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Exam Code: 9L0-412
Exam Name: Apple (OS X Support Essentials 10.8 Exam)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 86 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-02

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NO.1 Migration Assistant is open on a Mac with OS X Mountain Lion installed.It CANNOT migrate
user files
from ________.
A.a Time Machine backup on a connected USB hard disk
B.an archive stored on iCloud
C.another volume on the same computer
D.a Windows XP computer with Service Pack 3 or later installed
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of these is a recovery key storage location that FileVault 2 offers when you enable it?
A.Your iCloud account
B.The System Keychain
C.The OS X Recovery partition
D.An Apple server
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which dynamic service discovery protocol does OS X use to discover devices on a network?
A.SLP
B.AppleTalk
C.Bonjour
D.DynDNS
Answer: C

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NO.4 On an OS X computer running Mountain Lion, changes made in the Software Update pane of
System
Preferences apply to ALL users of the system.
A.True
B.False
Answer: A

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NO.5 Your Mac is started up from its OS X Recovery partition.You need to repair the hard disk.Which
procedure will let you perform the repair?
A.Select Disk Utility in the OS X Utilities window, click Continue, select the hard disk, and click Repair
Disk.
B.In the OS X Utilities window, click Select Volume, click Continue, select the hard disk, and click
Verify &
Repair.
C.Quit the Recovery app, then open Disk Utility from the /Applications/Utilities/ folder on the
OS X Recovery partition, select the hard disk, and click Repair Disk.
D.Quit the Recovery app, then open Disk Utility from the /Applications/Utilities/ folder on the
Macintosh HD partition, select the hard disk, and click Repair Disk.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 4A0-105
Exam Name: Alcatel-Lucent (Alcatel-Lucent Virtual Private LAN Services)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 59 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-02

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NO.1 Which of the following statements relating to VPLS are false?
A.A VPLS is a multipoint Layer 2 service
B.A VPLS allows multiple customer sites to be connected in a single bridged domain
C.A VPLS on a single node requires a Service Distribution Path
D.With VPLS Service provider can reuse their IP/MPLS infrastructure to offer multiple services
E.The VPLS switches traffic based on MAC address associated to the appropriate SAP
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following functions must a PE router support when participating in a VPLS network?
Choose all that apply.
A.MAC learning
B.Packet replication
C.Proxy ARP
D.Packet forwarding
E.Flood all frames with an unknown destination MAC address to all PE routers associated with that VPLS
Answer: A B D E

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NO.3 Which of the following statements is false?
A.VPLS is a bridged LAN service
B.VPLS provides L2 VPN services to CEs
C.VPLS is a point-to-point service where CEs are presented with point- to-point virtual circuits
D.CEs that are members of the same VPLS service instance communicate with each other as if they are
connected
via a bridged LAN
Answer: C

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NO.4 True or False? Multiple VPLS services can be offered over the same set of LSP tunnels?
A.True
B.False
Answer: A

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NO.5 The behavior of VPLS can be best described by which of the following statements?
A.A frame should be sent only to the PE that connects to the target site of the frame whenever possible
B.A frame should be flooded as little as possible
C.Customer frames should be switched based on the destination MAC address
D.Only (a) and (b) are true
E.All of the above
Answer: E

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NO.6 Which of the following best describes the difference between VPWS and VPLS?
A.VPWS is a point-to-point service where CEs are presented with point- to-point virtual circuits whereas
VPLS is a bridged LAN service provided to a set of CEs that are members of a L2 VPN
B.Unlike VPLS, VPWS allows CEs that are member of the same service instance to communicate with
each other as if they are connected via a bridged LAN
C.Unlike VPWS, VPLS provides customers to view the network as an unshared overlay link or circuit
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following contributes to VPLS implementation over MPLS?
A.Connecting bridging-capable provider edge routers with a full mesh of MPLS LSP (label switched path)
tunnels
B.Negotiating per-service VC labels using draft-Martini encapsulation
C.Replicating unknown and broadcast traffic in a service domain
D.Enabling MAC learning over tunnel and access ports
E.Using a separate forwarding information base (FIB) per VPLS service
F.All of the above
Answer: F

