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Exam Code: 000-573
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Tivoli Netcool/Impact V6.1 Implementation )
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 123 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-01

000-573 (IBM Tivoli Netcool/Impact V6.1 Implementation ) Free Demo Download: http://www.it-tests.com/000-573.html

NO.1 In order for IBM Tivoli Netcool/lmpact V6.1 to start using the ObjectServer for authentication, the server
must be configured so that it can map the roles that the application exposes to groups and/or users
managed in IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus. Which file must be edited for this purpose?
A. omnibus.conf
B. omnibususers
C. guiserver.setting
D. objectserver.conf
Answer: C

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NO.2 What are two ways Data Source Adapters are used in IBM Tivoli Netcool/lmpact V6.1? (Choose two.)
A. to monitor Netcool/lmpact services
B. to communicate with external data sources
C. to extend the capabilities of Netcool/lmpact
D. to apply product fixes to the Netcool/lmpact Server
E. to start the policy logging service in Netcool/lmpact
Answer: B,C

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NO.3 An IBM Tivoli Netcool/lmpact V6.1 system is configured to perform event enrichment by retrieving
ObjectServer events which have an empty Location field. Which Service Log can be used to verify that
Netcool/lmpact is selecting events from the ObjectServer based upon that condition?
A. the PolicyLogger service
B. the PolicyActivator service
C. the OMNIbusEventReader service
D. the OMNIbusEventListener service
Answer: C

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NO.4 In which folder are the IBM Tivoli Netcool/lmpact V6.1 service logs stored?
A. $NCHOME/logs
B. $IMPACT_HOME/log
C. $IMPACT_HOME/Iogs
D. $IMPACT_HOME/services/logs
Answer: C

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NO.5 What must occur before a data type can be defined?
A. Data Type service must be started
B. Policy Activator service is activated
C. Data Source definition is configured
D. ObjectServer Event Reader is activated
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which utility edits the installed GUI server deployment and maps the roles to the specified users?
A. roles.[bat|sh]
B. user-roles.[bat|sh]
C. update-impact-roles.[bat|sh]
D. impact-security-roles.[bat|sh]
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which step is required to design an IBM Tivoli Netcool/lmpact V6.1 solution from stakeholder
requirements?
A. Determine if the correct Java version is installed.
B. Create an architecture and a raw functional design of policies.
C. Determine if enough disk space is provided on the installation servers.
D. Interview the operational staff to determine their most efficient way to resolve a problem
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which component of IBM WebSphere is installed with IBM Tivoli Netcool/lmpact V6.1?
A. WebSphere MQ
B. WebSphere Portal Server
C. WebSphere Process Server
D. Embedded WebSphere Application Server
Answer: D

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NO.9 Given only command line access, where is it verified that a newly started IBM Tivoli Netcool/lmpact
Server instance is registering itself as a slave or primary in a cluster?
A. in the server.log file
B. in the netcool.log file
C. in the systemOut.log file
D. using the nci_server utility
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which tool will start a policy from the command line?
A. nci_crypt
B. nci_policy
C. nci_trigger
D. nci_import
Answer: C

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NO.11 What is the purpose of a project in IBM Tivoli Netcool/lmpact V6.1?
A. It allows for creating subsets of the elements stored in the global repository.
B. It allows for creating subsets of the elements stored in the Impact repository.
C. It allows for creating subsets of the elements stored across cluster members.
D. It allows for creating supersets of the elements stored in the global repository.
Answer: A

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NO.12 What must be done to receive an IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus event when a policy run raises any
unknown exception?
A. use the action function exceptionnameOand add policy code to insert the event between the brackets
B. use handle exceptionnameO in the policy and add policy code to insert the event between the brackets
C. create an ExceptionHandlerPolicy that inserts the event and define this in the Policytogger
configuration
D. configure the Self-Monitoring service to log exceptions into the ObjectServer defined in the service
configuration
Answer: C

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NO.13 How is the name of the IBM Tivoli N etc oo I/Imp act Server Instance on the console identified?
A. check the IBM Installer utility litslll.sh to show the Impact Server Instance Names that have been set up
B. check the TIPProfile/logs/server1 directory - the SystemOutlog holds the Impact Service Instance
name
C. use the nci_server command line utility to show the Impact Server Instance Names that have been set
up
D. check the impact/etc directory - all Impact Server Instance-related files use the Instance Name in the
beginning of every file name
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which functional step should be completed when designing an IBM Tivoli Netcool/lmpact V6.1
solution?
A. write an enrichment policy
B. develop Netcool/lmpact startup scripts
C. test high availability and fail-over scenarios
D. determine methods of achieving customer requirements
Answer: D

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NO.15 On a server with only command line access, the server in an IBM Tivoli Netcool/lmpact cluster is
identified as acting as a primary server by using which command line utility?
A. nci_server
B. nci_trigger
C. nci_get_primary
D. nci_findendpoint
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which three IBM Tivoli Netcool/lmpact roles in Tivoli Integrated Portal can be used to control users
access to navigation pages in the GUI and to permit users to unlock their own files?
A. impactSuperUser. impactFullAccessUser, and impactOpViewUser
B. impactAdminUser, impactReadWriteUser, and impactOpViewUser
C. impactAdminUser, impactFullAccessUser, and impactOpViewUser
D. impactAdminUser, impactFullAccessUser, and impactReadOnlyUser
Answer: C

