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Exam Code: ML0-220
Exam Name: Certified Network Security Administrator..
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NO.1 The Musical Instrument Digital Interface (MIDI) standard is used for digital music.
Which OSI layer does this standard belong to?
A. Session
B. Data Link
C. Application
D. Presentation
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following is true about authentication?
A. Authentication means that information can be accessed when needed by authorized
personnel
B. Authentication means that passwords can be accessed when needed by authorized
personnel
C. Authentication means the positive verification of the user/device ma system
D. Authentication means that only authorized persons modify information
Answer: C

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NO.3 Your company's off site backup facility is intended to operate an information
processing facility, having no computer or
communications equipment, but having flooring, electrical wiring, air conditioning,
etc. This is better known as a____
A. Hot site
B. Duplicate processing facility
C. Cold site
D. Warm site
Answer: C

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NO.4 Firewalls at this level know a great deal about what is going on and can be very
selective in granting access:
A. Layer 3
B. Layer 4
C. Layer 6
D. Layer 7
Answer: D

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NO.5 Can a user use Personal Certificates to control server access?
A. SSL can also be used to verify the users' identity to the server
B. NO, there is no such method
C. It can be used through web security
D. None of the above
Answer: A

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NO.6 An alternate site configured with necessary system hardware, supporting
infrastructure and an on site staff able to respond to an
activation of a contingency plan 24 hours a day,7 days a week is a
A. Hot site
B. Cold site
C. Warm site
D. None of the above
Answer: A

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NO.7 What are the challenges associated with VPN implementation?
A. Complexity of infrastructure
B. Addressing and routing and administration
C. Difficulty with centralized management of client policy
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.8 The _____ application provides IP address-to-hostname or vice-versa lookup:
A. FTP
B. Telnet
C. DNS
D. ICMP
Answer: C

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Exam Code: SC0-501
Exam Name: Enterprise Security Implementation (ESI)
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Exam Code: SC0-471
Exam Name: Strategic Infrastructure Security
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NO.1 You have become the lead security professional for a mid-sized organization. You are currently
studying DNS issues, and configuration options. You come across the concepts of DNS Spoofing, and
investigate more. What is DNS Spoofing?
A. DNS Spoofing is when the DNS client submits a false DNS request to the DNS server, and the DNS
server responds with correct data.
B. DNS Spoofing is the DNS client submits a DNS request to the DNS server using a bogus IP address,
and the DNS server responds to the incorrect host.
C. DNS Spoofing is when a DNS Server responds to an unauthorized DNS client, providing that client
with name resolution.
D. DNS Spoofing is when a DNS client is forced to make a DNS query to an imposter DNS server, which
send the client to an imposter resource.
E. DNS spoofing is when a DNS server provides name resolution to clients that are located in a different
IP subnet than the server itself.
Answer: D

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NO.2 What type of cipher is used by an algorithm that encrypts data one bit at a time?
A. 64-bit encryption Cipher
B. Block Cipher
C. Stream Cipher
D. Diffuse Cipher
E. Split Cipher
Answer: C

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NO.3 You are working on the authentication systems in your network, and are concerned with your legacy
systems. In Windows NT 4.0, before Service Pack 4 (SP4), there were only two supported methods of
authentication. What were those two methods?
A. NetBIOS
B. LM
C. NTLM
D. NTLMv2
E. Kerberos
Answer: BC

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NO.4 During the review of the security logs you notice some unusual traffic. It seems that a user has
connected to your Web site ten times in the last week, and each time has visited every single page on the
site. You are concerned this may be leading up to some sort of attack. What is this user most likely getting
ready to do?
A. Mirror the entire web site.
B. Download entire DNS entries.
C. Scan all ports on a web server.
D. Perform a Distributed Denial of Service attack through the Web server.
E. Allow users to log on to the Internet without an ISP.
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is the name of the informational page that is relevant to a particular command in Linux?
A. Readme Page
B. Lnx_nfo Page
C. Man Page
D. X_Win Page
E. Cmd_Doc Page
Answer: C