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NO.8 Select the command from the list below that produced the following output.
A.oam svc-ping 20.20.20.20 service 10 local-sdp remote-sdp
B.oam sdp-ping 10 resp-sdp 10
C.oam svc-ping 20.20.20.20 service 10 local-sdp
D.oam svc-ping 10.10.10.10 service 10 local-sdp remote-sdp
E.oam svc-ping 10.10.10.10 service 10 local-sdp
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which SDP on R3 will MAC addresses be associated with for devices behind R2?
A.It depends if traffic is received via R4 or R1 from devices behind R2
B.The devices cannot communicate based on the configuration in the diagram so there will be no mac
address association
C.Devices behind R2 will be associated with the sdp between R3 and R1
D.Devices behind R2 will be associated with the sdp between R3 and R4
Answer: C

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NO.10 Based on the following output what will the vc-id be of any mesh-sdp bound to this service?
A.9000
B.1514
C.1000
D.0
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 3I0-010
Exam Name: ACI (ACI - Operations Certificate)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 342 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-02

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NO.1 What type of documentation is recommended for repos in the international markets?
A. An Overseas Securities Lenders Agreement
B. A ISDA Master Repurchase Agreement
C. A SIFMA/ICMA Global Master Repurchase Agreement
D. An International Securities Lenders Agreement
Answer: C

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NO.2 Your money market dealer has lent GBP 5,000,000.00 at 4 3/4% for 6 months (183 days). How much
must the counterparty pay back to you in capital plus accrued interest at maturity?
A. GBP 5,117,123.29
B. GBP 5,119,075.00
C. GBP 5,119,075.34
D. GBP 5,120,729.17
Answer: C

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NO.3 If the EUR/USD is quoted to you as 1.1050-53, what does this price represent?
A. EUR per USD
B. USD per EUR
C. the interest rate differential between EUR and USD
D. the fact that one USD is worth more than one EUR
Answer: B

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NO.4 The notional amount in an interest rate swap is:
A. the sum of all the fixed and floating rate payments
B. the net difference between fixed and floating rate payments
C. the principal amount on which floating and fixed interest payments is calculated
D. the amount at which the two counterparties can close-out their transaction
Answer: C

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NO.5 What does "modified following business day convention" mean?
A. a convention whereby a transaction is dated the following business day, unless that day extends into
the next month, in which case it is dated the preceding business day
B. a convention whereby a transaction is dated the following business day
C. a convention whereby a transaction is dated the preceding business day
D. a convention whereby a transaction is dated the next business day that corresponds to the same
numerical day of the month as the preceding payment
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following is the main objective of position-keeping?
A. measuring market exposure
B. defining capital adequacy
C. evaluating country risk
D. monitoring counterparty credit risk
Answer: A

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NO.7 Physical securities reconciliation software packages are based on:
A. SWIFT message type 5XX
B. SWIFT message type 2XX
C. SWIFT message type 320
D. SWIFT message type 400
Answer: A

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NO.8 What is a nostro bank account?
A. an account held with another bank
B. an account another bank holds with you
C. a trust account
D. a suspense account
Answer: A

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NO.9 The prompt sending and checking of confirmations is considered a best practice when dealing in:
A. amounts higher than USD 10,000,000.00 or the equivalent in other currencies
B. amounts higher than USD 1,000,000.00 or the equivalent in other currencies
C. any amount unless dealt via a broker
D. any amount by any counterparty
Answer: D

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NO.10 When should discrepancies between front-office and back-office systems be resolved?
A. by the end of the trading day
B. on the next business day
C. on the value date
D. as soon as they become apparent
Answer: D

