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2014年4月28日星期一

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Exam Code: HP0-S30
Exam Name: HP (Design and Implementation of HP SIM and HP Insight Control)
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Total Q&A: 128 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-04-28

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NO.1 How many agents are there in the HP Insight Management Agents family?
A. one monolithic agent for all devices
B. four: a server, NIC, storage, and foundation agent
C. five: a server, NIC, storage, foundation, and Version Control Agent
D. six: a server, NIC, storage, foundation, client, and Version Control Agent
Answer: C

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NO.2 What happens when an event is generated that affects an entire rack or enclosure?
A. Several systems within the rack or enclosure can generate a trap, but they are filtered by HP SIM to
only show one event per rack or enclosure.
B. Multiple traps are received by HP SIM and can cause multiple events to trigger multiple notification
alerts.
C. An alert is logged for each server associated with the enclosure, but the same event increases a
counter each time the same trap is received.
D. Traps are received from a server, but they are not associated with the enclosure and are managed
independently.
Answer: A

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NO.3 What must you consider regarding the central management server (CMS) when managing a Windows
environment with HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM)?
A. Timeout values for processing WMI information from Windows-based systems might need to be
changed on the CMS.
B. All systems being managed must have a trust relationship with the CMS for single sign-on (SSO).
C. There must be a WMI Mapper installed on the CMS or on another server on the network.
D. All Windows-based systems must be in the same domain as the CMS.
Answer: C

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NO.4 From which components do the Insight Foundation Agents collect data in order to provide
management information to HP SIM? (Select two.)
A. operating system
B. system drivers
C. management host
D. serial and parallel ports
E. memory subsystem
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 What type of information displays when you place your cursor over a server blade graphic in the HP
SIM picture view? (Select two.)
A. server name
B. slot or bay number
C. contact information
D. rack location
E. server role
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM) can be hosted on which operating environments? (Select
three.)
A. HP-UX
B. Linux
C. OVMS
D. Windows
E. Solaris
F. AIX
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.7 What is a good indicator that Insight Control performance management has not been installed with HP
SIM?
A. The status of the managed devices under the HW column shows "unknown" status.
B. The system table view does not show a PF column.
C. The System Management Homepage does not display any performance information.
D. The Tool menu in HP SIM does not display any performance management options.
Answer: B

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NO.8 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button. Match the type of collection available in HP SIM with its characteristic.
Answer:

NO.9 You noticed that a system that was being monitored by Insight Control performance management has a
critical status in the PF column. However, the HW status displays as "normal". What could cause this to
occur?
A. The HP management agents have been downgraded.
B. Network teaming was enabled on the managed server.
C. Performance monitoring was disabled in HP SIM for that managed server.
D. The license was removed from that managed server within HP SIM.
Answer: A

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NO.10 When performing a remote installation of Insight Remote Support, you receive an error stating that the
install cannot proceed. What can cause this issue?
A. A SIMadmin user with administrative privileges is not performing the installation.
B. The installation requires that FTP be installed on the remote server before installing Insight Remote
Support.
C. The installation initiated from a Microsoft Remote Desktop (RDP) session that does not have the active
desktop session.
D. The installation requires that you run Insight Software Advisor, which launches the full installation of
Insight Control.
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which feature of HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM) enables you to view contract and warranty
information for managed systems?
A. ProLiant Essentials
B. Integrity Essentials
C. Storage Essentials Enterprise Suite
D. Service Essentials Remote Support Pack
Answer: D

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NO.12 What should you consider when monitoring devices using the DMI protocol?
A. Only systems that have event indication subscriptions configured in HP Systems Insight Manager (HP
SIM) are managed by DMI.
B. Only desktops and workstations communicating with the central management server (CMS) are
identified by the DMI protocol.
C. To be identified by DMI, managed systems running Windows or HP-UX must run the same operating
system as the CMS.
D. A Management Information File (MIF) must be compiled in HP SIM for each device model being
managed by the DMI protocol.
Answer: C

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NO.13 What must you enable before performing an offline analysis with Insight Control performance
management? (Select two.)
A. Alerting
B. Discovery
C. Logging
D. Monitoring
E. Reporting
Answer: C,D

