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Exam Code: 1Z1-052
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Database 11g: Administrator I )
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 188 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Your test database is running in NOARCHIVELOG mode. Which statement is true regarding the type of
backups that can be performed on the database?
A.You can perform online whole database backups.
B.You can perform offline whole database backups.
C.You cannot perform schema-level export/import operations.
D.You can perform the backup of only the SYSTEM tablespace when the database is open.
Answer: B

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NO.2 View the Exhibit and examine the attributes of an undo tablespace.
In an OLTP system, the user SCOTT has started a query on a large table in the peak transactional hour
that performs bulk inserts. The query runs for more than 15 minutes and then SCOTT receives the
following error:
ORA-01555: snapshot too old
What could be the reason for this error?
A.The query is unable to get a read-consistent image.
B.There is not enough space in Flash Recovery Area.
C.There is not enough free space in the flashback archive.
D.The query is unable to place data blocks in undo tablespace
Answer: A

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NO.3 These are points that describe the contents of different memory components:
1. Descriptive information or metadata about schema objects that are queried by using SQL statements
2: The run-time area for data manipulation language (DML) or data definition language (DDL) statements
3: Results of SQL queries and PL/SQL functions
4: Executable forms of SQL cursors, PL/SQL programs, and Java classes
5: The information necessary to reconstruct changes made to the database by a transaction
Which of these will be stored in the Shared Pool if the necessary configurations are done?
A.1 and 2
B.2 and 5
C.1, 3, and 4
D.3, 4, and 5
E.1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which is the correct description of a pinned buffer in the database buffer cache?
A.The buffer is currently being accessed.
B.The buffer is empty and has not been used.
C.The contents of the buffer have changed and must be flushed to the disk by the DBWn process.
D.The buffer is a candidate for immediate aging out and its contents are synchronized with the block
contents on the disk.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which two statements are true about the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR)? (Choose two.)
A.All AWR tables belong to the SYSTEM schema.
B.The AWR contains systemwide tracing and logging information.
C.The snapshots collected by the AWR are accessible through data dictionary views.
D.The snapshots collected by the AWR are used by self-tuning components in the database.
Answer: CD

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NO.6 Observe the information in the columns:
1. The SGAa. Text and parsed forms of all SQL statements
2: The cursor stateb. Run-time memory values for the SQL statement, such as rows retrieved
3: User-session datac. Security and resource usage information
4: The stack spaced. Local variables for the process
Which option has the correct match between the memory areas and their contents?
A.1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a
B.1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a
C.1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d
D.1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c
Answer: C

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NO.7 Examine the following statement that is used to modify the constraint on the SALES table:
SQL> ALTER TABLE SALES MODIFY CONSTRAINT pk DISABLE VALIDATE;
Which three statements are true regarding the above command? (Choose three.)
A.The constraint remains valid.
B.The index on the constraint is dropped.
C.It allows the loading of data into the table using SQL *Loader.
D.New data conforms to the constraint, but existing data is not checked.
E.It allows the data manipulation on the table using INSERT/UPDATE/DELETE SQL statements.
Answer: ABC

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NO.8 You have issued a SHUTDOWN ABORT command to bring down your database instance. Consider
the steps that will be performed later when you open the database:
1. SGA is allocated.
2: Control file is read.
3: Redo log files are read.
4: Instance recovery is started.
5: Background processes are started.
6: Data files are checked for consistency.
7: Server parameter file or the initialization parameter file is read.
Which option has the correct order in which these steps occur?
A.7, 1, 5, 2, 3, 6, 4
B.1, 2, 3,7, 5, 6, 4
C.7, 1, 4, 5, 2, 3, 6
D.1, 7, 5, 4, 2, 3, 6
Answer: A

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NO.9 You have set Tablespace Full Metrics Threshold values for the USERS tablespace as follows:
Warning (%): 90
Critical (%): 95
Which background process is responsible for issuing alerts when the threshold is crossed?
A.System monitor (SMON)
B.Process monitor (PMON)
C.Memory manager process (MMAN)
D.Manageability Monitor process (MMON)
Answer: D

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NO.10 View the Exhibit and identify the component marked with a question mark.
A.Checkpoint (CKPT)
B.Process Monitor (PMON)
C.Archiver Processes (ARCn)
D.Recoverer Process (RECO)
E.Memory Manager process (MMAN)
Answer: A

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NO.11 You have executed this command to change the size of the database buffer cache:
SQL> ALTER SYSTEM SET DB_CACHE_SIZE=2516582;
System altered.
To verify the change in size, you executed this command:
SQL> SHOW PARAMETER DB_CACHE_SIZE
NAME TYPE VALUE
------------------- ----------- ------------------
db_cache_size big integer 4194304
Why is the value set to 4194304 and not to 2516582?
A.because 4194304 is the granule size
B.because 4194304 is the standard block size
C.because 4194304 is the largest nonstandard block size defined in the database
D.because 4194304 is the total size of data already available in the database buffer cache
Answer: A

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NO.12 Open the database.
Identify the correct sequence of steps?
A.1, 2, 4, 3, 5, 6
B.2, 4, 3, 5, 6; 1 not required
C.4, 5, 6, 2, 3; 1 not required
D.5, 2, 3, 4; 1 and 6 not required
Answer: A

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6. Note the following points describing various utilities in Oracle Database 11g:
1. It enables the high-speed transfer of data from one database to another.
2: It provides a complete solution for the backup, restoration, and recovery needs of the entire database.
3: It enables the loading of data from an external file into an Oracle database.
4: It provides a tape backup management for the Oracle ecosystem.
Which point describes Oracle Secure Backup?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
E.1, 2, and 4
F.1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which two statements about the background process of the database writer are true? (Choose two.)
A.It is possible to have multiple database writers in an Oracle instance.
B.It writes dirty buffers, if any, to data files whenever a checkpoint occurs.
C.It writes dirty buffers, if any, to data files whenever a transaction commits.
D.It writes dirty buffers, if any, to data files before the log writer (LGWR) writes.
Answer: AB

