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Exam Code: IIA-CIA-Part4
Exam Name: Certified Internal Auditor - Part 4, Business Management Skills
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Last Update: 2014-10-13

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NO.1 Which of the following concepts is not consistent with a successful authoritarian organization?
A. Each subordinate should only have one superior.
B. Superiors may have as many subordinates as possible within the superior's span of control.
C. Responsibility may be delegated.
D. The hierarchy of authority should be precisely defined.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Taylor, Fayol, and other traditionalists advocated the creation of authoritarian organizations. One of
the criteria for success was the ability to delegate authority but not responsibility. Responsibility
should always remain with the person who made the decision.

NO.2 The organizational culture may encourage politics by creating unreasonable obstacles to
group and individual advancement. Which type of political tactic involves taking credit for another
person's work?
A. Loyalty cliques.
B. Destructive competition.
C. Empire building.
D. Posturing.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
Posturing is an attempt to make a good impression, for example, by taking credit for others' work or
seeking to stay one jump ahead of a rival.

NO.3 Which of the following factors is least typical of an industry that faces intense competitive
rivalry?
A. Price-cutting.
B. Large advertising budgets.
C. Frequent introduction of new products.
D. A high threat of substitutes.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
A high threat of substitutes reduces the attractiveness of an industry. It tends to increase the price
elasticity of demand and therefore limits price increases and profit margins. If other factors are
constant, fewer entrants result in less intense competition.

NO.4 The General Electric (GE) portfolio model for competitive analysis of strategic business units
(SBUs) should be compared with the Boston Consulting Croup's growth-share matrix. The GE model:
A. Is a matrix with two variables:relative market share and market growth rate.
B. Calculates an index for each of its two variables.
C. Considers such factors for business strength as market size, growth rate, and price levels.
D. Considers such factors for market attractiveness as market share, growth rate, and marketing
skills.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
The GE model is a multifactor portfolio matrix with two variables. Business strength or competitive
position (BUS) is on one axis, and market attractiveness (MAT) is on the other. BUS is classified as
strong, medium, or weak, and MAT is classified as high, medium, or low. Thus, the matrix in this
model is 3 x 3 and has nine cells. SBUs are shown in the matrix as circles. Circle size is directly
proportional to the size of the related market, with a shaded portion in the circle that represents
the SBU's market share. To measure BUS and MAT, the firm must isolate the multiple factors
affecting each, quantify them, and create an index. Factors will vary with each business. The
measurements will provide the values on the axes of the matrix.

NO.5 Strategic management includes developing the organization's grand strategy. This strategy is
based on:
A. Existing strategic business units (SBUs).
B. A SWOT analysis.
C. Portfolio management of the organization's businesses.
D. Strategic planning.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Strategic management is a process that includes development of a grand strategy that describes
how the organization's mission is to be achieved. This strategy is based on a situational analysis that
considers organizational strengths and weaknesses (a capability profile) and their interactions with
environmental opportunities and threats. Such an evaluation is also called a SWOT analysis.
Strengths and weaknesses (the internal environment) are usually identified by considering the firm's
capabilities and resources. What the firm does particularly well or has in greater abundance are
known as core competencies. Opportunities and threats (the external environment) are identified
by considering macroenvironment factors (economic, demographic, political, legal, social, cultural,
and technical) and microenvironment factors (suppliers, customers, distributors, competitors, and
other competitive factors in the industry).

NO.6 A corporation is performing research to determine the feasibility of entering the truck rental
industry.The decision to enter the market is most likely to be deterred if:
A. Buyer switching costs are high.
B. Buyers view the product as differentiated.
C. The market is dominated by a small consortium of buyers.
D. Buyers enjoy large profit margins.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
When purchasing power is concentrated in a few buyers or when buyers are well organized, their
bargaining power is greater. This effect is reinforced when sellers are in a capitalintensive industry,
such as trucking.

NO.7 According to research on the international contingency model of leadership, which path-goal
leadership style is most likely to be accepted around the world as culturally appropriate?
A. Directive.
B. Participative.
C. Supportive.
D. Achievement-oriented.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
A participative style entails consultation with employees and serious attention to their ideas. The
participative style, although not always the best, is the most widely accepted internationally. Every
country surveyed found it to be culturally acceptable.

NO.8 Which of the following is least likely to be an example of synergy?
A. A shopping mall with several businesses providing different products and performing different
services.
B. A car dealership providing warranties on automobile parts to maximize customer value.
C. A manufacturing company hiring a new manager with technological experience lacking in the
company.
D. Military Humvees being converted into sports utility vehicles for sale to civilians.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Synergy occurs when the combination of formerly separate elements has a greater effect than the
sum of their individual effects.
However, a car dealership's provision of warranties reflects anoperational strategy designed to
provide post-purchase services to gain a competitive advantage and maximize customer value. It
does not reflect the complementary sharing of resources, technology, or competencies. In contrast,
synergy arises from selling a line of carsthat share some components or abrand identification.