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NO.14 How much can HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM) 6.X scale?
A. HP SIM can manage 2,500 operating system instances.
B. HP SIM can manage 5,000 physical and virtual machines plus supporting iLOs and OAs.
C. HP SIM can manage 10,000 physical and virtual machines.
D. HP SIM is limited by the amount of memory on the central management server (CMS).
Answer: B

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NO.15 What should you do when enabling the WMI Mapper in HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM)?
A. Run the identification task to properly identify systems that are running WMI.
B. Run the software polling task to return WMI information for managed systems.
C. Rerun the discovery task to discover systems that are running WMI.
D. Run a hardware polling task to get status information in WMI instrumented devices.
Answer: A

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NO.16 You received an SNMP Authentication trap, but did not receive a notification in HP Systems Insight
Manager (HP SIM). What could cause this?
A. The default setting for Enabling Trap Handling in SNMP extensions was disabled in HP SIM.
B. The trap received was not sent from a managed node that is in the authorized list.
C. A filter was set in the discovery task to ignore these authentication traps by default.
D. A trust relationship was not established between HP SIM and the managed node sending the trap.
Answer: A

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NO.17 What must you consider when configuring community strings?
A. They must be unique to each system that is being managed.
B. HP SIM and managed systems must have matching community strings.
C. The community strings must not be more than eight characters long.
D. All systems must be configured with a write community string.
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which type of component is considered part of the HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM)
management domain?
A. central management server (CMS)
B. network client
C. any third-party device
D. any management information base (MIB) compiled device
Answer: A

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NO.19 What is the default view of the BladeSystem page in BladeSystem Integrated Manager?
A. Icons
B. Location
C. Table
D. Tree
Answer: D

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NO.20 HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM) indicates a minor degraded state on a managed system. You
investigate further by clicking on the Hardware status (HW) link. HP SIM should launch another page with
the System Management Home (SMH). Instead, a "Page not found" message displays. What can cause
this issue.?
A. A firewall is configured on the target managed node that prevents port 50000 from communicating with
HP SIM.
B. The system is no longer available or the system is down and HP SIM has not yet updated the minor
status to critical status.
C. HP SIM is referencing the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) when launching the SMH and cannot
resolve the IP to the FQDN.
D. The community strings do not match between HP SIM and the target managed node and therefore
cannot display the SMH.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP0-D12
Exam Name: HP (Planning and Designing HP Converged Infrastructure Solutions)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 128 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-04-28

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NO.1 How is Insight Control power management different from power management applications available
from major HP competitors?
A. It does not require p-state-capable hardware.
B. It supports legacy versions of HP-UX.
C. It displays monetary power management savings.
D. It enables you to power servers on and off remotely.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which tools are included on the Insight Foundation Management DVD? (Select two.)
A. Firmware Maintenance
B. ProLiant Support Packs
C. SmartStart
D. Systems Insight Manager
E. System Management Homepage
Answer: D,E

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NO.3 Industry analysts report that businesses are scaling back the research and development efforts that
lead to innovation. What are two reasons cited as the cause of this trend? (Select two.)
A. aversion to risks while marketing new technology
B. cost of lost time, effort, and opportunity
C. lack of trained personnel
D. unpredictable business cycles
E. limited access to capital investors
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 Which statements are true regarding Insight Control virtual machine management? (Select two.)
A. It disables use of drag-and-drop functionality to relocate virtual machines.
B. Virtual machines can be purchased and delivered as "chunks" of capacity.
C. It proactively relocates virtual machines before hardware failures occur.
D. It enables the safe and orderly shutdown of VMware ESX hosts.
E. It includes expanded support for virtual storage replication.
Answer: C,D

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NO.5 With Insight Control, you can generate a report that enables you to determine the overall
performance status of a system. Which three values should you reference on this report for this
information? (Select three.)
A. Accessible Duration of Server
B. Average CPU Utilization
C. Inaccessible Duration of Server
D. %Major
E. %Minor
F. %Normal
Answer: D,E,F

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NO.6 Your customer is not fully ready for BladeSystem Matrix, but is interested in unified management of
their physical and virtual environments. Which products should you recommend for this customer instead
of Matrix?
A. Insight Control and Virtual Connect Enterprise Manager
B. Insight Dynamics and Virtual Connect Enterprise Manager
C. Insight Control and Virtual Connect Manager
D. Insight Dynamics and Virtual Machine Management
Answer: B