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NO.11 How many characters does a BIC have? (Under ISO standard 9362, 2nd edition)
A. 6 or 9 characters
B. 9 or 12 characters
C. 7 or 10 characters
D. 8 or 11 characters
Answer: D

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NO.12 A collateral pool can be defined as:
A. assets lent by members of a payment system collectively available to the system as collateral to enable
them to obtain funds in specific circumstances
B. liabilities owned by members of a payments system collectively available to the system as collateral to
enable them to obtain funds in specific circumstances
C. assets owned by members of a payment system collectively available to the system as collateral to
enable them to obtain funds in specific circumstances
D. assets swapped by members of a payment system collectively available to the system as collateral to
enable them to obtain funds in specific circumstances
Answer: C

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NO.13 What is a feature of multilateral netting?
A. there are no more than two participants involved in the netting process
B. there is no redistribution of default risk
C. there is a central clearing house
D. no legal entity is required
Answer: C

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NO.14 You have just opened a position in EUR/USD that you run overnight. What risk is present?
A. settlement, counterparty and equity risk
B. only counterparty risk
C. only currency and interest rate risks
D. settlement, counterparty and market risk
Answer: D

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NO.15 The maximum term for which a London Certificate of Deposit may be issued is:
A. 1 year
B. 3 years
C. 5 years
D. 10 years
Answer: C

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NO.16 Under normal circumstances, which of the following is a non-negotiable instrument?
A. a Medium Term Note
B. a Bankers Acceptance
C. a Money Market Deposit
D. a Treasury Bill
Answer: C

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NO.17 You have two nostro accounts in USD, one account is long USD 5 million and the other is short USD 5
million. What action should be taken to reconcile the accounts?
A. No action is required. The credit interest earned on the credit balance will offset the debit interest
incurred on the short balance
B. You should borrow USD 5 million to cover the short balance and leave the long balance as it is
C. You should lend the surplus USD 5 million in order to overdraft charges on the short balance with the
interest earned on the loan
D. You should instruct the bank with the long balance to pay USD 5 million to the other bank
Answer: D

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NO.18 In FX swaps, the rate of the spot leg
A. may be freely chosen by the quoting party as long as both parties agree on it
B. must always be fixed immediately at the current mid rate, to reflect the rate at the time the deal was
made
C. should be fixed immediately within the current spread, to reflect current rates at the time the
transaction was made
D. should always be fixed off the current spread in order not to be mistaken for a spot FX transaction
Answer: C

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NO.19 The control failings involving Barings and Daiwa highlight the critical importance of what operational risk
management practice?
A. the taping of conversations between counterparties
B. model signing-off and implementation controls
C. the separation between front/back office duties
D. the existence of contingency plans
Answer: C

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NO.20 Today is the fixing date for 6x9 FRA that you sold at 5.50% and for which the FRABBA LIBOR is now
6.00%. Which of the following is true?
A. You will pay a cash settlement to the counterparty
B. You will receive the cash settlement
C. There is no cash settlement pending
D. There is insufficient information to make a determination
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 3M0-250
Exam Name: 3COM (3Com Certified Enterprise LAN Post-Sales Expert version 1.0)
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Total Q&A: 50 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-02

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NO.1 Which two are functions of Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)? (Choose two.)
A.Provides a framework and transport for the exchange of authentication information between the
authenticator and the supplicant
B.Provides encapsulation for the exchange of information between the authenticator and authentication
server
C.Provides the mechanism for locking/unlocking a switch port based on the results of the supplicants
authentication
D.Provides the mechanism for defining what network resources a user may access based on the
authentication information
Answer: AB

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NO.2 How does the network administrator configure the up/down Switch 5500-EI/SI ports to operate in fabric
mode?
A.By default, the up/down ports are enabled for fabric mode
B.Execute the command xrn-fabric authentication-mode simple
C.Execute the command resilient-arp enable x/x/x where x/x/x identifies the unit and port number
D.Execute the command fabric-port gigabit x/x/x enable where x/x/x identifies the unit and port number
Answer: D