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Exam Code: IIA-CIA-Part1
Exam Name: Certified Internal Auditor - Part 1, The Internal Audit Activity's Role in Governance, Risk, and Control
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Exam Code: IIA-CCSA
Exam Name: Certification in Control Self-Assessment
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NO.1 Which of the following is Correct?
A. Internal audit can focus on validating the evaluation conclusions produced by controlself
assessment.
B. controlling can focus on validating the evaluation conclusions produced by controlself assessment.
C. Internal audit can focus on resource and budgetary produced by control-self assessment.
D. Internal audit can focus on better risk assessment produced by control-self assessment.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following is NOT the purpose of an organization that uses self-assessment to
have a formal, documented process that allows management and work teams to participate in a
structured manner?
A. Identifying risk factors and significant exposures.
B. Accessing the control processes that do not mitigate or manage those risks.
C. Developing action plans to reduce risks to acceptable levels.
D. Determining the likelihood of, or assisting in, the achievement of business objectives.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Internal auditors have which following four principles to uphold and apply.
A. Integrity, Objectivity, Control and Confidentiality
B. Integrity, Objectivity, Confidentiality and Competency
C. Reliability, Objectivity, Timeliness and Competency
D. Integrity, Objectivity, Discretion and Expertise
Answer: B

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NO.4 To disclose all material facts known to internal auditors that if not disclosed, may distort the
reporting of activities under review, this one of the rules of:
A. Objectivity
B. Integrity
C. Confidentiality
D. Expert judgment
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following is Correct?
A. Internal auditing is an independent, objective assurance and consulting activity designed to add
value and improve an organization's operations.
B. Take guidelines to analyst conflicts of internal auditing.
C. Required orientation and continuing education regarding audits.
D. Assets are safeguards for internal audits.
Answer: A

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NO.6 The purpose of Control self-assessment is:
A. to make analysis through interviews
B. to find report issued by auditors
C. through which internal control effectiveness is examined and assessed
D. to focus on policies and procedures that are strategy compliance
Answer: C

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NO.7 A methodology that can be used by managers and internal auditors to assess the adequacy of
an organization's risk management and control processes is called:
A. Control self-assessment
B. Control certifications
C. Managerial control
D. Risk control
Answer: A

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NO.8 Principles relevant to profession of internal auditing and rules of conduct that describe their
behaviors are the components of:
A. Auditing Reviews
B. Internal Auditing Profession
C. Auditing Standards
D. Institute of Internal Auditors
Answer: D

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Exam Code: IIA-CIA-Part4
Exam Name: Certified Internal Auditor - Part 4, Business Management Skills
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Last Update: 2014-09-18

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NO.1 Which of the following is false with regard to email policies?
A. Employees may use informal writing because email is often informal in nature.
B. Employees should understand that the organization has a legal right to monitor the employees'
use of the email system.
C. Filters should be used to protect against spam.
D. Emails should be concisely written.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
The principles of good writing still apply to emails. Therefore, emails should be written like any
other formal communication within the organization.

NO.2 Which of the following concepts is not consistent with a successful authoritarian organization?
A. Each subordinate should only have one superior.
B. Superiors may have as many subordinates as possible within the superior's span of control.
C. Responsibility may be delegated.
D. The hierarchy of authority should be precisely defined.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Taylor, Fayol, and other traditionalists advocated the creation of authoritarian organizations. One of
the criteria for success was the ability to delegate authority but not responsibility. Responsibility
should always remain with the person who made the decision.

NO.3 Which of the following is least likely to be an example of synergy?
A. A shopping mall with several businesses providing different products and performing different
services.
B. A car dealership providing warranties on automobile parts to maximize customer value.
C. A manufacturing company hiring a new manager with technological experience lacking in the
company.
D. Military Humvees being converted into sports utility vehicles for sale to civilians.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Synergy occurs when the combination of formerly separate elements has a greater effect than the
sum of their individual effects.
However, a car dealership's provision of warranties reflects anoperational strategy designed to
provide post-purchase services to gain a competitive advantage and maximize customer value. It
does not reflect the complementary sharing of resources, technology, or competencies. In contrast,
synergy arises from selling a line of carsthat share some components or abrand identification.

NO.4 Which of the following factors is least typical of an industry that faces intense competitive
rivalry?
A. Price-cutting.
B. Large advertising budgets.
C. Frequent introduction of new products.
D. A high threat of substitutes.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
A high threat of substitutes reduces the attractiveness of an industry. It tends to increase the price
elasticity of demand and therefore limits price increases and profit margins. If other factors are
constant, fewer entrants result in less intense competition.

NO.5 Paul Hersey and Ken Blanchard developed a situational leadership model with two
dimensions:task and relationship behaviors. In this model, the delegating leadership style is
appropriate when followers have:
A. Low maturity.
B. Low to moderate maturity.
C. Moderate to high maturity.
D. High maturity.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
The dimensions of the delegating leadership style are low task and low relationship. Consequently,
task- and relationship-related behaviors are low. The leader provides little direction or support
because the maturity of followers is high. They are willing and able to do what is necessary.

NO.6 Strategic management includes developing the organization's grand strategy. This strategy is
based on:
A. Existing strategic business units (SBUs).
B. A SWOT analysis.
C. Portfolio management of the organization's businesses.
D. Strategic planning.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Strategic management is a process that includes development of a grand strategy that describes
how the organization's mission is to be achieved. This strategy is based on a situational analysis that
considers organizational strengths and weaknesses (a capability profile) and their interactions with
environmental opportunities and threats. Such an evaluation is also called a SWOT analysis.
Strengths and weaknesses (the internal environment) are usually identified by considering the firm's
capabilities and resources. What the firm does particularly well or has in greater abundance are
known as core competencies. Opportunities and threats (the external environment) are identified
by considering macroenvironment factors (economic, demographic, political, legal, social, cultural,
and technical) and microenvironment factors (suppliers, customers, distributors, competitors, and
other competitive factors in the industry).