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NO.14 While observing the index statistics, you find that an index is highly fragmented, thereby resulting in
poor database performance. Which option would you use to reduce fragmentation without affecting the
users who are currently using the index?
A.Validate the index structure using the ANALYZE...INDEX command.
B.Rebuild the index using the ALTER INDEX..REBUILD ONLINE command.
C.Change the block space utilization parameters using the ALTER INDEX command.
D.Deallocate the unused space in the index using the ALTER INDEX..DEALLOCATE UNUSED command.
Answer: B

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NO.15 Note the functionalities of various background processes:
1. Perform recovery at instance startup.
2: Free the resources used by a user process when it fails.
3: Cleanup the database buffer cache when a process fails.
4: Dynamically register database services with listeners.
5: Monitor sessions for idle session timeout.
6: Cleanup unused temporary segments.
7: Record the checkpoint information in control file.
Which option has the correct functionalities listed for a background process?
A.Checkpoint (CKPT): 1, 2, 5
B.System Monitor (SMON): 1, 6
C.Process Monitor (PMON): 4, 6, 7
D.Database Writer (DBWR): 1, 3, 4
Answer: B

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NO.16 Identify the memory component from which memory may be allocated for:
1. Session memory for the shared server
2: Buffers for I/O slaves
3: Oracle Database Recovery Manager (RMAN) backup and restore operations
A.Large Pool
B.Redo Log Buffer
C.Database Buffer Cache
D.Program Global Area (PGA)
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which two statements are true about Shared SQL Area and Private SQL Area? (Choose two.)
A.Shared SQL Area will be allocated in the shared pool.
B.Shared SQL Area will be allocated when a session starts.
C.Shared SQL Area will be allocated in the large pool always.
D.Private SQL Area will be allocated in the Program Global Area (PGA) always.
E.Shared SQL Area and Private SQL Area will be allocated in the PGA or large pool.
F.The number of Private SQL Area allocations is dependent on the OPEN_CURSORS parameter.
Answer: AF

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NO.18 View the Exhibit and examine the privileges granted to the SL_REP user.
The EMP table is owned by the SCOTT user. The SL_REP user executes the following command:
SQL> GRANT SELECT ON scott.emp TO hr;
Which statement describes the outcome of the command?
A.The command executes successfully.
B.The command produces an error because the EMP table is owned by SCOTT.
C.The command produces an error because SL_REP has the GRANT ANY OBJECT PRIVILEGE without
ADMIN_OPTION.
D.The command produces an error because SL_REP does not have the SELECT privilege with
GRANT_OPTION on the EMP table.
Answer: A

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NO.19 Note the following functionalities of various background processes:
1. Record the checkpoint information in data file headers.
2: Perform recovery at instance startup.
3: Cleanup unused temporary segments.
4: Free the resources used by a user process when it fails.
5: Dynamically register database services with listeners.
6: Monitor sessions for idle session timeout.
Which option has the correct functionalities listed for a background process?
A.Archiver Process (ARCn): 1, 2, 5
B.System Monitor Process (SMON): 1, 4, 5
C.Process Monitor Process (PMON): 4, 5, 6
D.Database Writer Process (DBWn): 1, 3, 4
Answer: C

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NO.20 The database instance is currently using SPFILE. View the Exhibit and examine the error that you
received while running the DB Structure Integrity check.
Given below are the steps to recover from the error in random order:
1. Shut down the instance, if not already done.
2: Copy one of the remaining control files to a new location.
3: Change the value of the CONTROL_FILES initialization parameter to correspond to the new location of
the control files.
4: Start up the database instance to the NOMOUNT stage.
5: Recover the database to the point of failure of the control file.

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Exam Code: 1Z0-055
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Database 11g: New Features for 9i OCPs)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 150 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which of the following information will be gathered by the SQL Test Case Builder for the problems
pertaining to SQL-related problems? (Choose all that apply.)
A. ADR diagnostic files
B. all the optimizer statistics
C. initialization parameter settings
D. PL/SQL functions, procedures, and packages
E. the table and index definitions and actual data
Answer: BCE

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NO.2 View the Exhibit for the object interdependency diagram.
The PRODUCTS table is used to create the PRODCAT_VW view.
PRODCAT_VW is used in the GET_DATA procedure.
GET_DATA is called in the CHECK_DATA function.
A new column PROD_QTY is added to the PRODUCTS table.
How does this impact the status of the dependent objects?
A. All dependent objects remain valid.
B. Only the procedure and function become invalid and must be recompiled.
C. Only the view becomes invalid and gets automatically revalidated the next time it is used.
D. Only the procedure and function become invalid and get automatically revalidated the next time they
are called.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Your system has been upgraded from Oracle Database 10g to Oracle Database 11g. You imported
SQL Tuning Sets (STS) from the previous version. After changing the OPTIMIZER_FEATURE_ENABLE
parameter to 10.2.0.4 and running the SQL Performance Analyzer, you observed performance regression
for a few SQL statements. What would you do with these SQL statements?
A. Set OPTIMIZER_USE_PLAN_BASELINES to FALSE to prevent the use of regressed plans.
B. Capture the plans from the previous version using STS and then load them into the stored outline.
C. Capture the plans from the previous version using STS and then load them into SQL Management
Base (SMB).
D. Set OPTIMIZER_CAPTURE_SQL_PLAN_BASELINES to FALSE to prevent the plans from being
loaded to the SQL plan baseline.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which two statements are true with respect to the maintenance window? (Choose two.)
A. A DBA can enable or disable an individual task in all maintenance windows.
B. A DBA cannot change the duration of the maintenance window after it is created.
C. In case of a long maintenance window, all Automated Maintenance Tasks are restarted every four
hours.
D. A DBA can control the percentage of the resource allocated to the Automated Maintenance Tasks in
each window.
Answer: AD

