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Exam Code: PW0-105
Exam Name: Certified Wireless Network Administrator (CWNA)
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Exam Code: PW0-204
Exam Name: Certified Wireless Security Professional (CWSP)
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Exam Code: PW0-070
Exam Name: Certified Wireless Technology Specialist
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NO.1 You have been hired to perform a penetration test on a client's network. You want to see if remote
connections are susceptible to eavesdropping or perhaps session hijacking.
Which network tool would be most helpful to you?
A. Vulnerability analyzer
B. Port scanner
C. Performance analyzer.
D. Protocol analyzer
Answer: D

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NO.2 John, a malicious hacker, forces a router to stop forwarding packets by flooding it with many open
connections simultaneously so that all hosts
behind it are effectively disabled. Which of the following attacks is John performing?
A. Rainbow attack
B. DoS attack
C. Replay attack
D. ARP spoofing
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following methods are capable of operating in wireless networks? Each correct answer
represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. EAP-TLS
B. LEAP
C. PEAP
D. EAP-TTLS
Answer: BAD

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NO.4 Which of the following is a type of security management for computers and networks in order to
identify security breaches?
A. EAP
B. IPS
C. IDS
D. ASA
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following protocols uses a program layer located between the Internet's Hypertext Transfer
Protocol (HTTP) and Transport Control Protocol (TCP) layers?
A. TFTP
B. HTTPS
C. SCP
D. SSL
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following methods can be used to detect a rogue access point in order to enhance the
security of the network? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Install WIPS
B. Hide the SSID of all AP
C. Check in the managed AP list
D. Use of wireless sniffing tools
Answer: ADC

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NO.7 Which of the following tools is John using to crack the wireless encryption keys?
A. Kismet
B. AirSnort
C. Cain
D. PsPasswd
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following protocols is used to provide on-demand authentication within an ongoing data
transmission?
A. LEAP
B. EAP
C. PPTP
D. CHAP
Answer: D

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Exam Code: A2040-914
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Exam Code: LOT-950
Exam Name: Administering IBM Lotus Quickr 8.1 Services for Lotus Domino
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NO.1 In your Lotus Quickr environment, where can you view a list of all of the policies currently in your
environment?
A.Qpconfig.xml
B.Site Administration
C.The policies catalog
D.The Lotus Domino Directory
Answer:C

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NO.2 Your Lotus Quickr server has specified both a user directory source during setup and a Lotus Quickr
administrator. In which of the following locations is the administrator stored by default?
A.In the local Lotus Domino Directory
B.A local member of the servers Site Administration place
C.In the user directory source specified during installation
D.In both the local Lotus Domino Directory and the directory source specified during installation
Answer:B

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NO.3 Amanda wishes to show Usage Statistics on the Lotus Quickr server. Which of the following must be
enabled for this feature to function?
A.SuperUser
B.Single sign-on
C.Extended membership
D.Lotus Domino controlled directory services
Answer:B

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NO.4 In which of the following locations is the policy information for templates assigned a policy stored?
A.Qpconfig.xml
B.Place Catalog
C.Templates catalog
D.Site Administration
Answer:C

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NO.5 If a user is a Super User as well as an explicit member of a place, the user's level of access depends
on whether the place uses different types of membership. If a user with Super User access is also a
member of a place with Reader access, the user still has Super User access to the place. In the previous
scenario, which of the following types of membership does the Super User have?
A.Basic
B.Expanded
C.Standard
D.Advanced
Answer:B

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NO.6 As the Lotus Quickr administrator, you are able to run qptool commands to specify the access a
member has to the place's main room, such as -reader, -author, -editor, or -manager. Optionally, you can
use which of the following options to apply the member's main room access to all subrooms?
A.-all
B.-place
C.-allrooms
D.-placetype
Answer:C

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NO.7 A user in your Lotus Quickr environment has selected Exact Match lookup when searching for users to
add for a place. Which of the following searches would be performed with this option selected and the
following variables submitted? sn=mil mail=*
A.sn=mil mail=*
B.sn=mil* mail=*
C.sn=mil mail=@acme
D.sn=mil* mail=@acme*
Answer:A