NO.7 With the shift in some countries' economies toward service industries, a new form of
organization has developed. This organization structure is referred to as the professional
bureaucracy. While this structure resembles the machine bureaucracy which relies on standardized
work processes) in several respects, it is different in one key aspect. This significant difference is that
in a professional bureaucracy:
A. Senior management has had to give up a substantial amount of control.
B. Tasks are accomplished with a high degree of efficiency.
C. There is strict adherence to rules.
D. There is a tendency for subunit conflicts to develop.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
A professional bureaucracy e.g., a university or library) is a complex and formal but decentralized
organization in which highly trained specialists have great autonomy. The jobs performed by these
professionals require years of education and training. By their nature, such jobs can be performed
effectively only if the employees are afforded substantial autonomy.

NO.8 A small engineering consulting firm accepts special projects from customers in a variety of
fields. Its choice of an organic organizational design was most likely based on its:
A. Lack of concern for self-fulfillment of employees.
B. Preference for formal communication.
C. Adoption of directive leadership style.
D. Participative decision making processes.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
The organic structure is best suited to a company that emphasizes operational efficiency less than
the flexibility needed to respond quickly to changes in its environment and the creativity to find
solutions to new problems. Decision making in this context tends to rely on input from many
sources and requires multidirectional communication. Hence, a horizontal or flat structure typified
by project or matrix management will be appropriate.

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Exam Name: Certified Internal Auditor - Part 4, Business Management Skills
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NO.1 Which of the following concepts is not consistent with a successful authoritarian organization?
A. Each subordinate should only have one superior.
B. Superiors may have as many subordinates as possible within the superior's span of control.
C. Responsibility may be delegated.
D. The hierarchy of authority should be precisely defined.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Taylor, Fayol, and other traditionalists advocated the creation of authoritarian organizations. One of
the criteria for success was the ability to delegate authority but not responsibility. Responsibility
should always remain with the person who made the decision.

NO.2 The General Electric (GE) portfolio model for competitive analysis of strategic business units
(SBUs) should be compared with the Boston Consulting Croup's growth-share matrix. The GE model:
A. Is a matrix with two variables:relative market share and market growth rate.
B. Calculates an index for each of its two variables.
C. Considers such factors for business strength as market size, growth rate, and price levels.
D. Considers such factors for market attractiveness as market share, growth rate, and marketing
skills.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
The GE model is a multifactor portfolio matrix with two variables. Business strength or competitive
position (BUS) is on one axis, and market attractiveness (MAT) is on the other. BUS is classified as
strong, medium, or weak, and MAT is classified as high, medium, or low. Thus, the matrix in this
model is 3 x 3 and has nine cells. SBUs are shown in the matrix as circles. Circle size is directly
proportional to the size of the related market, with a shaded portion in the circle that represents
the SBU's market share. To measure BUS and MAT, the firm must isolate the multiple factors
affecting each, quantify them, and create an index. Factors will vary with each business. The
measurements will provide the values on the axes of the matrix.

NO.3 The creation of regional free trade zones is a global phenomenon. Trade barriers are lowered
in these areas, and other steps are taken to promote economic cooperation. For example, a
common currency has been adopted by the nations of:
A. NAFTA.
B. Mercosul.
C. APEC.
D. The European Union.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
The European Union (Eli) is a collection of 27 European nations that have lowered trade barriers
among member states, and most of the nations share a common currency and trade policy. The
euro is the common currency of the European Union.

NO.4 The organizational culture may encourage politics by creating unreasonable obstacles to
group and individual advancement. Which type of political tactic involves taking credit for another
person's work?
A. Loyalty cliques.
B. Destructive competition.
C. Empire building.
D. Posturing.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
Posturing is an attempt to make a good impression, for example, by taking credit for others' work or
seeking to stay one jump ahead of a rival.

NO.5 Which of the following factors is least typical of an industry that faces intense competitive
rivalry?
A. Price-cutting.
B. Large advertising budgets.
C. Frequent introduction of new products.
D. A high threat of substitutes.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
A high threat of substitutes reduces the attractiveness of an industry. It tends to increase the price
elasticity of demand and therefore limits price increases and profit margins. If other factors are
constant, fewer entrants result in less intense competition.

NO.6 A small engineering consulting firm accepts special projects from customers in a variety of
fields. Its choice of an organic organizational design was most likely based on its:
A. Lack of concern for self-fulfillment of employees.
B. Preference for formal communication.
C. Adoption of directive leadership style.
D. Participative decision making processes.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
The organic structure is best suited to a company that emphasizes operational efficiency less than
the flexibility needed to respond quickly to changes in its environment and the creativity to find
solutions to new problems. Decision making in this context tends to rely on input from many
sources and requires multidirectional communication. Hence, a horizontal or flat structure typified
by project or matrix management will be appropriate.

NO.7 Dutch researcher Geert Hofstede has examined the cultural dimensions of organizational
behavior in 40 countries. The United States ranked the highest in which dimension?
A. Power distance.
B. Uncertainty avoidance.
C. Individualism.
D. Masculinity.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
The individualism-collectivism dimension addresses whether the organization or individual must
meet his/her own security needs.

NO.8 Which of the following is least likely to be an example of synergy?
A. A shopping mall with several businesses providing different products and performing different
services.
B. A car dealership providing warranties on automobile parts to maximize customer value.
C. A manufacturing company hiring a new manager with technological experience lacking in the
company.
D. Military Humvees being converted into sports utility vehicles for sale to civilians.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Synergy occurs when the combination of formerly separate elements has a greater effect than the
sum of their individual effects.
However, a car dealership's provision of warranties reflects anoperational strategy designed to
provide post-purchase services to gain a competitive advantage and maximize customer value. It
does not reflect the complementary sharing of resources, technology, or competencies. In contrast,
synergy arises from selling a line of carsthat share some components or abrand identification.