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NO.7 What are two advantages of installing HP Insight Control for VMware vCenter Server? (Select two.)
A. provides an in-context launch of HP SIM
B. the ability to reboot host servers in different clusters
C. additional tabs for Insight Control and Insight Dynamics information related to VMware vCenter
D. access to view health and status information from iLOs and the Onboard Administrator
E. direct links to open Capacity Advisor reports
Answer: A,D

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NO.8 DRAG DROP.
Click the Task button. Match the product package with the term that describes its position within the
modular HP Insight software portfolio.
Answer:

NO.9 Which statement is true about the server migration functionality of Insight Control?
A. Virtual machines for V2P migrations must reside on a VMware host.
B. Virtual machines for V2V migrations require a separate license per virtual machine.
C. Source and target servers can be Integrity or ProLiant servers or virtual machines.
D. Physical server migration requires a Windows iSCSI Initiator.
Answer: D

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NO.10 With Insight Control server deployment, by default, which identifiers are included by default as part
of the displayed name for a newly discovered server blade? (Select three.)
A. bay number
B. enclosure name
C. Onboard Administrator name
D. server asset tag
E. rack name
F. server serial number
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.11 At what point would a customer environment need to be split into two separate HP SIM managed
groups with two central management servers?
A. 50 physical servers
B. 50 virtual machines
C. 1,000 managed components including iLOs
D. 5,000 physical servers and virtual machines
Answer: D

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NO.12 Your customer is concerned about power service interruptions but is unable to invest in the power
infrastructure at this time. Which questions should you ask your customer to consider? (Select two.)
A. How can load be reduced?
B. How can capacity be reclaimed?
C. How can failover clusters be implemented?
D. How can peak workloads be balanced more effectively?
E. How can redundancy be extended throughout the data center?
Answer: A,B

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NO.13 Provisioning a new application infrastructure can often take weeks or months to complete. What is one
typical reason that the process can become so complicated?
A. Complying with government regulations causes lengthy delays.
B. Built-to-order servers, storage, and networking devices require long lead times.
C. Ordering the necessary components requires complex paperwork.
D. Lack of standardization hinders automation and governance.
Answer: D

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NO.14 What does the Matrix Starter Kit include that the Matrix Expansion Kit does not.?
A. BladeSystem c7000 enclosure with fully redundant power supplies, fans, and Onboard
Administrator
B. HP 10000 G2 series rack (and rack and power options)
C. redundant Virtual Connect Flex-10 Ethernet and 8Gb Fibre Channel interconnects
D. Insight Dynamics, Insight Control, and VCEM
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which benefit is provided by Insight Control for Linux 6?
A. Virtual Media support on iLO-based servers without PXE and DHCP
B. scaling enhancements for enterprise data center operation with more than 5,000 physical nodes
C. deployment support for a Windows-based ProLiant central management server (CMS)
D. virtual machine management support on community-supported Linux distributions, including Debian
and Ubuntu
Answer: A

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NO.16 Click the Exhibit button.
The component technologies of which aspect of the HP Converged Infrastructure are illustrated in the
exhibit?
A. Infrastructure Operating Environment
B. FlexFabric
C. Data Center Smart Grid
D. virtual resource pools
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which functionality is provided by Insight Control server migration?
A. It supports migrations to third-party x86 servers running a supported operating system.
B. It uses a Migration Wizard to upgrade to an Integrity or ProLiant server blade target.
C. It automates migration from legacy servers to virtual servers.
D. It manages the process of deploying a server from bare metal.
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which statement is true regarding virtual machine management with Insight Control?
A. Physical and virtual servers can be moved using a GUI-initiated drag and drop or a CLI.
B. Integration with HP SIM enables you to move virtual machines based on predictive hardware alerts.
C. A separate license is required to manage performance of Integrity virtual machines.
D. Virtual machines can be load balanced across a cluster automatically.
Answer: D

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NO.19 How is Insight Control licensed for ProLiant servers?
A. per core
B. per server
C. per migration
D. per virtual machine host
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which links within the Server Management area under the HP Insight Software tab in VMware vCenter
enable you to launch HP interfaces in new browsers? (Select two.)
A. Onboard Administrator
B. Insight Dynamics for ProLiant
C. Insight Control
D. Integrated Lights-Out
E. Baseboard Management Controller
Answer: A,D