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NO.3 You have configured multiple OSPF areas on your network. How do the different OSPF areas
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A.The Designated Router (DR) uses multicast routing to broadcast advertisements to the other area DRs
B.The Designated Router (DR) connects each OSPF area to the main backbone network and
communicates with the other areas
C.The Area Border Router (ABR) connects each OSPF area to the main backbone network and
communicates with the other areas
D.The Autonomous System Border Router (ASBR) connects each OSPF area to the main backbone
network and communicates with the other areas
Answer: C

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NO.4 You have already configured and enabled individual switch ports for IEEE 802.1X Network Login.
What is required for authentication to be activated on the ports?
A.From the System View, enable 802.1X Network Login
B.From the Ethernet Port View, set the port access control mode
C.From the System View, configure the authentication method for 802.1X users
D.From the Ethernet Port View, configure the authentication method, i.e., chap, pap, eap, etc.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which two are general Link Aggregation (LA) configuration rules that must be followed when creating
an LA group? (Choose two.)
A.A member link port can only belong to one LA group
B.Aggregated links are mutually exclusive with roving analysis and mirror ports
C.A port must be configured for resilient links before it can be configured as a member of an LA group
D.LA ports can only be configured if Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP) is enabled on the switches
Answer: AB

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NO.6 How must the MAC Radius Authenticated Device Access (RADA) address be configured on the
Switch 5500?
A.Hexadecimal IP address only
B.Hexadecimal MAC address only
C.Binary or hexadecimal IP or MAC address
D.Binary, decimal or hexadecimal MAC address
Answer: B

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NO.7 GARP VLAN Registration Protocol (GVRP) maintains and distributes Virtual LAN (VLAN) registration
information only about the dynamically created VLANs using GARP.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.8 How would you view the configuration information that is running on a switch?
A.Use the display startup command
B.Use the display version command
C.Use the display saved-configuration command
D.Use the display current-configuration command
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which Switch 5500 PWR LED condition indicates the switch is powered-up and operating normally?
A.Off
B.Green
C.Green flashing
D.Solid green when not transmitting user data and flashing green when transmitting user data
Answer: B

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NO.10 Click on the exhibit button.
Which Switch 7700 command shows all the hardware and software information on the modules (review
the output shown in the exhibit)?
A.[SW7700] display device
B.[SW7700] display version
C.[SW7700] display interfaces
D.[SW7700] display current-configuration
Answer: B

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NO.11 What is the result of the command boot boot-loader file-url?
A.Reboots the switch using the file-url for the operational code
B.Updates the switch BootROM with the file-url on the system flash
C.Reboots the switch fabric only using the file-url for the operational code
D.Specifies the switch to use file-url for the operational code on the next boot
Answer: D

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NO.12 What is the effect of the Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) switch command snmp-agent
target-host trap address udp-domain 129.102.149.23 udp-port 5000 params securityname 3comprivate?
A.Configures the switch with a default community string name of 3comprivate
B.Enables the SNMP trap functions on a switch with IP address 129.102.149.23
C.Configures the switch SNMP agent to send traps to the network management station at IP address
129.102.149.23
D.Enables the SNMP trap functions and sets the default community string name of 3compublic on a
switch with IP address 129.102.149.23
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which switch command shows what is installed in the switch and the current operational status?
A.[SW8800-14slot] display device
B.[SW8800-14slot] display system
C.[SW8800-14slot] display startup
D.[SW8800-14slot] display current-configuration
Answer: A

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NO.14 An IP address must be configured on a switch before it can be managed using Telnet.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which three are Switch 5500 configuration requirements when creating an eXpandable Resilient
Networking (XRN) Fabric? (Choose three.)
A.All units in the stack must have the same sysname
B.All units in the stack must be running the same software version
C.A mixture of switch models can be used to create a single XRN Fabric
D.Switch 5500-SI/EI up/down ports must be enabled for fabric mode
E.A switch must be initialized after it has been added to an existing XRN Fabric
Answer: ABD