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NO.6 To increase the security of your network and systems, it has been decided that EFS will be
implemented in the appropriate situations. Two users are working on a common file, and often email this
file back and forth between each other. Is this a situation where the use of EFS will create effective
security, and why (or why not)?
A. No, the security will remain the same since both users will share the same key for encryption.
B. Yes, since the file will be using two keys for encryption the security will increase.
C. No, the security will remain the same since both users will share the same key for decryption.
D. Yes, since the file will be using two keys for decryption the security will increase.
E. No, EFS cannot be used for files that are shared between users.
Answer: E

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NO.7 Recently, you have seen an increase in intrusion attempts and in network traffic. You decide to use
Snort to run a packet capture and analyze the traffic that is present. Looking at the example, what type of
traffic did Snort capture in this log file?
A. Windows 2000 Ping Request
B. Windows NT 4.0 Ping Request
C. Linux Ping Request
D. Linux Ping Response
E. Windows NT 4.0 Ping Response
Answer: B

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NO.8 In the process of public key cryptography, which of the following is true?
A. Only the public key is used to encrypt and decrypt
B. Only the private key can encrypt and only the public key can decrypt
C. Only the public key can encrypt and only the private key can decrypt
D. The private key is used to encrypt and decrypt
E. If the public key encrypts, then only the private key can decrypt
Answer: E

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Exam Code: ICDL-Access
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NO.1 Save and close this table.
A. Click on save tool from the table design toolbar -> close the table
Answer: A

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NO.2 Change the entry in the Surname field of this record to Dawson. Move to the next field in this record
when you have finished.
A. Use the back space from the keyboard to delete Lamont -> typeDawson -> press Tab from the
keyboard
Answer: A

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NO.3 HOTSPOT
Navigate quickly to the last record in this table.
Answer:

NO.4 Use Microsoft Access Help to find information about decimal numbers.
A. Help -> Microsoft access help -> type decimal numbers -> search
Answer: A

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NO.5 Hide the Formatting (Form/Report) toolbar.
A. View -> toolbars -> select formatting (form/Report)
Answer: A

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NO.6 Save the above table and give it the name Sals.
A. Click on the save tool from the table design toolbar -> type Sales -> ok
Answer: A

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NO.7 Create a new blank database.
A. Click on the new tool from the database toolbar -> select database -> ok
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which two of these statements about referential integrity are true?
A. If a record in a parent table has a related child record referential integrity prevents you from deleting the
parent record
B. In Access, referential integrity is enforced by typing in a rule.
C. You can set rules about referential integrity in a one table database.
D. Referential integrity ensures that records in linked tables are automatically updated when changes are
made.
E. A child record cannot be entered unless it has a parent in the database if referential integrity is used
Answer: A,E

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Exam Name: Developer Essentials for FileMaker 10
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NO.1 A text field called FirstLast in FileMaker Pro 12 is set to auto-enter the following formula: FirstName & "
" & LastNarne FirstName and LastNarne are text fields in the same table. The option Do not evaluate if all
referenced fields are empty is unchecked. The option Do not replace existing value of field (if any) is
checked.
Under which two circumstances will the value of the calculation be inserted into the FirstLast field?
(Choose two.)
A. a record is first created
B. each time the value of the FirstName or LastNarne field is modified
C. a user selects the menu item Records > Relookup Field Contents
D. any field value on the record is modified and the FirstLast field is empty
E. the FirstName or LastNarne field is modified and the FirstLast field is empty
Answer: A,E

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NO.2 Given two tables in FileMaker Pro 12 with the following fields and table occurrences:
What two methods can be used to add a portal to a layout based on the Players table, which
shows only the names of the current player's teammates, but not the current player's name? (Choose
two.)
A. base the portal on the relationship Players:: Team ID = Teammates:: Team ID Anduse a portal filter
based on the calculation Players:: PlayerIDSelf
B. base the portal on the relationship Players::TeamID = Teammates::TeamID Seta sort order of PlayerID.
Ascending on the relationship, and Configurethe portal to have an Initial row value of 2.
C. basesthe portal on the multi-predicate relationship: Players::TeamID = Teammates::TeamID AND
Players: PlayerIDTeammates:: PlayerID
D. base the portal on the relationship Players:: TeamID = Teammates:: TeamID Anduse a portal filter
based on the calculation Players:: PlayerIDTeammates:: PlayerID
Answer: C,D