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Exam Code: IIA-CIA-Part3
Exam Name: IIA (Certified Internal Auditor - Part 3 study guide with online review)
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Total Q&A: 1554 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-04-27

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NO.1 Focusing on customers, promoting innovation, learning new philosophies, driving out fear, and
providing extensive training are all elements of a major change in organizations. These elements are
aimed primarily at:
A. Copying leading organizations to better compete with them.
B. Focusing on the total quality of products and services.
C. Being efficient and effective at the same time, in order to indirectly affect profits.
D. Managing costs of products and services better, in order to become the low-cost provider.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
TQM is a comprehensive approach to quality. It treats the pursuit of quality as a basic organizational
function that is as important as production or marketing. TQM is the continuous pursuit of quality in
every aspect of organizational activities through (1) a philosophy of doing it right the first time; (2)
employee training and empowerment; (3) promotion of teamwork; (4) improvement of processes;
and (5) attention to satisfaction of customers, both internal and external. TQM emphasizes the
supplier's relationship with the customer, identifies customer needs, and recognizes that everyone
in a process is at some time a customer or supplier of someone else, either inside or outside of the
organization.

NO.2 Which of the following is a characteristic of total quality management (TQM)?
A. Management by objectives.
B. On-the-job training by other workers.
C. Quality by final inspection.
D. Education and self-improvement.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
TQM is the continuous pursuit of quality in every aspect of organizational activities. One of the
means of achieving this is through employee training and empowerment.

NO.3 The use of teams in total quality management (TQM) is important because:
A. Well-managed teams can be highly creative and are able to address complex problems better
than individuals can.
B. Teams are quicker to make decisions, thereby helping to reduce cycle time.
C. Employee motivation is higher for team members than for individual contributors.
D. The use of teams eliminates the need for supervision, thereby allowing a company to become
leaner and more profitable.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Teams can use the diverse knowledge and skills of all team members. Employee involvement means
training and empowering employees to harness their creativity for problem solving. Quality control
circles are used to obtain input from employees and to locate the best perspective on problem
solving.

NO.4 Which statement best describes total quality management (TQM)?
A. TQM emphasizes reducing the cost of inspection.
B. TQM emphasizes better statistical quality control techniques.
C. TQM emphasizes doing each job right the first time.
D. TQM emphasizes encouraging cross-functional teamwork.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
TQM establishes quality as an organizational objective and views it as a major component of the
organization's service to its customers. It emphasizes employee training and commitment,
productservice design and production, and customer service. Ordinarily, the quality of a product or
service is as important to customers as cost and timeliness. Superior product quality is not merely
the result of more inspection, better statistical quality control, and cross-functional teamwork.
Manufactures must make fundamental changes in the way they produce products and do each job
right the first time.

NO.5 In which of the following organizational structures does total quality management (TQM) work
best?
A. Hierarchal.
B. Teams of people from the same specialty.
C. Teams of people from different specialties.
D. Specialists working individually.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
TQM advocates replacement of the traditional hierarchal structure with teams of people from
different specialties. This change follows from TQM's emphasis on empowering employees and
teamwork. Employees should (1) have proper training, necessary information, and the best tools;
(2) be fully engaged in the decision process; and (3) receive fair compensation. If such empowered
employees are assembled in teams of individuals with the required skills, TQM theorists believe
they will be more effective than people performing their tasks separately in a rigid structure.

NO.6 A company with many branch stores has decided to use its best-performing store as a
benchmark organization for the purpose of analyzing the accuracy and reliability of branch store
financial reporting.
Which one of the following is the most likely measure to be included in a financial benchmark?
A. High turnover of employees.
B. High level of employee participation in setting budgets.
C. High amount of bad debt write-offs.
D. High number of suppliers.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Internal benchmarking is the application of best practices in one part of the organization (e.g., a
high-performing branch store) to its other parts (other branches). This process requires, among
other things, use of quantitative and qualitative measures. A key indicator for financial performance
measurement is the amount of bad debt write-offs. A high level of bad debt write-offs could
indicate fraud, which would compromise the accuracy and reliability of financial reports. Bad debt
write-offs may result from recording fictitious sales.

NO.7 A traditional quality control process in manufacturing consists of mass inspection of goods
only at the end of a production process. A major deficiency of the traditional control process is that:
A. It is expensive to do the inspections at the end of the process.
B. It is not possible to rework defective items.
C. It is not 100% effective.
D. It does not focus on improving the entire production process.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
The process used to produce the goods is not thoroughly reviewed and evaluated for efficiency and
effectiveness. Preventing defects and increasing efficiency by improving the production process
raises quality standards and decreases costs.