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Exam Code: HP0-M34
Exam Name: HP (HP Server Automation 9.x. Software)
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Total Q&A: 68 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-04-28

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NO.1 Which type of architecture does the term Multimaster Mesh describe?
A. the core component bundles distributed on multiple servers
B. multiple, coordinated Server Automation cores distributed across the network
C. multiple satellite servers configured to fail over to a single core
D. a core server running on multiple cluster nodes distributed across the network
Answer: B

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NO.2 The agent communications test can only be run from which HP Server Automation component?
A. SA Client
B. SA Web Client
C. Global Shell
D. Core CLI
Answer: B

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NO.3 How do the core and the agent communicate?
A. SA bus
B. Global Shell
C. SSL tunnel
D. SSH tunnel
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which Application Deployment Manager application components require explicit rollback and undeploy
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A. code components
B. application configurations
C. packages from the Server Automation library
D. Operations Orchestration flows
Answer: D

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NO.5 Click the Exhibit button.
Which user interface is shown in the exhibit?
A. HP Server Automation Web Client
B. HP Server Automation Global Shell Client
C. HP Server Automation Infrastructure Client
D. HP Server Automation Client
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP0-J60
Exam Name: HP (Designing HP SMB Storage Solutions)
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NO.1 Which HP StoreVirtual feature is unique to the P4900 Storage System?
A. 8Gb FC node connectivity
B. support for Network RAID 5 only
C. SmartSSD Wear Gauge in CMC
D. support for hardware RAID 10
Answer: C

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NO.2 Your customer is a medium-sized insurance company. They have decided to build a redundant
vSphere 5.1infrastructure cluster with HP BladeSystem. As their consultant, you propose redundant
HP BladeSystemc7000 enclosures, Flex Fabric Interconnect modules, and four HP ProLiant BL660c
Gen8 Servers, with twodual port Flex-Fabric LOMs in a vSphere ESX 5.1 HA cluster.
Which components provide direct-attached storage for the virtual servers? (Select three.)
A. HP SmartArray P711m Controller
B. HP MSA P2000 G3 Combo
C. HP SmartArray P721m Controller
D. HP D6000 Disk Enclosures
E. HP 3 Gb/s SAS BL Switch
F. HP 6 Gb/s SAS BL Switch
Answer: C,D,F

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Explanation:
Up to six D6000 storage devices can be supported off a single BladeSystem enclosure for up to 1260
TB of capacity. End-to-end 6 Gb/s SAS connectivity enables a high performance storage solution
using an HP Smart Array P721m controller, 6 Gb/s SAS BL switches, and the D6000. 6 Gb/s host
connectivity enables higher performance, eases configuration/deployment and broadens supported
features of an D6000 using HP Smart Array P721m controller and 6 Gb/s SAS BL switches.

NO.3 An industry-leading insurance company in the UK has decided to build a redundant vSphere
5.1 infrastructurecluster with an HP BladeSystem and HP 3PAR StoreServ storage platform.
As their consultant, you proposeredundant HP BladeSystem c7000 Enclosures, FlexFabric
Interconnect modules, and four HP ProLiantBL660c Gen8 Servers, with two dual port Flex-Fabric
LOMs in a vSphere ESX5.1 HA cluster.
The supportdepartment needs to decrease the time of infrastructure management.
Which HP product provides hardware-level management for their HP server and storage solution?
A. HP System Insight Manager
B. Onboard Administrator
C. Integrated Lights Out
D. Virtual Connect Enterprise Manager
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which features would lead you to position an HP 3PAR StoreServ 7200 as a replacement for an
existing HP8100 Enterprise Virtual Array? (Select two.)
A. thin provisioning
B. seamless data migration
C. compatible replication protocol
D. faster disk spindle speeds
E. similar feature set
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 Which statements are true when zoning an HP MSA P2000 G3 FC array into a fabric? (Select
two.)
A. The array can be in multiple operating system zones.
B. Overlapping storage port zones may be configured
C. Zoning is required for all operating systems that access the array.
D. Zoning is not required for a single operating system.
E. The array required port-based zoning to be configured.
Answer: A,C