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NO.8 In your Lotus Quickr environment, Lotus Quickr has been configured to control directory services. You
have encountered two users with the same name when adding a new LDAP source. Which of the
following is true regarding this scenario?
A.Only one of the names can be added to a place as a member
B.Neither name may be added to the place until the conflict is resolved
C.Both names may be added to the place but only the first listed may authenticate
D.Both names may be added to the place, and both users may authenticate because they are in alternate
directories
Answer:A

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Exam Code: A2040-929
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NO.1 Which one of the following is true when using OpenID as an external identity provider?
A. Administrators are not allowed to change the list of external identity providers that users
canaccess.
B. To modify the list of accepted external identity providers, administrators can edit the
openid.servicenames property in the Resource
Environment Providers section in the IBM WebSphere Integrated Solutions console.
C. To modify the list of accepted external identity providers, administrators can edit the
openid.servicenames in the custom properties for thecom.ibm.portal.auth.OpenIDTAI trust
association interceptor.
D. To modify the list of accepted external identity providers, administrators need to edit the
openid.servicenames property in the wkplc.propertiesfile and then run the
enable-identityprovidertai
task.
Answer: C

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NO.2 In order to view site analytics overlay reports, Harold needs at least the following access:
A. ADMINISTRATOR role on virtual resource OVERLAYREPORTS and ADMINISTRATOR role
for the resource he wants to view.
B. MANAGER role on virtual resource OVERLAYREPORTS and MANAGER role for the resource
he wants to view
C. SECURITY ADMINISTRATOR role on virtual resource OVERLAYREPORTS and SECURITY
ADMINISTRATOR role for the resource he wants toview.
D. USER role on virtual resource OVERLAYREPORTS and USER role for the resource he wants
to view.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Identify the false statement pertaining to log files generated during installation, maintenance,
and
operation of IBM WebSphere Portal:
A. ConfigTrace.log - Contains information that is generated each time a ConfigEngine task is
executed.This file is located inwp_profile_root/ConfigEngine/log directory.
B. trace.log - Used for Diagnostic Trace to log information related to the Collaborative Services.
This file is located inwp_profile_root/logs/WebSphere_Portal directory.
C. siteanalyzer.log - contains the the portal configuration service SiteAnalyzerLogService
information that determines the type of site analysis datathat the portal logs at run time. This file is
located in wp_profile_root/logs/WebSphere_Portal/sa directory.
D. SystemOut.log - Contains runtime information.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: A2180-379
Exam Name: Assessment: IBM WebSphere Integration Developer V6.2, Solution Development
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Exam Code: A2040-923
Exam Name: Assessment: IBM WebSphere Portal 8.0 Deployment and Administration
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NO.1 An integration solution includes a business process which needs to poll an FTP server for detecting a
specific CSV file creation. As the file gets created, it must be parsed and its data must be stored in a
Business Object. This Business Object is then processed in the Business Process according to the
process logic.
How would the integration developer most effectively implement this?
A. Use the FTP Adapter in a mediation and XSLT primitives to convert the CSV file to a Business Object.
B. Develop a Web service wrapping the FTP protocol and invoke it through a mediation which uses XSLT
primitives to convert the CSV file to a Business Object.
C. Use the FTP Adapter in a mediation and Business Object Map primitives to convert the CSV file to a
Business Object.
D. Use the FTP Adapter combined with a data handler responsible for transforming from the file content to
the Business Object.
Answer: D

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NO.2 An integration developer is developing a solution which must make use of an existing Web service. The
Web service provider sent a complete WSDL (including XSDs, port types, bindings) for allowing the
solution to consume it.
How can the developer create the corresponding Interface and Web Service Port on WebSphere
Integration Developer?
A. Import the WSDL (Import wizard, Web Services ? Web Service), which automatically will create Web
service Port and Interface according to the WSDL
B. Import the WSDL (Import wizard, Web Services ? Web Service) in order to get the correct Web Service
Port, then manually create the Interface according to the provider Web service characteristics
C. Import the WSDL file (Import wizard, General ? File System), open the WSDL with the WSDL editor
and use the information in it to create Web Service Port and Interface
D. Import the WSDL (Import wizard, Business Integration ? WSDL/Interface), then manually create Web
Service Port
E. Import the WSDL (Import wizard, Business Integration ? WSDL/Interface), which automatically will
create Web Service Port and Interface according to the WSDL
Answer: E