NO.8 All of the following are generally included in a cost-of-quality report except:
A. Warranty claims.
B. Design engineering.
C. Supplier evaluations.
D. Lost contribution margin.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
A cost-of-quality report includes most costs related to quality, specifically the costs of prevention,
appraisal, internal failure, and external failure.
11. Which of the following is not an appropriate measure of quality?
A. Market share.
B. Delivery performance.
C. Customer satisfaction.
D. Raw materials costs.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
Emphasizing lower input costs may result in more defective output, and higher input costs may or
may not reflect the procurement of better raw materials. Financial measures are thus mostly
unsuitable for measuring quality.
12. One of the main reasons that implementation of a total quality management (TQM) program
works better through the use of teams is:
A. Teams are more efficient and help an organization reduce its staffing.
B. Employee motivation is always higher for team members than for individual contributors.
C. Teams are a natural vehicle for sharing ideas, which leads to process improvement.
D. The use of teams eliminates the need for supervision, thereby allowing a company to reduce
staffing.
Answer: C

IIA   IIA-CIA-Part3 questions   IIA-CIA-Part3
Explanation:
TQM promotes teamwork by modifying or eliminating traditional (and rigid) vertical hierarchies and
instead forming flexible groups of specialists. Quality circles, cross-functional teams, and
self-managed teams are typical formats. Teams are an excellent means of encouraging the sharing
of ideas and removing process improvement obstacles.
13. If a company is customer-centered, its customers are defined as:
A. Only people external to the company who have purchased something from the company.
B. Only people internal to the company who directly use its product.
C. Anyone external to the company and those internal who rely on its product to get their job done.
D. Everybody external to the company who is currently doing, or may in the future do, business with
the company.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
One of the principles of total quality management (TQM) is customer orientation, whether the
customer is internal or external. An internal customer is a member of the organization who relies on
another member's work to accomplish his/her task.
14. Management of a company is attempting to build a reputation as a world-class manufacturer
of quality products. Which of the following measures would not be used by the firm to measure
quality?
A. The percentage of shipments returned by customers because of poor quality.
B. The number of parts shipped per day.
C. The number of defective parts per million.
D. The percentage of products passing quality tests the firsttime
Answer: B

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Explanation:
The number of parts shipped per day would most likely be used as a measure of the effectiveness
and efficiency of shipping procedures, not the quality of the product. This measure does not
consider how many of the parts are defective.
15. Quality costing is similar in service and manufacturing organizations. Nevertheless, the
differences
between these organizations have certain implications for quality management. Thus,
A. Direct labor costs are usually a higher percentage of total costs in manufacturing organizations.
B. External failure costs are relatively greater in service organizations.
C. Quality improvements resulting in more efficient use of labor time are more likely to be accepted
by employees in service organizations.
D. Poor service is less likely to result in loss of customers than a faulty product.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
External failure costs arise when problems occur after delivery. They occur because products or
services are nonconforming or otherwise do not satisfy customers. External failure costs in service
enterprises are even more important than in manufacturing environments. Faulty goods sometimes
maybe reworked or replaced to a customer's satisfaction, but poor service tends to result in a loss of
customers.
16. A means of limiting production delays caused by equipment breakdown and repair is to:
A. Schedule production based on capacity planning.
B. Plan maintenance activity based on an analysis of equipment repair work orders.
C. Pre-authorize equipment maintenance and overtime pay.
D. Establish a preventive maintenance program for all production equipment.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
A preventive maintenance program reduces equipment breakdowns and repairs.
17. Under a total quality management (TQM) approach,
A. Measurement occurs throughout the process, and errors are caught and corrected at the source.
B. Quality control is performed by highly trained inspectors at the end of the production process.
C. Upper management assumes the primary responsibility for the quality of the products and
services.
D. A large number of suppliers are used in order to obtain the lowest possible prices.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
TQM emphasizes quality as a basic organizational function. TQM is the continuous pursuit of quality
in every aspect of organizational activities. One of the basic principles of TQM is doing it right the
first time. Thus, errors should be caught and corrected at the source.
18. Which of the following is a key to successful total quality management (TQM)?
A. Training quality inspectors.
B. Focusing intensely on the customer.
C. Creating appropriate hierarchies to increase efficiency.
D. Establishing a well-defined quality standard, then focusing on meeting it.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
TQM emphasizes satisfaction of customers, both internal and external. TQM considers the supplier's
relationship with the customer, identifies customer needs, and recognizes that everyone in a
process is at some time a customer or supplier of someone else, either inside or outside of the
organization. Thus, TQM begins with external customer requirements, identifies internal
customer-supplier relationships and requirements, and establishes requirements for external
suppliers.
19. The four categories of costs associated with product quality costs are:
A. External failure, internal failure, prevention, and carrying.
B. External failure, internal failure, prevention, and appraisal.
C. External failure, internal failure, training, and appraisal.
D. Warranty, product liability, training, and appraisal.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Prevention costs are incurred to prevent defects. Appraisal costs are incurred to detect defective
output during and after the production process. Internal failure costs are associated with defective
output discovered before shipping. External failure costs are associated with defective output
discovered after it has reached the customer.
20. Statistical quality control often involves the use of control charts whose basic purpose is to:
A. Determine when accounting control procedures are not working.
B. Control labor costs in production operations.
C. Detect performance trends away from normal operations.
D. Monitor internal control applications of information technology.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Statistical control charts are graphic aids for monitoring the status of any process subject to random
variations. The chart consists of three horizontal lines plotted on a horizontal time scale. The vertical
scale represents the appropriate quantitative measure. The center line represents the average range
or overall mean for the process being controlled. The other two lines are the upper control limit and
the lower control limit. The processes are measured periodically, and the values are plotted on the
chart. If the value falls within the control limits, no action is taken. If the value falls outside the limits,
the process is considered "out of control," and an investigation is made for possible corrective
action. Another advantage of the chart is that it makes trends visible.