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NO.3 What will a recursive custom function do when a stack limit is exceeded?
A. returns !
B. returns ?
C. returns Error 1203: Unexpected end of calculation
D. produces a spinning beach ball (Mac OS X) or a rotating cursor (Windows)
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which statement is true about the Relationships Graph in FileMaker Pro 12?
A. Table occurrences can represent tables from external JDBC data sources.
B. A single Relationships Graph can include references to no more than 256 external files.
C. A set of relationships between tables can be created as a loop if every table occurrence in the loop has
a unique name.
D. The Allow creation of records in this table via this relationship setting can be selected between two
table occurrences if the relationship includes only equality (=, or ) matches between fields.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which two statements are true about container fields that are configured to Store container data
externally in FileMaker Pro 12? (Choose two)
A. Container data stored externally using Secure storage is encrypted.
B. FileMaker Pro 12 can store a maximum of 64 million external files per database file.
C. It is possible to customize the directory location where FileMaker Pro 12 will store external container
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D. Once a container field has been configured to store data internally, the data must be re-imported if the
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Answer: A,C

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NO.6 Which two statements are true about FileMaker Pro 12 relationships? (Choose two.)
A. Valid relationships can include unindexed match fields.
B. The % (contains) operator can be used for join criteria that include one unindexed match field.
C. When editing match fields for a relationship, no more than 16 pairs of match fields can be used.
D. A relationship defined with an X (cross product) will only include records with non-matching match field
values.
E. A relationship defined with an X (cross product) match will allow the Delete related records in this table
when a record is deleted in the other table option.
Answer: A,E

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NO.7 Given the following relationship graph:
Without inspecting the data, what can be assumed about this database?
A. In the Event table, the Event id has no index.
B. For each Task record there will be exactly one related Volunteer record.
C. Each record in the Task table will represent a unique combination of Volunteer ID and Event ID
D. The relationship between Task and Event will not allow the Allow creation of records ... nor the Delete
related records ... settings to be enabled for the Event table.
Answer: A

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NO.8 DRAG DROP
Match the FileMaker Server 12 hosting technology with the maximum number of concurrent client
connections.
Answer:

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Exam Code: VCAP5-DCD
Exam Name: VMware Certified Advanced Professional 5 - Data Center Design (VCAP5-DCD)
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Exam Code: VCP410-DT
Exam Name: VMware Certified Professional 4 - Deskto
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Exam Code: VCP510PSE
Exam Name: VMware Certified Professional 5 - Data Center Virtualization PSE
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NO.1 An ESXi 5.x host displays a warning icon in the vSphere console and its summary page lists a
configuration issue "SSH for the host has been enabled." What are two ways to clear this warning?
(Choose two.)
A. Using the Security Profile pane of the Configuration tab in the vSphere Client
B. Using the Direct Console User Interface (DCUI)
C. Using the Advanced Settings pane of the Configuration tab in the vSphere Client
D. Using the Networking pane of the Configuration tab in the vSphere Client
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 What are three valid objects to place in a vApp? (Choose three.)
A. Folders
B. Hosts
C. Resource pools
D. vApps
E. Virtual machines
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.3 An administrator is troubleshooting an ESXi 5.x host and needs to export diagnostic
information. The host is currently managed by a vCenter Server instance.
Which two ways can the information be gathered using the vSphere Client? (Choose two.)
A. Select Home. Under Administration, click System Logs and click the Export System Logs button.
Select the affected ESXi host. Select Select All. Select a location and click Finish.
B. In the vSphere Client, select the affected ESXi host. Right-click the host and select Export
Diagnostic Data. Select a location and click OK.
C. Log in to the ESXi host locally, Select Export System Logs.
D. In the vSphere Client, select the affected ESXi host. Select File, Export and Export System Logs.
Select Select All. Select a location and click Finish.
Answer: A,D