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NO.5 Identify the activities performed as part of the Automatic SQL Tuning process in the maintenance
window? (Choose all that apply.)
A. generating the SQL profile
B. testing and accepting the SQL profile
C. generating a list of candidate SQLs for tuning
D. adding tuned SQL plans into the SQL plan baseline
E. tuning each SQL statement in the order of importance
F. generating baselines that include candidate SQL statement for tuning
Answer: ABCE

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NO.6 You want to convert your existing non-ASM files to ASM files for the database PROD. Which method or
command would you use to accomplish this task?
A. Data Pump Export and Import
B. conventional export and import
C. the CONVERT command of RMAN
D. the BACKUP AS COPY.. command of RMAN
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which method would you use to undo the changes made by a particular transaction without affecting
the changes made by other transactions?
A. point-in-time recovery
B. execute the ROLLBACK command with transaction number
C. flashback the database to before the transaction was committed
D. determine all the necessary undo SQL statements from FLASHBACK_TRANSACTION_QUERY and
use them for recovery
Answer: D

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NO.8 While deploying a new application module, the software vendor ships the application software along
with appropriate SQL plan baselines for the new SQLs being introduced. Which two statements describe
the consequences? (Choose two.)
A. The plan baselines can be evolved over time to produce better performance.
B. The newly generated plans are directly placed into the SQL plan baseline without being verified.
C. The new SQL statements initially run with the plans that are known to produce good performance
under standard test configuration.
D. The optimizer does not generate new plans for the SQL statements for which the SQL plan baseline
has been imported.
Answer: AC

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NO.9 View the Exhibit to examine the error during the database startup.
You open an RMAN session for the database instance. To repair the failure, you executed the following as
the first command in the RMAN session:
RMAN> REPAIR FAILURE;
Which statement describes the consequence of the command?
A. The command performs the recovery and closes the failures.
B. The command only displays the advice and the RMAN script required for repair.
C. The command produces an error because the ADVISE FAILURE command has not been executed
before the REPAIR FAILURE command.
D. The command executes the RMAN script to repair the failure and removes the entry from the
Automatic Diagnostic Repository (ADR).
Answer: C

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NO.10 You performed an incomplete recovery and opened the database with the RESETLOGS option. The
LOG_ARCHIVE_FORMAT parameter is set to 'ora_%t_%s_%r.log'. Which statement regarding the
archived redo log files, created in an earlier incarnation of the database, is true?
A. The archived redo log files will be overwritten.
B. The archived redo log files are deleted automatically.
C. The archived redo log files should be moved to some other location.
D. The archived redo log files are still maintained because the file names are unique.
Answer: D

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NO.11 While performing the backup of the flash recovery area, you notice that one of the archived redo log
files is missing. You have multiple destinations for archived redo log files. What implications does it have
on the backup of the flash recovery area?
A. The backup succeeds but it would be without the missing archived log.
B. The backup fails because one of the archived redo log files is missing.
C. The backup succeeds because it fails over to one of the alternative archived redo log destinations.
D. During backup, you are prompted for the alternative destination for the missing archived redo log file.
Answer: C

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NO.12 In your database, the RESULT_CACHE_MODE parameter has been set to MANUAL in the
initialization parameter file.
You issued the following command:
SQL>SELECT /*+ RESULT_CACHE */ sale_category, sum(sale_amt)
FROM sales
GROUP BY sale_category;
Where would the result of this query be stored?
A. PGA
B. large pool
C. shared pool
D. database buffer cache
Answer: C

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NO.13 An online tablespace, TEST_TBS, is full and you realize that no server-managed tablespace
threshold alerts were generated for the TEST_TBS tablespace. What could be the reason, if the
TEST_TBS tablespace does not include autoextensible data files?
A. TEST_TBS is a small file tablespace.
B. TEST_TBS is a bigfile tablespace (BFT).
C. TEST_TBS is the default temporary tablespace.
D. TEST_TBS is a dictionary-managed tablespace.
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which are the prerequisites for performing flashback transactions on your database? (Choose all that
apply.)
A. Supplemental log must be enabled.
B. Supplemental log must be enabled for the primary key.
C. Undo retention guarantee for the database must be configured.
D. Execute permission on the DBMS_FLASHBACK package must be granted to the user.
Answer: ABD

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NO.15 When executing a SQL workload, you choose to generate execution plans only, without collecting
execution statistics. Which two statements describe the implications of this? (Choose two.)
A. It produces less accurate results of the comparison analysis.
B. It automatically calls the SQL Tuning Advisor for recommendations.
C. It shortens the time of execution and reduces the impact on system resources.
D. Only the changes in the execution plan, and not performance regression, are detected.
Answer: AC

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NO.16 View the Exhibit exhibit1.
In the CUSTOMERS_OBE table, when the value of CUST_STATE_PROVINCE is "CA", the value of
COUNTRY_ID is "US"
View the Exhibit exhibit2 to examine the commands and query plans.
The optimizer can sense 8 rows instead of 29 rows, which is the actual number of rows in the table. What
can you do to make the optimizer detect the actual selectivity?
A. Set the STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter to TYPICAL.
B. Change the STALE_PERCENT value for the CUSTOMERS_OBE table.
C. Set the OPTIMIZER_USE_PENDING_STATISTICS parameter to FALSE.
D. Create extended statistics for the CUST_STATE_PROVINCE and COUNTRY_ID columns.
Answer: D

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NO.17 Examine the following PL/SQL block:
SET SERVEROUTPUT ON
SET LONG 10000
DECLARE report clob;
BEGIN
report := DBMS_SPM.EVOLVE_SQL_PLAN_BASELINE();
DBMS_OUTPUT.PUT_LINE(report);
END;
Which statement describes the effect of the execution of the above PL/SQL block?
A. The plan baselines are verified with the SQL profiles.
B. All fixed plan baselines are converted into nonfixed plan baselines.
C. All the nonaccepted SQL profiles are accepted into the plan baseline.
D. The nonaccepted plans in the SQL Management Base are verified with the existing plan baselines.
Answer: D