NO.9 Which of the following is not required by ISO 9000 standards?
A. Establishment of a quality management system.
B. Creation of an internal audit system.
C. Consistent high quality products.
D. Onsite inspections by a registrar.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
ISO 9000 is a set of generic standards for establishing and maintaining a quality system within an
entity. The standards provide no basis forjudging the quality of the end product. The marketplace
makes this determination. The objective of ISO 9000 standards is to ensure consistent quality.

NO.10 Which of the following costs of quality is a failure cost?
A. Systems development costs.
B. Costs of inspecting in-process items.
C. Contract penalty for delivery of nonconforming goods.
D. Costs of quality circles.
Answer: C

IIA   IIA-CIA-Part3   IIA-CIA-Part3   IIA-CIA-Part3   IIA-CIA-Part3 answers real questions
Explanation:
Failure costs are incurred after defective output has been removed from production. A contract
penalty for faulty goods is an example of an external failure cost.

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Exam Code: IIA-CFSA
Exam Name: IIA (Certified Financial Services Auditor)
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Total Q&A: 511 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-04-27

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NO.1 Which of the following situation would not impair audit objectivity?
A. An auditor is assigned to audit a business function that the auditor was responsible for nine
months ago
B. An individual temporarily assigned to the internal audit activity because of the individual'sexpert
knowledge in a particular business function assigned to audit an activity that theindividual was
responsible for just prior to transferring to the internal audit activity
C. An auditor is assigned to perform a post-implementation review on a system for which the
auditor participated in the design process
D. An auditor is assigned to perform a post-implementation review on a system for which the
auditor performed a procedure review and made control recommendations prior to the system's
implementation
Answer: D

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NO.2 All these statements elaborate purpose of standards EXCEPT:
A. Foster improved organizational processes and operations
B. Establish the basis for the evaluation of internal audit performance
C. Subvert the framework for performing and promoting broad range of value-added internal audit
activities.
D. Delineate basic principles that represent the practice of internal auditing as it should be
Answer: C

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NO.3 Internal auditing:
A. Is an independent, objective assurance and consulting activity designed to add value and improve
anorganization's operations
B. Is an independent, performance measurement and consulting activity designed to addValue and
improve an organization's operations
C. Helps an organization accomplish objectives by bringing a systematic, disciplinedApproach to
evaluate but rarely improve the effectiveness of risk management, control and governance
D. Helps an organization accomplish objectives by bringing a targeted, disciplined approach to
evaluate but rarely improve the effectiveness of risk management, control and governance
Answer: A

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NO.4 There are multiple sets of attribute and performance standards:
A. False
B. True
C. True- In specific conditions
D. False- In specific conditions
Answer: A

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NO.5 Nature of internal audit activities and quality criteria against which the performance of these
services can be evaluated is best portrayed by:
A. Performance Standards
B. Attribute Standards
C. Implementation Standards
D. Evaluation Standards
Answer: A

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NO.6 Internal auditors are expected to uphold the following principles:
A. Integrity, objectivity, competency
B. Integrity, objectivity, confidentiality, and competency
C. Integrity, objectivity, awareness and competency
D. Integrity, objectivity, entirety
Answer: B

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NO.7 IIA's code of ethics applies to __________ that provide internal auditing services:
A. Individuals
B. Entities
C. Individuals and entities
D. Individuals, entities and indirect authorities
Answer: C

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NO.8 All of the following phrases are used to express the auditor's opinion EXCEPT:
A. Give a true and fair view
B. Present fairly, in all material respects
C. Timely and consistent opinion
D. Comprehensible and realistic view
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which of the following statements is NOT related to competency principle of internal auditing?
Internal auditors:
A. Shall continually improve their proficiency and effectiveness and quality of their services
B. Shall perform internal auditing services in accordance with the standards for the professional
practice of internal auditing
C. Shall engage only in those services for which they have the necessary knowledge, skills and
experience
D. Shall disclose all material facts known to them that, if not disclosed, may distort the reporting of
activities under review
Answer: D

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NO.10 The auditor should plan an audit with an attitude of:
A. Professional competence
B. Professional skepticism
C. Subject awareness
D. Opinion sharing
Answer: B

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NO.11 Reasonable assurance relates to the:
A. Audit planning process
B. Scope of the internal audit
C. End of the audit process
D. Whole audit process
Answer: D

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NO.12 Internal auditors, engaging in activities that are illegal and discreditable to the profession of
internal auditing or the organization, violate which of the following principles:
A. Objectivity
B. Awareness
C. Integrity
D. Competence
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which of the following is a limitation in an audit that affects auditors' ability to detect
material misstatements?
A. Scope of an audit
B. The use of testing
C. Over- generalization
D. Unidentifiable risks
Answer: B

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NO.14 "Internal auditors make a balanced assessment of all the relevant circumstances and are not
unduly influenced by their own interests or by others in forming judgments." This statement best
explains one of the following principles:
A. Competency
B. Confidentiality
C. Objectivity
D. Integrity
Answer: C

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NO.15 While performing consulting services internal auditors should specifically maintain:
A. Proficiency level
B. Objectivity
C. Competence
D. Confidentiality
Answer: B