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NO.4 An administrator notices that when a virtual machine is placed into a resource pool, a warning
indicates that the virtual machine will receive a very large percentage of the total shares for
memory. Which action can be taken to resolve this problem?
A. Increase the memory resource allocation to the resource pool.
B. Increase the share value for the resource pool.
C. Change the shares setting from custom to high, medium, or low for the virtual machine.
D. Decrease the memory allocation for the virtual machine.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
The Memory Resources panel lets you allocate memory resources for a virtual machine and specify
reservations, limits, and shares. Symbolic values Low, Normal, High, and Custom are compared to
the sum of all shares of all virtual machines on the server and, on an ESX host, the service console.
By decreasing the memory share of a particular system, it receives less memory out of the total
available memory.

NO.5 Under which two conditions can vStorage APIs for Array Integration (VAAI) provide a
performance benefit? (Choose two.)
A. When a virtual disk has VMDK files stored on an NFS datastore.
B. When a virtual disk is created using the New Virtual Machine wizard.
C. When cloning a virtual machine with snapshots.
D. When a virtual disk is deleted.
Answer: A,D

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NO.6 Users are experiencing performance issues when updating their database hosted on a virtual
machine. The administrator determines that disk I/O is high across one of the HBAs on the ESXi host
containing the virtual machine.
What is the action will most likely correct the issue without significantly impacting other users or
datastores?
A. Manually configure the disk multipathing policy to Round Robin for the datastore
B. Migrate the virtual machine to an NFS datastore using Storage vMotion
C. Use Storage vMotion to migrate the virtual machine to a new VMFS5 datastore
D. Map additional LUNs to the ESXi host and extend the datastores
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which two conditions prevent the application of a host profile to an ESXi 5.x host? (Choose
two.)
A. The host has multiple profiles attached.
B. The host has not been placed into maintenance mode.
C. The host is running virtual machines.
D. The host is an ESXi host.
Answer: B,C

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NO.8 An administrator has recently upgraded their Update Manager infrastructure to vSphere 5.x.
Several hosts and virtual machines have not been upgraded yet.
Which vSphere component when upgraded will have the least impact to the existing environment?
A. Virtual Machine Hardware
B. ESX Hosts
C. VMFS datastores
D. VMware Tools
Answer: D

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Exam Code: DP-022W
Exam Name: Data Protection Implementation for Windows using NetBackup 5.0
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NO.1 You have an MSSQL database that you need to add to your environment.
Which three items do you need to know before backups can be configured? (Choose
three.)
A. the version of MSSQL being used
B. the kind of authentication being used
C. the directories in which the database files are located
D. he backup retentions needed by the DBA
Answer: A, B, D

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NO.2 Which two statements are true about a media server upgrade installation from
version 4.5 to version 5.0? (Choose two.)
A. All clients must be on 50 if their media server is on 50
B. All master and media servers must be on NetBackup 5.0
C. The media servers must be on 4.5 or 50 if the clients are on 4.5
D. The master server can be upgraded to 5.0, and media servers can remain at4.5
Answer: C, D

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NO.3 What is required for Shared Storage Option installation?
A. Fibre Channel connections for all tape devices to be shared
B. a robot SCSI connection to all participating NetBackup media servers
C. 1-gigabit Ethernet communication between all participating NetBackup servers
D. A SSO license key on the NetBackup master server and on all participating
NetBackup media servers
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which two methods determine the patch level of a client? (Choose two.)
A. Run the support script in the goodies directory on the master server
B. Select Help > About from the backup, Archive, and Restore interface on the client
C. Select Help > About from the NetBackup Administration Console on the media server
D. Select Help > About from the NetBackup Administration Console on the master
server
Answer: A, B