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NO.6 A consultant develops a storage concept for an SMB customer. To prepare the CxO
presentation, theconsultant must identify business and technical challenges. Which challenges
should be presented during ameeting with the CEO? (Select two.)
A. Data is not protected at the sufficient level.
B. Rack space is not used efficiently.
C. Cost of information is not defined.
D. Operational expenditures (OPEX) nave to be reduced.
E. Server provisioning takes too much time.
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 When designing a solution, what defines the maximum tolerable amount of data loss from an
IT service due toa major incident?
A. SLO
B. RTO
C. RPO
D. SLA
Answer: C

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NO.8 A medium-sized manufacturing company decides to build a redundant vSphere 5.1
Infrastructure cluster withHP BladeSystem. As their consultant, you propose redundant HP
BladeSystem c7000 Enclosures for theirlocal and remote sites. The storage solution you propose is
an HP StoreVirtual 4000 with remote replication.
To stay within the budget, you decide to use the HP StoreVirtual VSA at the remote site.
Which feature of the VSA must you consider for future growth?
A. maximum 3 VSAs per site
B. maximum one LAN adapter per VSA
C. maximum one VSA per host
D. maximum 10 TB per VSA
Answer: D

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2014年4月27日星期日

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Exam Code: IIA-CIA-Part3
Exam Name: IIA (Certified Internal Auditor - Part 3 study guide with online review)
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NO.1 Focusing on customers, promoting innovation, learning new philosophies, driving out fear, and
providing extensive training are all elements of a major change in organizations. These elements are
aimed primarily at:
A. Copying leading organizations to better compete with them.
B. Focusing on the total quality of products and services.
C. Being efficient and effective at the same time, in order to indirectly affect profits.
D. Managing costs of products and services better, in order to become the low-cost provider.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
TQM is a comprehensive approach to quality. It treats the pursuit of quality as a basic organizational
function that is as important as production or marketing. TQM is the continuous pursuit of quality in
every aspect of organizational activities through (1) a philosophy of doing it right the first time; (2)
employee training and empowerment; (3) promotion of teamwork; (4) improvement of processes;
and (5) attention to satisfaction of customers, both internal and external. TQM emphasizes the
supplier's relationship with the customer, identifies customer needs, and recognizes that everyone
in a process is at some time a customer or supplier of someone else, either inside or outside of the
organization.

NO.2 Which of the following is a characteristic of total quality management (TQM)?
A. Management by objectives.
B. On-the-job training by other workers.
C. Quality by final inspection.
D. Education and self-improvement.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
TQM is the continuous pursuit of quality in every aspect of organizational activities. One of the
means of achieving this is through employee training and empowerment.

NO.3 The use of teams in total quality management (TQM) is important because:
A. Well-managed teams can be highly creative and are able to address complex problems better
than individuals can.
B. Teams are quicker to make decisions, thereby helping to reduce cycle time.
C. Employee motivation is higher for team members than for individual contributors.
D. The use of teams eliminates the need for supervision, thereby allowing a company to become
leaner and more profitable.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Teams can use the diverse knowledge and skills of all team members. Employee involvement means
training and empowering employees to harness their creativity for problem solving. Quality control
circles are used to obtain input from employees and to locate the best perspective on problem
solving.

NO.4 Which statement best describes total quality management (TQM)?
A. TQM emphasizes reducing the cost of inspection.
B. TQM emphasizes better statistical quality control techniques.
C. TQM emphasizes doing each job right the first time.
D. TQM emphasizes encouraging cross-functional teamwork.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
TQM establishes quality as an organizational objective and views it as a major component of the
organization's service to its customers. It emphasizes employee training and commitment,
productservice design and production, and customer service. Ordinarily, the quality of a product or
service is as important to customers as cost and timeliness. Superior product quality is not merely
the result of more inspection, better statistical quality control, and cross-functional teamwork.
Manufactures must make fundamental changes in the way they produce products and do each job
right the first time.