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NO.18 You issued the following command:
CREATE GLOBAL TEMPORARY TABLE admin_work_area
(startdate DATE,
enddate DATE,
class CHAR(20))
ON COMMIT DELETE ROWS
TABLESPACE tbs_t1;
An index is then created on the ADMIN_WORK_AREA temporary table.
Which two statements are true regarding the TBS_T1 tablespace in the above command? (Choose two.)
A. It stores only the temporary table but not its indexes.
B. It stores both the temporary table as well as its indexes.
C. It must be a nondefault temporary tablespace for the database.
D. It can be a default or nondefault temporary tablespace for the database.
E. It must be the default temporary tablespace of the user who issues the command.
Answer: BD

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NO.19 Which setting enables the baselines by default in Oracle Database 11g?
A. setting the STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter to TYPICAL
B. adding filters to the Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM)
C. enabling Automated Maintenance Task using Oracle Enterprise Manager
D. setting the OPTIMIZER_USE_PENDING_STATISTICS parameter to TRUE
Answer: A

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NO.20 View the Exhibit to examine the details for an incident.
Which statement is true regarding the status of the incident?
A. The DBA is working on the incident and prefers that the incident be kept in the ADR.
B. The incident is now in the Done state and the ADR can select the incident to be purged.
C. The incident has been newly created and is in the process of collecting diagnostic information.
D. The data collection for the incident is complete and the incident can be packaged and sent to Oracle
Support.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 1Z0-025
Exam Name: Oracle (Backup and Recovery)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 127 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 What is the correct procedure for multiplexing existing online redo logs?
A. Issue the ALTER DATABASE. . . ADD LOGFILE GROUP command.
B. Issue the ALTER DATABASE. . . ADD LOGFILE MEMBER command.
C. Shut down the database, copy the online redo-log, and start up the database.
D. Shut down the database, copy the online redo-log, edit the REDO_LOG_FILES
parameter, and start up the database.
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is the function of SMON in instance recovery?
A. It writes data to the archive log files.
B. It writes data to the online redo log files.
C. It frees resources held by user processes.
D. It synchronizes data file header and control files.
E. It roles forward by applying changes in the redo log.
F. It writes dirty buffers from the buffer cache to the data files.
Answer: E

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NO.3 What is the function of ARCn in instance recovery?
A. It writes data to the archive log files.
B. It writes data to the online redo log files.
C. It frees resources held by user processes.
D. It synchronizes data file header and control files.
E. It writes dirty buffers from the buffer cache to the data files.
F. The archive process does not take part in instance recovery.
Answer: F

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NO.4 The command ALTER DATABASE CREATE STANDBY CONTROLFILE AS
standby.ct creates a standby control file. What needs to be done next to create a
standby database?
A. The standby control file needs to be copied to the standby server.
B. The current redo-log files of the primary database need to be archived.
C. The standby database needs to be created using the standby control file.
D. The standby control file needs to be copied to the standby location on the primary
server.
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is the effect of issuing an ALTER DATABASE OPEN RESETLOGS
command on the primary database?
A. It invalidates the standby database.
B. The standby database can only be used in read-only mode.
C. A new standby database incarnation will automatically be started.
D. Once the archived log files are applied to the standby database, the redo log of the
standby database is reset.
Answer: A

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NO.6 The alert log can contain specific information about which database backup activity?
A. Placing datafiles in begin and end backup mode.
B. Placing tablespace in begin and end backup mode.
C. Changing the database backup mode from open to close.
D. Performing an operating system backup of the database files.
Answer: B

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NO.7 What are two purposes for using the recovery manager command CATALOG?
(Choose two)
A. Updating recovery catalog about rollback segment creation.
B. Updating recovery catalog about files created before RMAN.
C. Updating recovery catalog about operating systems backup.
D. Updating recovery catalog about files created before Oracle 8.
E. Updating recovery catalog about files that belong to a clone database.
Answer: B, C

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NO.8 What is the effect of activating a standby database?
A. The primary database becomes a standby database.
B. The standby database becomes the primary database.
C. The primary database is deactivated to avoid conflicts.
D. The remaining redo-log files are copied from the primary database and applied.
Answer: B

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NO.9 What are two causes of user errors? (Choose two)
A. Incorrect data is committed.
B. The operating system crashes.
C. There are insufficient privileges.
D. A table is accidentally truncated.
E. An application file is accidentally deleted.
F. The application program receives an addressing exception.
Answer: A, D

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NO.10 Your daily report indicating which data files need to be backed up has been
misplaced. Which recovery manager command returns a report containing the files
in the USER_DATA tablespace that have not been backed up within the last three
days?
A. Rman> list backup day 3 tablespace user_data;
B. Rman>report backup day 3 tablespace user_data;
C.Rman>catalog backup day 3 tablespace user_data;
D. Rman>report need backup day 3 tablespace user_data;
Answer: D

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NO.11 What is the advantage of managed recovery mode?
A. During recovery, most common DBA errors can be avoided.
B. Prompts for applying the next available redo logs suppressed.
C. The primary database automatically ships archived redo log files to the standby server.
D. The standby database automatically applies the archived redo log when the files
become available.
Answer: D

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NO.12 What are two benefits of using RMAN with a catalog? (Choose two)
A. You can copy the redo-log history into the control file.
B. You can store scripts for backup and recovery operations.
C. You can register the target database with recovery catalog.
D. You can maintain records of backup and recovery operations.
E. You can synchronize the recovery catalog and the target database.
Answer: B, D

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NO.13 Which command is used to allow RMAN to store a group of
commands in the recovery catalog?
A. ADD SCRIPT
B. CREATE SCRIPT
C. CREATE COMMAND
D. ADD BACKUP SCRIPT
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which statement concerning archiving is true?
A. Archiving occurs during a checkpoint.
B. Archive logs can be written to multiple destinations.
C. Backups are not required when archiving is enabled.
D. Archiving copies the data files to their backup destinations.
E. Archiving can be enabled through recovery manager commands.
Answer: B

