bottom of the trace
D.on the last page of the trace
Answer:A

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NO.5 Which level of monitoring is required to use the Memory Leak Diagnosis Page?
A.Level 1
B.Level 2
C.Level 2+
D.Level 3
Answer:D

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NO.6 Which three Java Runtime Environments can be used for IBM Tivoli Composite
Application Manager
for Application Diagnostics V7.1 Data Collectors? (Choose three.)
A.Sun Java SDK/JRE/JDK V7
B.Sun Java SDK/JRE/JDK V1.4.2
C.Sun Java SDK/JRE/JDK V6.0/1.6
D.Sun Java SDK/JRE/JDK V1.3 and above
E.IBM SDK for Multiplatforms Java 2 Technology Edition V1.4.2 SR1
F.IBM SDK for Multiplatforms Java 2 Technology Edition V1.3 and above
Answer:BCE

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NO.7 What is the attribute group name for the Apache Web Servers called?
A.KYJDATAS attribute group
B.KHTDATAS attribute group
C.KYNAPSRV attribute group
D.KHTAWEBSR attribute group
Answer:D

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NO.8 Which components in the Managing Server should be increased when over 5 million
transactions are
being stored daily for historical analysis?
A.Archive Agents
B.Message Dispatchers
C.Data Warehouse Agents
D.IBM Tivoli Monitoring Databases
Answer:A

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