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NO.16 Which best defines the mechanism of IEEE 802.1X Network Login?
A.An authenticator requests access to network services; the authentication server enforces authentication
before allowing access to the network and validates the supplicant on behalf of the authenticator
B.A supplicant requests access to network services; the authenticator enforces authentication before
allowing access to the network; the authentication server validates the supplicant on behalf of the
authenticator
C.A supplicant requests access to network services; the authentication server enforces authentication
before allowing access to the network; the authenticator validates the supplicant on behalf of the
authentication server
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which security standard is defined by IEEE 802.1X Network Login?
A.Encryption standard for network authorization
B.Port-based Network Access Control protocol standard
C.Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) standard for network authorization
D.Authentication, Authorization and Accounting (AAA) standard for network access
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which Switch 5500 model(s) does not support Distributed Resilient Routing (DRR)?
A.Switch 5500-EI
B.Switch 5500-SI
C.Switch 5500G-EI
D.All of the above
Answer: B

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NO.19 What is the reason to connect the up port on the bottom Switch 5500 in the stack to the down port of
the top Switch 5500 in the same stack?
A.Reliability - creates a resilient topology
B.Security - prevents an unauthorized user from connecting to the switch stack
C.Performance - creates the 48-Gbps eXpandable Resilient Networking (XRN) Fabric
D.Management - enables Distributed Resilient Routing (DRR) on the Switch 5500-SI
Answer: A

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NO.20 You have issued the switch debugging command debugging rip packets from the management terminal,
but you are not receiving any debug output. What is the reason you are not getting any debug output from
the switch?
A.RIP has not been enabled, and therefore there is no debug output
B.Output from the debugging command only goes to the syslog server
C.You forgot to issue the enable debugging command at the System View
D.You forgot to issue the terminal debugging command, directing the output to your management terminal
Answer: D

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NO.1 The purpose of Control self-assessment is:
A. to make analysis through interviews
B. to find report issued by auditors
C. through which internal control effectiveness is examined and assessed
D. to focus on policies and procedures that are strategy compliance
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following is NOT the purpose of an organization that uses self-assessment to
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structured manner?
A. Identifying risk factors and significant exposures.
B. Accessing the control processes that do not mitigate or manage those risks.
C. Developing action plans to reduce risks to acceptable levels.
D. Determining the likelihood of, or assisting in, the achievement of business objectives.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Principles relevant to profession of internal auditing and rules of conduct that describe their
behaviors are the components of:
A. Auditing Reviews
B. Internal Auditing Profession
C. Auditing Standards
D. Institute of Internal Auditors
Answer: D

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NO.4 To disclose all material facts known to internal auditors that if not disclosed, may distort the
reporting of activities under review, this one of the rules of:
A. Objectivity
B. Integrity
C. Confidentiality
D. Expert judgment
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following is Correct?
A. Internal auditing is an independent, objective assurance and consulting activity designed to add
value and improve an organization's operations.
B. Take guidelines to analyst conflicts of internal auditing.
C. Required orientation and continuing education regarding audits.
D. Assets are safeguards for internal audits.
Answer: A

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NO.6 When internal auditors establishes trust and thus provides the basis for reliance on their
judgment, this refers to:
A. Veracity
B. Authenticity
C. Integrity
D. Accuracy
Answer: C

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NO.7 In traditional approach, objectives used were of management's and in control selfassessment
approach it is of work teams'.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following is NOT the rule of integrity?
A. Perform duty with honesty and responsibility.
B. Observe law and make disclosures expected by law.
C. Knowingly engage in acts that are discreditable to the organization.
D. Respect to and contribute to the legitimate objectives of the organization.
Answer: C