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NO.15 What is the difference between using NOLOGGING operations in a single database
environment and a standby database environment?
A. There is no difference.
B. NOLOGGING operations are not available in release 0.1
C. The affected data file needs to be copied from the primary to the standby server.
D. NOLOGGING operations can be used on the standby database, but not on the primary
database.
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which option is used in the parameter file to detect corruptions in an Oracle data
block?
A. DBVERIFY
B. DBMS_REPAIR
C. DB_BLOCK_CHECKING
D. VALIDITY_STRUCTURE
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which statement is true when using the LogMiner utility?
A. The dictionary file is created in a directory as defined by UTL_FILE_DIR.
B. The CREATE DBMS LOGMSR command is used to build the dictionary file.
C. The dictionary file must be created after the log file analysis has completed.
D. The dictionary file is created as a backup if the data dictionary gets corrupted.
Answer: A

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NO.18 What is recommended initial size for a tablespace containing an RMAN recovery
catalog?
A. 10M
B. 20M
C. 100M
D. 10% of size of the target database.
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which statement is true when using the DBVERIFYutility to detect corruptions in
an Oracle data block?
A. The utility can only be invoked on a data file that is online.
B. The utility can be used to verify the data files of a backup database.
C. The utility can assist in archiving log files when the database load is high.
D. The utility is internal to the database and so can impact database activates.
Answer: B

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NO.20 After rebuilding the recovery catalog by resynchronizing it with a copy of the backup
control file, you notice references to files that no longer exist. Which CREATE command
clause should you use to remove these references?
A. REMOVE
B. DELETE
C. UNCATALOG
D. CATALOG REMOVE
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 1Z0-041
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Database 10g: DBA Assessment )
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 65 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which three usernames, by default, provide access to Oracle Enterprise
Manager Database Control? (Choose three.)
A. SYS
B. MDSYS
C. WKSYS
D. DMSNMP
E. SYSTEM
F. SYSMAN
Answer: A, E, F

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NO.2 Which two statements are correct regarding naming methods? (Choose two.)
A. Easy connect naming method requires no configuration.
B. Directory naming method stores net service names in a local configuration file.
C. Local naming method stores net service names in a supported non-Oracle service.
D. Directory naming method stores connect identifiers in a centralized, LDAP-compliant
directory server.
E. External naming method stores connect descriptors, identified by their net service names
in the sqlnet.ora file.
Answer: A, D

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NO.3 Which three default actions are performed by Enterprise Manager when a tablespace is
deleted? (Choose three.)
A. All the objects in the tablespace are truncated.
B. All the objects stored in the tablespace are dropped.
C. The definitions of the objects are removed from the data dictionary.
D. The definitions of the objects are retained in the data dictionary but made invalid.
E. All the datafiles associated with the tablespace are deleted from the operating system.
F. All the datafiles associated with the tablespace are not physically removed from the
operating system.
Answer: B, C, E

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NO.4 Which three statements are true about database storage structures? (Choose
three.)
A. Tablespaces comprise one or more datafiles.
B. Segments can span datafiles within a tablespace.
C. Datafiles can belong to more than one tablespace.
D. Segments can span datafiles across tablespaces.
E. Data objects are stored as segments in tablespaces.
Answer: A, B, E

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NO.5 Exhibit:
View the Exhibit.
You are creating an additional database by using Database Configuration Assistant
(DBCA). You realize that the Block Size field is not enabled. What could be the reason?
A. You have chosen the File System option as the storage mechanism.
B. You are not using the Custom Database template to create the database.
C. You have not chosen the Use Grid Control for Database Management option.
D. The data block size is set to the maximum block size supported by the operating system.
E. The data block size can be increased only when DBCA is invoked from Oracle
Universal Installer (OUI).
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which method can you use to receive a notification when the free disk space in
the recovery area falls below 10%?
A. Submit a job that queries the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR).
B. Create an alert that sends a notification when the threshold value is reached.
C. Invoke the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA) to configure notifications and set
threshold values.
D. Specify the users who should receive notifications in the Preferred Credentials of the
Enterprise Manager.
E. Run the Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) to analyze disk space
and display a warning message.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Exhibit:
View the Exhibit and examine the Net Services Administration page of Enterprise Manager.
Which menu option would you choose to manage the contents of the tnsnames.ora file?
A: Listeners
B: Directory Naming
C: Local Naming
D: File Location
Answer: C

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NO.8 To protect the sample schema accounts from an unauthorized user access,
these accounts are _____.
A. not granted any role initially
B. operating system (OS) authenticated
C. initially locked with their passwords expired
D. created with their passwords stored in a password file
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which default administrative user account does the Management Agent component of
Oracle Enterprise Manager use to monitor and manage the database?
A. OE
B. SYS
C. OUTLN
D. DBSNMP
E. SYSTEM
F. SYSMAN
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which three statements are correct regarding the Database Configuration Assistant
(DBCA) templates? (Choose three.)
A. Templates are XML files.
B. Seed templates are stored with the .dbt extension.
C. Templates cannot be copied from one machine to another.
D. Creation of the database is faster when you use a nonseed template instead of a seed
template.
E. Templates are stored in the $ORACLE_HOME/assistants/dbca/templates directory on a
Linux platform.
F. If you use a nonseed template to create the database, then all the datafiles and redo logs
are created as per your specification.
Answer: A, E, F

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Exam Code: 1Z0-521
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle EBS R12.1 Order Management Essentials)
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Total Q&A: 92 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 ACME runs on the PTO fulfillment model.
All the business rules for configuring the model are set up using configurator, which makes it initial for
configuring PTO models.
Which statement is true?
A. A routing needs to be defined for PTO model.
B. Ship the model completely or the individual options.
C. Process the configured item to generate the work order.
D. After selecting the all options, the PTO model must be processed to get the configured.
Answer: B