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Exam Code: IIA-CGAP
Exam Name: IIA (Certified Government Auditing Professional)
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NO.1 Although not a generally accepted practice by most audit organizations, some may not
comply with audit standards and call the final product reviews or studies. The entire following are
some specific examples where standards may not be used EXCEPT:
A. An "assignment" may have an extremely short deadline, making it virtually impossible to comply
with all appropriate audit standards.
B. The organization doesn't follow the audit standards.
C. Assignments that are strictly tied to compliance with contract terms, regulations, or grant
requirements.
D. The requesting body (legislature, for example) may not want standards to be applied to the
assignment.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Many _____________________ are conducted in accordance with established Standards,
INTOSAI, or IFAC standards. The International Organization of Supreme Audit Institutions
______________________ promulgates standards for government organizations where as the
International Federation of Accountants _________________ provides additional guidance and
standards:
A. Government audits, (IFAC), (INTOSAI)
B. Government audits, (INTOSAI), (IFAC)
C. (IFAC), (INTOSAI), Government audits
D. (IFAC), Government audits, (INTOSAI)
Answer: B

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NO.3 A __________________________ letter is usually developed with either a qualified or
unqualified opinion. Obviously a qualified opinion will warrant significant remedial action by the
audit organization:
A. Opinion letter
B. Offer letter
C. Informal opinion letter
D. Formal opinion letter
Answer: D

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NO.4 The ____________ promulgates standards for government organizations. INTOSAI standards
are a model for government audit standards, established and endorsed by the INTOSAI organization,
but which must be adopted and/or modified by the _________ of any specific country in order to be
used?
A. Supreme Audit Institution (SAI), International Organization of Supreme Audit Institutions
(INTOSAI)
B. International Organization of Supreme Audit Institutions (INTOSAI), International Standards for
the Professional Practice of Internal Auditing (ISPPIA)
C. International Organization of Supreme Audit Institutions (INTOSAI), Supreme Audit Institution
(SAI)
D. International Standards for the Professional Practice of Internal Auditing (ISPPIA), Supreme Audit
Institution (SAI)
Answer: C

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NO.5 Standards must be reviewed and applied appropriately during the conduct of an audit.
Following are some illustrations of situations that may arise during the course of an audit EXCEPT:
A. Qualification
B. Independence
C. Communication
D. Coordination
Answer: D

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NO.6 One mechanism to help ensure the proper application of audit standards is through
____________. The purpose of _______________ is to provide feedback to management on the
effectiveness of the quality control policies and procedures of an organization:
A. An external quality review process
B. An internal quality review process
C. Organizational review process
D. Audit review process
Answer: B

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NO.7 The application of the appropriate audit standards is dependent on all of the following issues
EXCEPT:
A. Laws and policies of the audit organization.
B. Regulations
C. Audit requirements
D. External control requirement
Answer: D

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NO.8 Audit standards were developed and are followed for all of the following reasons EXCEPT:
A. To provide uniform guidance to auditors and to establish a basis for conducting internal and
external reviews of quality audits.
B. To build credibility and confidence in the auditing profession.
C. To inform customers (the public, public officials, management, stockholders, etc.) about the role
ofauditing.
D. Audit staff qualifications and Quality control
Answer: D

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NO.9 The purpose of the external quality control review is to determine whether the organization's
internal quality control system is in place and operating effectively to provide reasonable assurance
that established policies and procedures and applicable auditing standards are being followed.
A. Quality control, Quantity control
B. Internal quality control system, External quality control
C. External quality control, Internal quality control system
D. Quantity control, Quantity control
Answer: C

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NO.10 Section _________ will detail some specific audit planning steps that are often utilized to
ensure that the appropriate legal and audit standards are applied in ___________:
A. Audit proposals, Audit engagements
B. Audit engagements, II.C.2 (Planning)
C. II.C.2 (Planning), Audit engagements
D. Audit engagements, Audit proposals
Answer: C

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NO.11 All of the following groups benefit from the existence of audit standards in a variety of ways
EXCEPT:
A. Elected officials and the public receive increased assurance that public funds are being effectively
used and monitored
B. Government organization
C. Management receives increased assurance that fraud or other organizational deficiencies will be
detected and corrected.
D. External parties and reviewers are provided with usable measurement guidelines.
Answer: B

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NO.12 The application of appropriate standards depends on all of the following EXCEPT:
A. The objective of the engagement
B. Availability of information.
C. Legally binding agreement
D. Other mandates or local requirements relevant to the audit organization and the engagement
itself.
Answer: C

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NO.13 The IIA has developed the Professional Practices Framework (PPF). In general, a framework
provides a structural blueprint of how a body of knowledge and guidance fits together. As a
coherent system, it facilitates all of the following to a discipline or profession EXCEPT:
A. Communication skills
B. Application of concepts
C. Consistent development
D. Interpretation and methodologies
Answer: A

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NO.14 _________Help define the role and responsibilities of auditors to internal and external entities.
Where as _______establish the basic principles and guidance to assist auditors in the performance
of their duties?
A. Technical standards, Standards
B. Standards, Defense standards
C. Audit standards, Standards
D. Standards, Open standards
Answer: C

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NO.15 Governmental auditing is distinctive and encompasses different requirements from auditing
commercial or not-for-profit enterprises. The standards that apply specifically to government audits
are all of the following EXCEPT:
A. International Auditing and Assurance Standards Board (IAASB).
B. International Standards for the Professional Practice of Internal Auditing (ISPPIA).
C. International Standards on Auditing (ISA).
D. International Organization of Supreme Audit Institutions (INTOSAI) Standards.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: IIA-CIA-Part2
Exam Name: IIA (Certified Internal Auditor - Part 2, Conducting the Internal Audit Engagement)
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Total Q&A: 220 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-01

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NO.1 What would be used to determine the collectability of accounts receivable balances?
A. The file of related shipping documents.
B. Negative accounts receivable confirmations.
C. Positive accounts receivable confirmations.
D. An aged accounts receivable listing.
Answer: D