NO.5 In which of the following organizational structures does total quality management (TQM) work
best?
A. Hierarchal.
B. Teams of people from the same specialty.
C. Teams of people from different specialties.
D. Specialists working individually.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
TQM advocates replacement of the traditional hierarchal structure with teams of people from
different specialties. This change follows from TQM's emphasis on empowering employees and
teamwork. Employees should (1) have proper training, necessary information, and the best tools;
(2) be fully engaged in the decision process; and (3) receive fair compensation. If such empowered
employees are assembled in teams of individuals with the required skills, TQM theorists believe
they will be more effective than people performing their tasks separately in a rigid structure.

NO.6 A company with many branch stores has decided to use its best-performing store as a
benchmark organization for the purpose of analyzing the accuracy and reliability of branch store
financial reporting.
Which one of the following is the most likely measure to be included in a financial benchmark?
A. High turnover of employees.
B. High level of employee participation in setting budgets.
C. High amount of bad debt write-offs.
D. High number of suppliers.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Internal benchmarking is the application of best practices in one part of the organization (e.g., a
high-performing branch store) to its other parts (other branches). This process requires, among
other things, use of quantitative and qualitative measures. A key indicator for financial performance
measurement is the amount of bad debt write-offs. A high level of bad debt write-offs could
indicate fraud, which would compromise the accuracy and reliability of financial reports. Bad debt
write-offs may result from recording fictitious sales.

NO.7 A traditional quality control process in manufacturing consists of mass inspection of goods
only at the end of a production process. A major deficiency of the traditional control process is that:
A. It is expensive to do the inspections at the end of the process.
B. It is not possible to rework defective items.
C. It is not 100% effective.
D. It does not focus on improving the entire production process.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
The process used to produce the goods is not thoroughly reviewed and evaluated for efficiency and
effectiveness. Preventing defects and increasing efficiency by improving the production process
raises quality standards and decreases costs.

NO.8 All of the following are generally included in a cost-of-quality report except:
A. Warranty claims.
B. Design engineering.
C. Supplier evaluations.
D. Lost contribution margin.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
A cost-of-quality report includes most costs related to quality, specifically the costs of prevention,
appraisal, internal failure, and external failure.
11. Which of the following is not an appropriate measure of quality?
A. Market share.
B. Delivery performance.
C. Customer satisfaction.
D. Raw materials costs.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
Emphasizing lower input costs may result in more defective output, and higher input costs may or
may not reflect the procurement of better raw materials. Financial measures are thus mostly
unsuitable for measuring quality.
12. One of the main reasons that implementation of a total quality management (TQM) program
works better through the use of teams is:
A. Teams are more efficient and help an organization reduce its staffing.
B. Employee motivation is always higher for team members than for individual contributors.
C. Teams are a natural vehicle for sharing ideas, which leads to process improvement.
D. The use of teams eliminates the need for supervision, thereby allowing a company to reduce
staffing.
Answer: C

IIA   IIA-CIA-Part3 questions   IIA-CIA-Part3
Explanation:
TQM promotes teamwork by modifying or eliminating traditional (and rigid) vertical hierarchies and
instead forming flexible groups of specialists. Quality circles, cross-functional teams, and
self-managed teams are typical formats. Teams are an excellent means of encouraging the sharing
of ideas and removing process improvement obstacles.
13. If a company is customer-centered, its customers are defined as:
A. Only people external to the company who have purchased something from the company.
B. Only people internal to the company who directly use its product.
C. Anyone external to the company and those internal who rely on its product to get their job done.
D. Everybody external to the company who is currently doing, or may in the future do, business with
the company.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
One of the principles of total quality management (TQM) is customer orientation, whether the
customer is internal or external. An internal customer is a member of the organization who relies on
another member's work to accomplish his/her task.
14. Management of a company is attempting to build a reputation as a world-class manufacturer
of quality products. Which of the following measures would not be used by the firm to measure
quality?
A. The percentage of shipments returned by customers because of poor quality.
B. The number of parts shipped per day.
C. The number of defective parts per million.
D. The percentage of products passing quality tests the firsttime
Answer: B