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NO.2 The item sub inventory report output contains _______. (Choose three)
A. EOQ
B. Source type
C. Locator control
D. Focus forecast
E. Fixed Lot multiple
F. Min-max information
Answer: B,E,F

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NO.3 Allowing a negative on hand balance is set at _________.
A. The Entity Level
B. The Subinventory Level
C. The operating Unit Level
D. The Item master inventory level
E. The Inventory organization level
Answer: E

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NO.4 Which three statements are about freight carriers? (Choose three)
A. Freight carriers can be defined only in transportation.
B. Freight carriers are used for customer shipments.
C. Freight carriers are specific to inventory organization.
D. General ledger accounts can not be associated with freight to collect associated costs.
E. Inter organization transfer uses an associated general ledger account to specify the freight.
F. Freight carriers are used for shipments to and from customers, suppliers, and internal organizations.
Answer: C,E,F

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NO.5 Identify three correct statements about cascading attributes. (Choose three)
A. Enable Quit code OM_Header_to _line_Cascade.
B. Enable the key profile option OM: sales order form: Cascade Header changes to the line.
C. The cascading attributes feature is applicable for user interface, but not for an API (Process order)
D. When an update constraint is violated for a line attribute, the constraint will allows updates to other
lines.
E. There are only two modes (Automatic and Manual) for the profile OM: sales order form Cascade
Header change to line.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.6 Identify three true statements regarding freight and special charges. (Choose three)
A. Accrual is valid application method for modifier type of freight/special charges.
B. Basic pricing provides seeded freight and special charges type of modifier list.
C. You can define your own implementation-specific freight and special charges type of the modifier list.
D. You can use the range price breaks in creating modifiers for freight and special charges if you are using
only Basic pricing.
E. You can handle your own implementation-specific freight cost type or freight charges type codes for
use in modifiers for calculating freight and special charges.
F. When there are two equal modifiers with the highest precedence in an incompatibility level, the pricing
engine selects the modifier that provides the best benefit to the customer.
Answer: B,E,F

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NO.7 Which three statements are true regarding OM system parameters? (Choose three)
A. System parameters can be set with different values of different operating units.
B. System parameters can not be set with different values for different operating units.
C. The profile OM: credit sales person for freight on sales has been changed to an OM system.
D. The system parameter OM Employee for self service order has been changed to an OM system
parameter with the same name.
E. The system parameter name OM employee for self service order in single OM system parameter which
ha not changed to an OM profile.
F. The profile OM employee for self service order is the only OM responsibility level profile, which has
been changed to an OM system parameter with a new name requestor for drop ship order created by
external users.
Answer: A,C,F

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NO.8 A key business user requirement to those users should be able to create sales order with distributor
keys trokes.
Which four setup options facilitate reduced data entry? (Choose four)
A. Defaulting rules
B. Transaction types
C. OM: invoice source
D. Processing constraints
E. Automatic attachments rules
F. OM: invoice transaction type
G. OM: enable Related items and manual substitutions
Answer: A,B,E,G

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NO.9 Which option identifies the requirements to ship confirm a sale order line?
A. The item attribute is shippable and shipping is an activity in the line work flow.
B. The item attribute is shippable, the line status is picked and shipping is an identity to the lines workflow.
C. The item attribute is shippable, the line status Booked, and shipping is an activity in the lines workflow.
D. The item attribute is shippable, the line status Entered, and shipping is an activity in the lines workflow.
E. The item attribute is shippable, the line status Shipped, and shipping is an activity in the lines workflow.
F. The item attribute is shippable, the line status Awaiting, and shipping is an activity in the lines workflow.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Identify four functional setup steps that you would perform for ATP base on collection data. (Choose
four)
A. Define price lists
B. Define ATP rules
C. Setup stock locations
D. Setup transit lead time
E. Set up pricing modifiers
F. Select the ATP item attribute
G. Set up profile INV: capable to promise
Answer: B,D,F,G

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NO.11 The seeded OM workflow contains a number of item types. Identify five valid item types? (Choose five)
A. Ship Only
B. Order Only
C. OM Standard
D. Order Header
E. OM price Only
F. Return for Credit
G. OM change Order
H. OM blanket Header
Answer: B,C,D,G,H

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NO.12 ACME has offices in various countries and its customers and supports are based around the globe.
Given that the addresses are formatted in each country, how would you setup the system to handle this
situation?
A. Ser up the address as a context-sensitive key Flexfield.
B. Ser up the address as a free format segmented value set.
C. Ser up the address as a context-sensitive descriptive field
D. Ser up the address as a dependent value set country-specific segments.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Identify three correct statements regarding explicit and implicit acceptance. (Choose three)
A. Action attribute - Fulfillment Acceptance is necessary for implicit acceptance
B. An implicit acceptance request set ha two concurrent request:
1. Generate Pre-billing Acceptance program for pre-billing, implicit acceptance
2) Revenue contingency Analyzer for post-billing implicit acceptance.
C. Execution of concurrent program is not needed to perform post billing, implicit acceptance.
D. CSR can enter explicit acceptance via the order information portal or the order import correction.
E. An acceptance comment field is available on order header level (Order information/other tab) of the
sales order form.
F. An implicit acceptance deferral reason must be defined in AR with an event attribute using ship
confirmation date and expiration days.
Answer: B,D,F

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NO.14 Identify three correct statements regarding the credit card encryption features? (Choose three)
A. Credit type is displayed as card brand.
B. The entire card information is stored at the order-line level.
C. Oracle payment is the single repository for multiple payment mode information access applications
modules.
D. Oracle payment is the single repository for multiple payment mode information access set up options.
E. The main idea behind the credit card security code and credit encryption is the make the credit card
and bank account information more centralized across the application and hence more secure.
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.15 An order has five lines with line status of staged/pick confirmed.
There is no record on the delivery tab in the shipping transaction from for this order.
What could be the possible solution?
A. Resolve the shipping exception.
B. Enable shipping privilege for the user.
C. Auto create delivery from the pick release form.
D. Auto create delivery from the delivery transaction form.
E. Auto create delivery from the shipping transaction form.
Answer: E