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NO.3 An integration developer has been given the task of training a group of new developers who have no
experience with WebSphere Integration Developer.
Which statements are most likely to be included in the training presentation introducing human task and
their usage in WebSphere Integration Developer?
A. Stand-alone tasks are invoked as a service and can invoke other services.
B. Stand-alone tasks do not have direct access to process-related information.
C. Inline human tasks are SCA component activity.
D. Inline human tasks can not be used to create human task for process administration.
E. Inline tasks can not be used to apply permissions to BPEL activities like invoke, receive etc.
Answer: AB

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NO.4 Refer to the Exhibit.
Which statement correctly describes the configuration?
A. It is not possible for Snippet4 and Snippet 6 to run in parallel.
B. Snippet6 and Snippet8 can run in parallel.
C. The business process contains a deadlock.
D. The process will not compile if it is configured to be short running.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Refer to the Exhibit.
An integration developer has designed and implemented business objects like the ones in the Exhibit.
Assuming the integration developer needs to write a service as a Java component which needs to read
the first ordered item warehouse, which one of the following code fragments is appropriate (assume order
is a DataObject which actually stores the order)?
A. order.get("orderedItems[0]/warehouseId")
B. ((DataObject)order.get ("orderedItems")[0]).getInt("warehouseId")
C. (((DataObject[])order.get("orderedItems"))[0]).getInt("warehouseId")
D. ((DataObject)order.getList("orderedItems").get(0)).getInt("warehouseId")}
Answer: D

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NO.6 An integration solution includes a business process which needs to invoke a business service. This
service is going to be replaced in a certain known date and time, when a new third party provider will take
ownership of it, honoring a three year contract which starts right at that date. Old and new services do not
differ in terms of their interface.
What is the best way to implement the business process binding to the services?
A. Configure and invoke a Selector for switching services at the specific date and time.
B. Configure and invoke Selector for switching services at the specific date and time, using a mediation
for request routing.
C. Develop and invoke a mediation which routes to the old or new service depending on the request time.
D. Develop and invoke a mediation which routes the request to a Selector, which must be configured for
switching services at the specific date and time.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which activities require usage of a long-running process?
A. Wait
B. Receive Choice
C. Collaboration Scope
D. Asynchronous invocation
E. More than one Receive or Receive Choice activity.
Answer: AE

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NO.8 A solution developer is planning the design of a web based music catalog that allows users to listen to
music via an online streaming feature, or to purchase individual selections for download.
What approach would the solution developer take when organizing the work in WebSphere Integration
Developer in order to maximize the reuse potential of the solution?
A. Place the streaming logic in one module and the download logic in a separate module, then place the
common interface files in a library.
B. Place the streaming logic and the download logic in the same integration solution, then place the
interface files in separate libraries.
C. Use two libraries to keep the interfaces of both services separate, then place the application logic of
both services into a single module.
D. Use a single integration solution to store and deploy the entire application, then separate the backend
logic into separate modules.
Answer: A

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NO.1 Which of the following statements is true about client-side aggregation?
A. Client-side aggregation is generally slower than server-side aggregation because more
processing happens on the client computer, which is generally less powerful than the server.
B. The portal built-in Page Builder theme allows you to configure whether that page is
rendered in
client-side aggregation mode or in server-side aggregation mode for each page.
C. Client-side aggregation can be enabled for all existing portlets.
D. Client-side aggregation cannot be used on Firefox browsers.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which option best describes valid aspects of deleting wikis and wiki pages?
A. A wiki page deleted directly in the wiki can be restored.
B. Deleting the wiki page also deletes the Web Content Viewer portlet and the web content
mapping.
C. To delete a wiki, you must delete the Web Content Viewer portlet and web content
mapping from the
portal page where the content is rendered, and then delete the template library used to
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D. Statements A, B, and C are valid.
E. Only Statement A and Statement B are valid.
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is a portal farm.?
A. A portal farm is a series of portal clusters used in high availability production
environments.
B. A portal farm refers to a series of identically configured, standalone server instances.
C. A portal farm is an edition of WebSphere Portal customized for the agricultural industry.
D. A portal farm is a setup of servers that are tightly coupled for failover and recovery.
Answer: B

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B. VMware can be used in a clustered WebShere Portal v7.0 environment.
C. VMware can be used in a non-clustered WebSphere Portal v7.0 environment.
D. VMware and WebSphere Portal v7.0 allow mass-replication of identical operating systems
Answer: A