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NO.9 A methodology that can be used by managers and internal auditors to assess the adequacy of
an organization's risk management and control processes is called:
A. Control self-assessment
B. Control certifications
C. Managerial control
D. Risk control
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following is Correct?
A. In traditional approach, reporting was done by work teams and in control selfassessment
approach it is done by auditors.
B. In traditional approach, reporting was done by auditors and in control self-assessment approach
it is done by work teams.
C. In traditional approach, setting business objectives were done by auditors and in control
self-assessment approach it is done by management.
D. In traditional approach, accessing risks were done by auditors and in control selfassessment
approach it is also done by auditors.
Answer: B

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NO.11 Competency refers to:
A. External auditors apply the knowledge, skills and experience needed in the performance of
internal auditing services.
B. Internal auditors apply the knowledge, skills and experience needed in the performance of
internal auditing services.
C. Reduce or prevent manufacturing defects
D. Provide information about the process capability and maturity with standards.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Internal auditors have which following four principles to uphold and apply.
A. Integrity, Objectivity, Control and Confidentiality
B. Integrity, Objectivity, Confidentiality and Competency
C. Reliability, Objectivity, Timeliness and Competency
D. Integrity, Objectivity, Discretion and Expertise
Answer: B

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NO.13 In traditional approach, evaluating risks and controls were done by auditors and in control
self-assessment approach it is done by work teams.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which of the following is Correct?
A. Internal audit can focus on validating the evaluation conclusions produced by controlself
assessment.
B. controlling can focus on validating the evaluation conclusions produced by controlself assessment.
C. Internal audit can focus on resource and budgetary produced by control-self assessment.
D. Internal audit can focus on better risk assessment produced by control-self assessment.
Answer: A

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NO.15 The entire objectives-risks-controls infrastructures of an organization are subject to greater
monitoring and continuous improvements due to:
A. Accountability for control
B. Measuring methodology
C. Evaluation methodology
D. Self-assessment methodology
Answer: D

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NO.1 What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <list>
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
template<class T> void print(T start, T end) {
while (start != end) {
std::cout << *start << " "; start++;
}
}
class A {
int a;
public:
A(int a):a(a){}
operator int () const { return a;}int getA() const { return a;}
};
int main() {
int t1[] ={ 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10};
list<A> l1(t1, t1 + 10);
list<A> l2(l1);
l2.reverse(); l1.splice(l1.end(),l2);
l1.pop_back();l1.unique();
print(l1.begin(), l1.end()); cout<<endl;
return 0;
}
A. compilation error
B. runtime exception
C. program outputs: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2
D. program outputs: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2
E. program outputs: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1
Answer: C

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NO.2 What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <vector>
#include <iostream>
#include <algorithm>
using namespace std;
template<class T>struct Out {
ostream & out;
Out(ostream & o): out(o){}
void operator() (const T & val ) { out<<val<<" "; } };
struct Add {
int operator()(int & a, int & b) {
return a+b;
}
};
int main() {
int t[]={1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10};
vector<int> v1(t, t+10);
vector<int> v2(10);
transform(v1.begin(), v1.end(), v2.begin(), bind1st(1,Add()));
for_each(v2.rbegin(), v2.rend(), Out<int>(cout));cout<<endl;
return 0;
}
Program outputs:
A. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B. 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11
C. 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1
D. 11 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2
E. compilation error
Answer: E

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NO.3 What happens when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
#include <algorithm>
#include <vector>
using namespace std;
class A {
int a;
public:
A(int a) : a(a) {}
int getA() const { return a; } void setA(int a) { this?>a = a; }
bool operator==(const A & b) const { return a == b.a; }
};
bool compare(const A & a, const A & b) { return a == b; }
int main () {
int t[] = {1,2,3,3,5,1,2,4,4,5};
vector<A> v (t,t+10);
vector<A>::iterator it = v.begin();
while ( (it = adjacent_find (it, v.end(), compare)) != v.end()) {
cout<<it?v.begin()<<" ";it++;
}
cout<< endl;
return 0;
A. program outputs: 2 3
B. program outputs: 2 7
C. program outputs: 3 8
D. compilation error
E. program will run forever
Answer: B

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