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Exam Code: 1z0-539
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle GoldenGate 10 Essentials)
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Total Q&A: 72 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which statements are true of goldenGate password encryption?
A password can be encrypted and pasted into a parameter file. An encrypted password can be generated
using the default key. An encrypted password can be generated using a user defined-key.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 1 and 3
E. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: E

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NO.2 You want encrypt message sent or over TCP/IP to server usserver1, where the goldenGate manage
process is running on port 7809. Your requirements include using a custom encryption key and advanced
encryption standard (AES), and you have created an ENCKEYS file What parameters should you use?
A. This feature is not supported in oracle goldenGate 10.
B. RMTHOST usserval, MGRPORT 7809, ENCRYPT AES, ENCRYPT KEY
C. RMTHOST usserval, MGRPORT AES, ENCRYPTKEY MYKWY, MBRPORT 7809
D. RMTHOST usserval, MGRPORT 7809, ENCRYPT BLOWFISH ENCRYPTKEY MYKEY
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which argument is used to set the maximum size of the EXTTRAIL or RMTTRAL.
A. MAXSIZE
B. TRAILSIZE
C. HAXTRAILSI2E
D. TRAILMAXSIZE F
E. MEGABYTES
Answer: E

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NO.4 CORRECT TEXT
By default, which option is evaluated first, SQLEXEC or filter statement?
A.SQLEXEC
B. FILTER
C.There is no default; it is set with the after filter I before filter.
D. It depends on their position in the parameter file; the first encountered is executed first.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which Manager Parameter sets will report current lag every hour and write a critical message for any
Extract/Replicate with a lag over 60 minutes?
A. LAGBEPOBTHOURS 1, LAGINFO 1 and LAGCRITICAL 60
B. LAGREPORTMINUTES 60, LAGINFOHOURS 1
C. LAGREPOBT 1, I.AGCRITICALHOURS 1
D. LAGREPOBTHOURS 1, LAGINFOMINUTES 30, LAGCR JTTCAI-M I
Answer: B

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NO.6 You want to configure replication of CREATE TABLE statements from oracle to Teradata, so that only
new table created in your mapped source schema is Replicated. Which should be the part of solution?
A. This feature is not supported in oracle goldenGate 10.
B. DDL INCLUDE MAPPED in extra parameter file.
C. DDL INCLUDE UNMAPPED in extra parameter file.
D. DDL EXCLUDE MAPPED in extra parameter file.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which three describe a valid OGG Event Action?
A. Stop the process
B. Write a checkpoint before and/or after writing the record to the trail.
C. Run a shell command
D. Purge old trail files
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.8 Which translations are captured if you ADD EXTRACT BEGIN now 1:00 p.m., but START EXTRACT at
2:00 p.m.?
A. Transactions started on or after 1:00 p.m.
B. Transactions started on or after 2:00 p.m.
C. Transactions started before 1:00 p.m and committed after 1:00 p.m.
D. Transactions started before 1:00 p.m and committed after 2:00 p.m.
Answer: A

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NO.9 What GoldenGate process is responsible for capturing changes in the source database?
A. Manager
B. Replicate
C. Extract
D. Server Collector
Answer: C

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NO.10 What parameter provides options for compression and encryption?
A. RMTHOST
B. TARGET
C. TCPIP
D. TARGET DB
Answer: A

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Exam Code: SD0-101
Exam Name: SDI (Service Desk Analyst Qualification)
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Total Q&A: 165 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-29

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NO.1 Which these options would NOT be a responsibility of the Service Desk?
A. Representing the IT organisation
B. Delivering first time fixes
C. Operating as a communications channel
D. Providing a reliable IT infrastructure
Answer: D

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NO.2 A primary responsibility of the Service Desk is to
A. Manage Major Incidents
B. Act as the resolver for all users Incidents and Service Requests
C. Resolve Problems
D. Acknowledge and record all Incidents and Service Requests
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is the best type of questioning to use to disengage a caller whilst ensuring a professional
approach to call management?
A. Reflective questions
B. Rapid questions
C. Open questions
D. Closed questions
Answer: D

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NO.4 If you are asked to name a Service Desk best practice, which option would be relevant?
A. SAP
B. KCS
C. Problem Management
D. itSMF
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which option is NOT a characteristic of a successful team?
A. Trust is encouraged amongst team members
B. Support from senior management is received
C. League tables are published
D. Participation in the decision-making process is encouraged
Answer: C

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NO.6 Your manager has told you that the Service Desk team must provide excellent customer service at all
times. As an SDA, what is the most important thing you must do to ensure that this happens?
A. Always show plenty of sympathy to the users
B. Always follow the procedures you understand best
C. Always reprimand colleagues who fail to deliver service excellence
D. Always listen to what users tell you
Answer: D

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NO.7 A list of desirable attributes included in a job description for a Service Desk Analyst should include ...
A. Seeing a users Incident or Service Request through to resolution, conveying a willingness to help and
being nice to senior management
B. Conveying a willingness to help, focussing on business needs and providing users with the best
possible service
C. Taking ownership of users Problems, maintaining a positive attitude and focussing your attention on
the user
D. Focussing on business needs, providing users with best possible service with an ability to answer a
high volume of calls
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of these options is NOT part of the correct procedure for putting a user on hold?
A. Asking the user for permission to remotely access their system
B. Communicating a valid reason for putting the user on hold
C. Giving the user a reasonable time frame
D. Regularly updating the user about the wait-time
Answer: A

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NO.9 We should maintain a positive service attitude at all times; which option is the best reason for doing
so?
A. A good service attitude will improve SLA performance
B. Users will see the Service Desk as cheerful happy people
C. It will help to build confidence in the service
D. A bad attitude means that SLAs wont be met
Answer: C