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A. URI
B. Type specification
C. URI, category specification
D. URI, type specification, category specification
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NO.1 A customer has images that have machine print as well as handwritten data on the image. Is it
necessary to have an OCR_s or OCR_a engine as well as an ICR engine to extract/read data from the
image, and why?
A. Yes, both OCR_s and ICR_c engines will have to be used.
B. No, ICR_c engine works well with hand-printed and machine-printed text.
C. No, OCR_s engine works well with hand-printed and machine-printed text.
D. No, OCR_a is the only engine that can read hand-printed and machine-printed text.
Answer: B

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NO.2 An IBM Datacap Taskmaster Capture system is being architected to support a large capture
processing operation consisting of 500 dedicated Taskmaster web users located in the same facility.
What is the minimum recommended number of Microsoft IIS instances?
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Five
Answer: D

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NO.3 The solution designer is creating a standalone FastDoc application and needs to add a
workflow. What construct is created to contain the workflow?
A. Task Profile
B. Batch Profile
C. Batch monitor
D. FastApp template
Answer: B

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NO.4 An IBM Datacap Taskmaster developer has a specific page type which needs custom verify
panels to be created for both thick client and web interfaces. Which Datacap components can the
developer leverage to display custom verify interfaces to the end user?
A. FastDoc for thick client and AVerify.aspx for web.
B. DotEdit for thick client and VeriFine.aspx for web.
C. DotScan for thick client and ImgEnter.aspx for web.
D. Batch Pilot for thick client and AIndex.aspx for web.
Answer: B

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6. A customer scans in a document and the template is not recognized within the IBM Datacap
Taskmaster Capture application. What happens when the image or page is not identified?
A. The unidentified page is classified as "Default."
B. The unidentified page is removed from the DCO.
C. The page is classified as the previous identified page.
D. The page is classified as "Other" and has to be otherwise identified.
Answer: D

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7. Which of the following is NOT an "out of the box" export target for IBM Datacap Taskmaster
Capture?
A. Microsoft SharePoint
B. Microsoft SQL Database
C. Open Text Cloud Storage
D. IBM Content Manager (CM8)
Answer: C

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8. For optimal testing results of fingerprints created with AnalyzeImage, which of the following
image processing settings is NOT required?
A. Deskew
B. Line removal
C. Dot Removal
D. Border removal
Answer: B

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9. A customer has remote users that will be scanning in paper documents for their IBM Datacap
Taskmaster applications outside of their office network. What is the BEST method of ingestion for
the customer's application?
A. Use the Taskmaster Web client to scan and then upload the documents, using a TWAIN driver .
B. Use Taskmaster DotScan using ISIS or TWAIN scanner for the remote user to scan in new batches.
C. Use a fax machine where remote user fax images to a Rightfax server which is ingested by a
RuleRunner server using a OpenTextFaxServer task.
D. Use a third party application with a scanner for the remote user who then upload the images to a
network folder which is ingested by a RuleRunner server using VScan task.
Answer: A

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runtime processing information?
A. Log file contents
B. Recognition zones
C. Custom action code
D. Batch hierarchy variables
Answer: C

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11. The client requirements outline the need to return documents to the original scan operator
(or department) for verification. What task detail settings will provide this functionality?
A. Mode: Router and Store: User ID
B. Queue by: User and Store: None
C. Mode: Router and Queue by: User
D. Queue by: User and Store: User ID
Answer: D

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12. A solution designer is using the Application Wizard to create a new project. What are some
of the object types, within the hierarchy, that are created by default?
A. Document, Page and Field
B. Batch, Document Separators, Page
C. Variables, Document, Page and Field
D. Main Page, Trailing Page and Other Page
Answer: A

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13. A customer has more than 200 types of documents to be scanned using IBM Datacap
Taskmaster Capture. Some documents have more than 100 index fields that need to be captured.
How many documents / pages / fields can be created in the DCO?
A. Unlimited documents / pages / fields
B. Limited to 50 documents / pages / fields
C. Limited to 10 documents / pages / fields
D. Limited to 100 documents / pages / fields
Answer: A

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14. When IBM Datacap Taskmaster Capture converts a single multi-page file to individual a TIFF
file, what determines the maximum number of files that are created and output using the Convert
library actions?
A. The SetMaxImageFiles action determines the maximum.
B. There is no restriction on the maximum number of output files.
C. Inherently a maximum of 1,296 individual TIFF files can be output.
D. Individual Convert actions properties determine the maximum number of output files.
Answer: C