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Explanation:
The number of parts shipped per day would most likely be used as a measure of the effectiveness
and efficiency of shipping procedures, not the quality of the product. This measure does not
consider how many of the parts are defective.
15. Quality costing is similar in service and manufacturing organizations. Nevertheless, the
differences
between these organizations have certain implications for quality management. Thus,
A. Direct labor costs are usually a higher percentage of total costs in manufacturing organizations.
B. External failure costs are relatively greater in service organizations.
C. Quality improvements resulting in more efficient use of labor time are more likely to be accepted
by employees in service organizations.
D. Poor service is less likely to result in loss of customers than a faulty product.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
External failure costs arise when problems occur after delivery. They occur because products or
services are nonconforming or otherwise do not satisfy customers. External failure costs in service
enterprises are even more important than in manufacturing environments. Faulty goods sometimes
maybe reworked or replaced to a customer's satisfaction, but poor service tends to result in a loss of
customers.
16. A means of limiting production delays caused by equipment breakdown and repair is to:
A. Schedule production based on capacity planning.
B. Plan maintenance activity based on an analysis of equipment repair work orders.
C. Pre-authorize equipment maintenance and overtime pay.
D. Establish a preventive maintenance program for all production equipment.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
A preventive maintenance program reduces equipment breakdowns and repairs.
17. Under a total quality management (TQM) approach,
A. Measurement occurs throughout the process, and errors are caught and corrected at the source.
B. Quality control is performed by highly trained inspectors at the end of the production process.
C. Upper management assumes the primary responsibility for the quality of the products and
services.
D. A large number of suppliers are used in order to obtain the lowest possible prices.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
TQM emphasizes quality as a basic organizational function. TQM is the continuous pursuit of quality
in every aspect of organizational activities. One of the basic principles of TQM is doing it right the
first time. Thus, errors should be caught and corrected at the source.
18. Which of the following is a key to successful total quality management (TQM)?
A. Training quality inspectors.
B. Focusing intensely on the customer.
C. Creating appropriate hierarchies to increase efficiency.
D. Establishing a well-defined quality standard, then focusing on meeting it.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
TQM emphasizes satisfaction of customers, both internal and external. TQM considers the supplier's
relationship with the customer, identifies customer needs, and recognizes that everyone in a
process is at some time a customer or supplier of someone else, either inside or outside of the
organization. Thus, TQM begins with external customer requirements, identifies internal
customer-supplier relationships and requirements, and establishes requirements for external
suppliers.
19. The four categories of costs associated with product quality costs are:
A. External failure, internal failure, prevention, and carrying.
B. External failure, internal failure, prevention, and appraisal.
C. External failure, internal failure, training, and appraisal.
D. Warranty, product liability, training, and appraisal.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Prevention costs are incurred to prevent defects. Appraisal costs are incurred to detect defective
output during and after the production process. Internal failure costs are associated with defective
output discovered before shipping. External failure costs are associated with defective output
discovered after it has reached the customer.
20. Statistical quality control often involves the use of control charts whose basic purpose is to:
A. Determine when accounting control procedures are not working.
B. Control labor costs in production operations.
C. Detect performance trends away from normal operations.
D. Monitor internal control applications of information technology.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Statistical control charts are graphic aids for monitoring the status of any process subject to random
variations. The chart consists of three horizontal lines plotted on a horizontal time scale. The vertical
scale represents the appropriate quantitative measure. The center line represents the average range
or overall mean for the process being controlled. The other two lines are the upper control limit and
the lower control limit. The processes are measured periodically, and the values are plotted on the
chart. If the value falls within the control limits, no action is taken. If the value falls outside the limits,
the process is considered "out of control," and an investigation is made for possible corrective
action. Another advantage of the chart is that it makes trends visible.

NO.9 Which of the following is not required by ISO 9000 standards?
A. Establishment of a quality management system.
B. Creation of an internal audit system.
C. Consistent high quality products.
D. Onsite inspections by a registrar.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
ISO 9000 is a set of generic standards for establishing and maintaining a quality system within an
entity. The standards provide no basis forjudging the quality of the end product. The marketplace
makes this determination. The objective of ISO 9000 standards is to ensure consistent quality.

NO.10 Which of the following costs of quality is a failure cost?
A. Systems development costs.
B. Costs of inspecting in-process items.
C. Contract penalty for delivery of nonconforming goods.
D. Costs of quality circles.
Answer: C

IIA   IIA-CIA-Part3   IIA-CIA-Part3   IIA-CIA-Part3   IIA-CIA-Part3 answers real questions
Explanation:
Failure costs are incurred after defective output has been removed from production. A contract
penalty for faulty goods is an example of an external failure cost.