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NO.5 You need to add a number of Windows servers from another department to your
NetBackup Windows 2003 master server. The system administrator for these
systems has given you a Domain Administrator account and permission to install
the client, but he will not be available to help you He has not given you access to the
computer room where the systems are physically located.
What is the supported method for installing the client?
A. A share the installation CD on the network, log into the systems through a "Remote
Terminal" session, map the CD and run setup.exe
B. from the Administration client on the master server, select all the remote clients in
"Host Properties", right-click and select "Client Install"
C. log in to any system on the domain as the domain administrator, run Launch.exe on
the install CD and installation to network clients
D.remote installation is not allowed;the system administrator will have to give you
physical access to the new clients
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which three methods can be used to ensure that your NetBackup catalog has been
backed up? (Choose three.)
A. in the GUI, right-click on "Catalog" and select "Configure NetBackup Catalog
Backup"
B. individually run "bprecover -1" against your catalog images (tape or disk)
C. in the GUI, right-click on "Catalog" and select "Verify NetBackup Catalog
Recoverability"
D. in the GUI, check the "Activity Monitor" for catalog backup results
Answer: A, B, D

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NO.7 A moderately used database server must be configured as a NetBack up client. The
database application is custom built and is not covered by a NetBackup database
agent. Backups must be performed quickly and open files need to be backed up. In
addition, the ability to restore individual files from backup is required.
Which of the following backup methods would best fit this scenario?
A. Copy-on-write snapshot
B. Mirror snapshot
C. Flash backup
D. True Image Restore enabled backup
Answer: C

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NO.8 You are currently assigned to conduct a NetBackup assessment for a Storage Area
Network environment. The system administrator wants to know how to verify that
the Fibre Channel switches are supported by VERITAS.
Which two tasks can be done to determine if VERITAS supports the switches?
(Choose two.)
A. review the SNIA Certification List
B. review the Compatibility Matrix Guide
C. review the Media Manager Device Configuration Guide
D. ask the system administrator which types of switches they are using
Answer: A, B

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Exam Code: 1Z0-024
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NO.1 Which statement regarding the logging and tracing of Net8 is True?
A. Logging cannot be disabled on client.
B. There are four levels of logging that can be set.
C. Tracing can take up significant disk space but has little impact on performance.
D. There is no way to prevent new trace data from being appended to the same file with
each new session.
Answer: B

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NO.2 When is the request sent to a listener?
A. After every call.
B. Before every call.
C. After name resolution.
D. Before name resolution.
Answer: C

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NO.3 If a password is configured, which command must be issued first when you need to
stop the listener?
A. Stop
B. Password
C. Set Password
D. Shutdown immediate
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which parameter specifies the maximum number of server processes that get
pre-spawned in a dedicated server environment? (Do not use any extra words or
characters)
Answer: MTS_MAX_SERVERS

NO.5 Which are two features of Connection Manager? (Choose two)
A. Connection exchange.
B. Connection resolution.
C. Connection multiplexing.
D. Connection cross-linking.
E. Protocol transformation.
F. Protocol interchange capability.
Answer: C, F

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NO.6 The initial number of dispatchers is set to 50. Because of the load on the dispatcher
processes the DBA needs to decrease the number of dispatchers. Which two
recommended procedures could be used? (Choose two)
A. Issue the ALTER SYSTEM command to remove dispatchers.
B. Issue the ALTER SESSION command to remove dispatchers.
C. Edit the MTS_DISPATCHERS parameter and bounce the database.
D. Edit the MTS_MAX_DISPATCHERS parameter and bounce the database.
E. Edit the MTS_MIN_DISPATCHERS parameter and bounce the database.
Answer: A, C

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NO.7 Which feature needs to be configured in Connection Manager to enable your system to
scale to a large number of users?
A. Connection Pooling
B. Network access control
C. Connection concentration
D. Multiple protocol interchange
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which NAMESCTL command can be used to manually force Names Server discovery?
A. Flush
B. Reload
C. Reorder_NS
D. Discover_NS
E. Start_client_cache
Answer: C

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