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15. A race condition can occur when two or more threads are able to access shared data. Which
statement is TRUE about the automated vscan task?
A. By default all batch creation tasks are synchronized in memory and can run simultaneously
without conflict.
B. Batch creation tasks from two different applications looking in the same input folder can run
simultaneously without conflict.
C. Batch creation tasks from two different applications looking in two different input folders can run
simultaneously without conflict.
D. Batch creation tasks from a single application but in separate jobs looking in the same input
folders can run simultaneously without conflict.
Answer: C

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NO.5 A company is experiencing some batch aborts that have been traced to recognition failure in
the OCR engine. What is the recommendation to alleviate this?
A. Use managed recognition.
B. Switch to another engine that will sacrifice accuracy for stability.
C. Check to make sure that the input images are oriented correctly.
D. Check the image file sizes. OCR will not work on images bigger than 82.3K. A lower resolution will
be required.
Answer: A

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NO.1 Which configuration enables the day time error page?
A. [acnt-mgt] client-alert-tod = yes
B. [acnt-mgt] client-alert-dot = yes
C. [acnt-mgt] client-notify-tod = yes
D. [acnt-mgt] client-notify-dot = yes
Answer: C

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NO.2 When performing an upgrade, which utility is used to back up the information in Tivoli
Directory Server?
A. ldapadd
B. bulkload
C. idsdb2ldif
D. idscreateldif
Answer: C

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NO.3 What pdbackup command restores the contents of an Access Manger archived file on a
Windows operating system to a specific folder?
A. pdbackup -a extract
B. pdabckup -a backup
C. pdbackup -a restore
D. pdbackup -a retrieve
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the correct archive file If pdbackup -a backup -list C:\Program Files\Tivoli\Policy
Director\etc\pdbackup.lst is executed using ISAM on a Windows Server?
A. C:\Program Files\Tivoli\Policy Director\pdbackup\pdbackup.lst_30aug2013.11.30.dar
B. C:\Program Files\Tivoli\Policy Director\pdbackup\pdbackup.lst_30.08.2013.11.30.dar
C. C:\Program Files\Tivoli\Policy Director\pdbackup\pdbackup.lst_30aug2013.11_30.dar
D. C:\Program Files\Tivoli\Policy Director\pdbackup\pdbackup.lst_30.08.2013.11_30.dar
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which statement is true for the ISAM appliance snapshot?
A. It is only a backup of the LMI.
B. It is a backup of all WebSEAL instances.
C. It is a copy of the state of the appliance at a certain time.
D. It is a backup of the Policy Server and WebSEAL instances.
Answer: C

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NO.6 You have a default setup of ISAM, ITDS and a Microsoft SharePoint backend. A Web
environment is experiencing performance issues. In order conduct analysis, tracing is temporarily
switched on using the following commands:
server task web04-webseald-unix08 trace set pdweb.debug 2 file path=/tmp/trace.log
server task web04-webseald-unix08 trace set pdweb.debug 0
During analysis of the trace.log various common occurrences appear, the following trace.log extract
displays only the lines important for this question.
2013-05-26-22:08:01.681+02:00I ----------------- Browser ===> PD -----------------
2013-05-2622:08:01.682+02:00I ----------------- PD ===> BackEnd -----------------
2013-05-2622:08:07.216+02:00I ----------------- PD <=== BackEnd -----------------
2013-05-2622:08:07.217+02:00I ----------------- Browser <=== PD ----------------
What can be concluded by analyzing this trace excerpt?
A. This excerpt indicates no performance or other issues.
B. This excerpt indicates that ITDS has a performance issue.
C. This excerpt indicates that the user has given a wrong password.
D. This excerpt indicates that the backend has a performance issue.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which statement is FALSE regarding local response redirection?
A. We need to use External authentication interface to implement local response redirection.
B. When local response redirection is enabled, change password must be handled by WebSEAL.
C. When using local response redirection, WebSEAL no longer has the responsibility of generating
responses to client requests.
D. When local response redirection is enabled, the redirection is used for all local WebSEAL
response types: login, error, informational, and password management.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which utility provides backup, restore, and extract capabilities for Security Access Manager
data?
A. pdinfo
B. pdbackup
C. pdservice
D. pd_backup
Answer: B

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