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NO.10 Your manager has emphasised the importance of establishing effective working relationships with
other teams in the organisation. Of these options, which is the most important activity you should
undertake to enable this to happen?
A. Learn about and recognise the roles and responsibilities of other teams
B. Ensure that your team is seen by users as their champion
C. Treat everyone according to their importance in the organisation
D. Make certain that the IT director is aware of inter-team communication issues
Answer: A

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NO.11 What is the best reason for an SDA to follow documented processes and procedures?
A. It ensures that all customers perform consistently
B. It ensures that the SDA performs consistently
C. It ensures that customers consistently provide positive feedback
D. It ensures that the manager is protected from irate users
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which of these options is a characteristic of a successfully performing team?
A. Attendance at team social events is mandatory.
B. The team leader closely manages everyone equally
C. A team member will do anything to be the best
D. Everyone actively listens to each other
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which of the options best describes a key responsibility of a Service Desk Manager?
A. To deliver ad-hoc levels of service quality from the Service Desk
B. To promote the Service Desk to the organisation and users
C. To manage Incidents and Major Incidents
D. To develop and manage the Problem Management team
Answer: B

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NO.14 A new trainee is being inducted into the Service Desk and s/he questions why there are procedures
and the need for documentation. What should you tell him/her to justify the need for consistent
procedures and processes?
A. Clear procedures mean that everything is done uniformly to eliminate errors
B. Clear procedures mean that customers receive consistent service
C. SLAs and procedures ensure that staff will not be criticised if targets are not met
D. Consistent procedures mean that SLAs and OLAs will always be met
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which of these options best describes a benefit of good teamwork?
A. There is always someone else to pick up any work you fail to do
B. There is commitment to team decisions
C. There is a specialist for each product or service
D. There is less need for person-to-person communication
Answer: B

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NO.16 In order to measure its efficiency, a Service Desk routinely measures First Contact Resolution
performance; what else might this data be used for?
A. To measure the effectiveness of the escalation procedure
B. To indicate levels of customer satisfaction
C. To measure how long users wait to speak to an SDA
D. To evaluate and adjust staffing levels
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which of these options best describes personal accountability?
A. Delivering excellent levels of service quality
B. Admitting to errors
C. Taking ownership of your teams Incidents and Service Requests
D. Behaving and dressing in a distinctive manner
Answer: B

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NO.18 Your organisation has recently implemented SLAs and OLAs. A new starter on your team has confided
in you that they dont really understand what an OLA is; how would you explain it to him/her?
A. It is a legally enforceable contract between a user and a supplier to ensure user satisfaction with
services offered
B. It is an ad-hoc arrangement between internal support teams that is helpful to the support of a contract
C. It is an agreement between internal support teams that defines the support necessary to meet delivery
of IT Services
D. It is a methodology used to measure compliance to standards of behaviour
Answer: C

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NO.19 Where would you find clear definitions of boundaries and procedures for dealing with inappropriate
behaviour?
A. Company policy documents
B. Incident Management documents
C. Service Desk procedure documents
D. Service Level Agreement documents
Answer: A

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NO.20 What is the best way for an SDA to enhance the image of the Service Desk?
A. Dress to reflect your professionalism
B. Ensure users are aware that the Service Desk is the key component in IT
C. Provide accurate information to users without denigrating other teams
D. Advise users of resolutions via the weekly Service Desk email
Answer: C

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NO.21 Your organisation documents company policies to which it expects all employees to adhere. What is
the most important reason for SDAs to ensure they work within these policies?
A. Company policies support consistent behaviour
B. Company policies emphasise deviations from acceptable behaviour
C. Company policies meet their managers criteria for success
D. Company policies support creative approaches for SDA activities
Answer: A

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NO.22 How would you characterise a failing team?
A. It is managed without SLAs
B. Its members are very touchy feely
C. Its members demonstrate low morale
D. It is solely focussed on business objectives
Answer: C

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NO.23 Which option best describes one of the roles of an SDA?
A. Managing users expectations
B. Delivering problem support
C. Negotiating SLAs with customers
D. Achieving reporting targets
Answer: A

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NO.24 Which attribute would you expect from good team members?
A. They are nice to everyone
B. They have good timekeeping skills
C. They listen to other peoples point of view
D. They cover up their mistakes
Answer: C

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NO.25 Why is it important to keep to your commitments to your team members?
A. It will help to ensure that bonuses are paid
B. My colleagues will admire my achievements
C. It improves the morale of the Service Desk
D. Management will not criticise my behaviour
Answer: C

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NO.26 Consider your responsibilities as an SDA: which of these options best describes one of your principal
responsibilities?
A. To provide easily understood and accurate answers to users questions
B. To provide technically detailed answers to users questions
C. To provide users with information about the workings of the Service Desk
D. To provide recommendations about technical courses to users
Answer: A

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NO.27 Which option is the best example of a closed question?
A. What are the symptoms of your Incident?
B. Tell me what you were doing immediately prior to the Incident?
C. What version of the software do you have?
D. How can I be of help?
Answer: C

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NO.28 Some things can get in the way of good communication which of these options has the biggest impact
on a Service Desk?
A. Noise and general chatter
B. Inappropriate SLAs in place
C. An unreliable IT infrastructure
D. The users status in the organisation
Answer: A

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NO.29 Which option is a benefit of using Knowledge Management in a Service Desk?
A. This ensures that all staff will log Incidents uniformly
B. It removes the need for training of Service Desk staff
C. It reduces the Incident talk time for users
D. It reduces the overall cost of support
Answer: D

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NO.30 What should an SDA reasonably expect of users when they contact the service desk for assistance?
A. To provide valuable information regarding their opinion of the Service Desk
B. To provide valuable information regarding their view of the SLA
C. To provide an opportunity to receive feedback regarding their technical ability
D. To provide the relevant information needed to resolve their incident
Answer: D

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