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Exam Code: IIA-CFSA
Exam Name: IIA (Certified Financial Services Auditor)
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Total Q&A: 511 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-04-27

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NO.1 Which of the following situation would not impair audit objectivity?
A. An auditor is assigned to audit a business function that the auditor was responsible for nine
months ago
B. An individual temporarily assigned to the internal audit activity because of the individual'sexpert
knowledge in a particular business function assigned to audit an activity that theindividual was
responsible for just prior to transferring to the internal audit activity
C. An auditor is assigned to perform a post-implementation review on a system for which the
auditor participated in the design process
D. An auditor is assigned to perform a post-implementation review on a system for which the
auditor performed a procedure review and made control recommendations prior to the system's
implementation
Answer: D

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NO.2 All these statements elaborate purpose of standards EXCEPT:
A. Foster improved organizational processes and operations
B. Establish the basis for the evaluation of internal audit performance
C. Subvert the framework for performing and promoting broad range of value-added internal audit
activities.
D. Delineate basic principles that represent the practice of internal auditing as it should be
Answer: C

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NO.3 Internal auditing:
A. Is an independent, objective assurance and consulting activity designed to add value and improve
anorganization's operations
B. Is an independent, performance measurement and consulting activity designed to addValue and
improve an organization's operations
C. Helps an organization accomplish objectives by bringing a systematic, disciplinedApproach to
evaluate but rarely improve the effectiveness of risk management, control and governance
D. Helps an organization accomplish objectives by bringing a targeted, disciplined approach to
evaluate but rarely improve the effectiveness of risk management, control and governance
Answer: A

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NO.4 There are multiple sets of attribute and performance standards:
A. False
B. True
C. True- In specific conditions
D. False- In specific conditions
Answer: A

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NO.5 Nature of internal audit activities and quality criteria against which the performance of these
services can be evaluated is best portrayed by:
A. Performance Standards
B. Attribute Standards
C. Implementation Standards
D. Evaluation Standards
Answer: A

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NO.6 Internal auditors are expected to uphold the following principles:
A. Integrity, objectivity, competency
B. Integrity, objectivity, confidentiality, and competency
C. Integrity, objectivity, awareness and competency
D. Integrity, objectivity, entirety
Answer: B

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NO.7 IIA's code of ethics applies to __________ that provide internal auditing services:
A. Individuals
B. Entities
C. Individuals and entities
D. Individuals, entities and indirect authorities
Answer: C

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NO.8 All of the following phrases are used to express the auditor's opinion EXCEPT:
A. Give a true and fair view
B. Present fairly, in all material respects
C. Timely and consistent opinion
D. Comprehensible and realistic view
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which of the following statements is NOT related to competency principle of internal auditing?
Internal auditors:
A. Shall continually improve their proficiency and effectiveness and quality of their services
B. Shall perform internal auditing services in accordance with the standards for the professional
practice of internal auditing
C. Shall engage only in those services for which they have the necessary knowledge, skills and
experience
D. Shall disclose all material facts known to them that, if not disclosed, may distort the reporting of
activities under review
Answer: D

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NO.10 The auditor should plan an audit with an attitude of:
A. Professional competence
B. Professional skepticism
C. Subject awareness
D. Opinion sharing
Answer: B

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NO.11 Reasonable assurance relates to the:
A. Audit planning process
B. Scope of the internal audit
C. End of the audit process
D. Whole audit process
Answer: D

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NO.12 Internal auditors, engaging in activities that are illegal and discreditable to the profession of
internal auditing or the organization, violate which of the following principles:
A. Objectivity
B. Awareness
C. Integrity
D. Competence
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which of the following is a limitation in an audit that affects auditors' ability to detect
material misstatements?
A. Scope of an audit
B. The use of testing
C. Over- generalization
D. Unidentifiable risks
Answer: B

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NO.14 "Internal auditors make a balanced assessment of all the relevant circumstances and are not
unduly influenced by their own interests or by others in forming judgments." This statement best
explains one of the following principles:
A. Competency
B. Confidentiality
C. Objectivity
D. Integrity
Answer: C

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NO.15 While performing consulting services internal auditors should specifically maintain:
A. Proficiency level
B. Objectivity
C. Competence
D. Confidentiality
Answer: B

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