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NO.2 When assessing the risk associated with an activity, an internal auditor should:
A. Determine how the risk should best be managed.
B. Provide assurance on the management of the risk.
C. Modify the risk management process based on risk exposures.
D. Design controls to mitigate the identified risks.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following situations might allow an employee to steal checks sent to an
organization and subsequently cash them?
A. Checks are not restrictively endorsed when received.
B. Only one signature is required on the organization's checks.
C. One employee handles both accounts receivable and purchase orders.
D. One employee handles both cash deposits and accounts payable.
Answer: A

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NO.4 An audit of management's quality program includes testing the accuracy of the cost-of-quality
reports provided to management. Which of the following internal control objectives is the focus of
this testing?
A. To ensure compliance with policies, plans, procedures, laws, and regulations.
B. To ensure the accomplishment of established objectives and goals for operations or programs.
C. To ensure the reliability and integrity of information.
D. To ensure the economical and efficient use of resources.
Answer: C

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NO.5 When internal auditors provide consulting services, the scope of the engagement is primarily
determined by:
A. Internal auditing standards.
B. The audit engagement team.
C. The engagement client.
D. The internal audit activity's charter.
Answer: C

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NO.6 The most effective way for internal auditors to enhance the reliability of computerized
financial and operating information is by:
A. Determining if controls over record keeping and reporting are adequate and effective.
B. Reviewing data provided by information systems to test compliance with external requirements.
C. Determining if information systems provide management with timely information.
D. Determining if information systems provide complete information.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following would be a red flag that indicates the possibility of inventory fraud?
I.The controller has assumed responsibility for approving all payments to certain vendors.
II.The controller has continuously delayed installation of a new accounts payable system, despite a
corporate directive to implement it.
III.Sales commissions are not consistent with the organization's increased levels of sales.
IV.Payments to certain vendors are supported by copies of receiving memos, rather than originals.
A. I and II only.
B. II and III only.
C. I, II, and IV only.
D. I, III, and IV only.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following procedures would provide the best evidence of the effectiveness of a
credit-granting function?
A. Observe the process.
B. Review the trend in receivables write-offs.
C. Ask the credit manager about the effectiveness of the function.
D. Check for evidence of credit approval on a sample of customer orders.
Answer: B

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NO.9 During an operational audit of a chain of pizza delivery stores, an auditor determined that cold
pizzas were causing customer dissatisfaction. A review of oven calibration records for the last six
months revealed that adjustments were made on over 40 percent of the ovens. Based on this, the
auditor:
A. Has enough evidence to conclude that improperly functioning ovens are the cause.
B. Needs to conduct further inquiries and reviews to determine the impact of the oven variations on
the pizza temperature.
C. Has enough evidence to recommend the replacement of some of the ovens.
D. Must search for another cause since approximately 60 percent of the ovens did not require
adjustment.
Answer: B

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NO.10 An internal auditor is assigned to conduct an audit of security for a local area network (LAN) in
the finance department of the organization. Investment decisions, including the use of hedging
strategies and financial derivatives, use data and financial models which run on the LAN. The LAN is
also used to download data from the mainframe to assist in decisions. Which of the following
should be considered outside the scope of this security audit engagement?
A. Investigation of the physical security over access to the components of the LAN.
B. The ability of the LAN application to identify data items at the field or record level and implement
user access security at that level.
C. Interviews with users to determine their assessment of the level of security in the system and the
vulnerability of the system to compromise.
D. The level of security of other LANs in the company which also utilize sensitive data.
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which of the following is a weakness that is inherent in the use of the test data method to
test internal controls in a computer-based accounting system?
A. The auditor must test many transactions with the same condition in order to achieve assurance
that the condition is being detected.
B. Conditions that were not specifically considered by the auditor may go untested.
C. The approach requires the creation of "dummy companies," possibly destroying or altering actual
company data in the process.
D. Inclusion of atypical data in the test data may cause errors to be noted on the exception report.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which of the following would be an appropriate improvement to controls over large
quantities of consumable material that are charged to expense when placed in bins which are
accessible to production workers?
A. Relocate bins to the inventory warehouse.
B. Require management to compare the cost of consumable items used to the budget.
C. Lock the bins during normal working hours.
D. None of the above actions are needed for items of minor cost and size.
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which of the following would be most helpful to a governmental auditor searching for the
existence of multiple welfare claims that were filed under different names but used the same
address?
A. Tagging and tracing.
B. Generalized audit software.
C. Integrated test facility.
D. Spreadsheet analysis.
Answer: B

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NO.14 A manufacturing process could create hazardous waste at several production stages, from
raw materials handling to finished goods storage. If the objective of a pollution prevention audit
engagement is to identify opportunities for minimizing waste, in what order should the following
opportunities be considered?
I.Recycling and reuse.
II.Elimination at the source.
III.Energy conservation.
IV.Recovery as a usable product.
Treatment.
A. V, II, IV, I, III.
B. IV, II, I, III, V.
C. I, III, IV, II, V.
D. III, IV, II, V, I.
Answer: B

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NO.15 An organization's internal auditors are reviewing production costs at a gas-powered electrical
generating plant. They identify a serious problem with the accuracy of carbon dioxide emissions
reported to the environmental regulatory agency, due to computer errors. The auditors should
immediately report the concern to:
A. The regulatory agency.
B. Plant management.
C. A plant health and safety officer.
D. The risk management function.
Answer: B

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