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NO.17 A new Impact Server will be installed using the console mode of the installer application. Which
statement is true?
A. All default ports must be available.
B. The installer will not check if the required ports are available.
C. A starting point of ports can be selected if the default ports are not available.
D. The installer will adapt the required ports if some are tested as in use during the installation.
Answer: C

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NO.18 What is true about the LDAP DSA?
A. It does not support data saved in UTF-8 format.
B. It does not retrieve information from LDAPV2/V3.
C. It allows IBM Tivoli Netcool/lmpactto add, modify, or delete information managed by the LDAP server.
D. It does not allow IBM Tivoli Netcool/lmpactto add. modify, or delete information managed by the LDAP
server.
Answer: D

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NO.19 What is the minimum memory requirement for installing a Tivoli Integrated Portal profile and an IBM
Tivoli Netcool/lrnpact profile running on the same physical machine?
A. 2 GB
B. 4 GB
C. 6 GB
D. 8 GB
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which command line function should be executed prior to applying a product fix or upgrading the IBM
Tivoli Netcool/lmpact Server as best practice.?
A. nci_crypt
B. nci_policy
C. nci_trigger
D. nci_export
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 50-684
Exam Name: Novell (Novell eDirectory Tools and Diagnostics )
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 150 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-01

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NO.1 When a non-local object authenticates or attaches to a server, eDirectory creates a
placeholder for this object. What is this placeholder called?
A. Backlink
B. Obituary
C. Attribute
D. Remote object
E. External reference
Answer: E

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NO.2 Which statements are true regarding subordinate reference replicas? (Choose two.)
A. There can be multiple subordinate references per partition.
B. Subordinate references must reside on every server in the tree.
C. Subordinate references link a parent partition with its child partition.
D. A subordinate reference can be changed to be a master replica without losing information.
E. Subordinate references should be removed to help reduce traffic across the communication
channel.
Answer: A C

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NO.3 Which aspects of the eDirectory environment are defined by the schema? (Choose 3.)
A. The steps used to process obituaries
B. The types of objects that can be created
C. The number of objects allowed in a partition
D. The locations an object can exist in the tree
E. What types of replicas can be held on a server
F. The total number of replicas that can be held by a server
G. The information that must be entered and maintained for specific objects
Answer: B, D, G

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NO.4 Which statements are true regarding replica types? (Choose two.)
A. Subordinate references contain only the partition root object.
B. Master and read/write replicas are the only replicas that are automatically created.
C. A master or read/write replica must reside on a server where bindery services is used.
D. Subordinate references can be promoted to be the master replica without causing problems to the
NDS tree.
E. Master, read/write, read-only, and subordinate reference replicas can be manually created by
the network administrator.
Answer: A, C

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NO.5 Which statements are true regarding transitive synchronization? (Choose two.)
A. The transitive vector attribute is not a synchronized attribute.
B. Transitive synchronization updates replicas in a sequential order.
C. The transitive vector attribute is located on any partition root object.
D. Transitive synchronization does not require a server to be able to talk with every server in the
replica ring.
E. Transitive synchronization allows subordinate references to participate in a normal replica
synchronization.
Answer: C, D

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NO.6 When upgrading your first server to eDirectory 8.7, you may need to update the eDirectory
schema. On which server should the schema be updated?
A. The server you are upgrading to eDirectory 8.7.
B. The server that has a replica of the [Root] partition.
C. Any server that holds a replica of any partition of the tree.
D. A server that holds the master replica of any partition of the tree.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which aspects of the eDirectory environment are defined by the schema? (Choose 3.)
A. The roles of different replica types
B. The syntax of the login script attribute
C. The steps used to process obituaries
D. The types of objects that can be created
E. The information required for an object to exist
F. The number of associations allowed for an object
G. The total number of replicas that can exist on a server
Answer: D, E, F

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NO.8 Which X.500 Directory component replicates information from one Directory Information
Database to another?
A. The Directory System Agent
B. The Directory System Protocol
C. The Directory Access Protocol
D. The Directory Information Tree
E. The Directory Information Shadow Protocol
Answer: E

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NO.9 Which are default settings for an eDirectory 8.7 tree structure? (Choose 3.)
A. A Single Organization Unit object is created.
B. Three Organizational Unit objects are created.
C. eDirectory keeps the tree as one single partition.
D. The database if replicated to the first three servers running eDirectory.
E. The Admin, Server and Volume objects are created as children of [Root].
Answer: A, C, D

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NO.10 You are the eDirector administrator for the DigitalAir-Tree tree. You would like to move
some containers in your tree to align the tree structure more closely to the physical
structure of your organization. Given the information in the exhibits, without manually
changing any partition boundaries or replica placement, which containers can be moved?
A. Only the TICKETING container
B. The SLC, SYD and LGA containers
C. The SYD, LGA and CUSTSVC containers
D. All containers except DigitalAir-Tree and DigitalAir
E. The CUSTSVC, FLIGHTOPS, SYD and TICKETING containers.
Answer: A

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NO.11 Performing which partition operation will never cause the number of real objects in any
server's eDirectory database to change?
A. Move
B. Merge
C. Create
D. Add Replica
E. Remove Replica
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which replica or replicas contain a complete copy of all object information of a partition?
A. Master
B. Master and read-only
C. Master and read/write
D. Master, read/write, and read-only
E. Master, read/write, read-only, and subordinate reference
Answer: D

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NO.13 If a Directory System Agent cannot fulfill a request of a Directory User Agent, which X.500
directory component passes the information to another Directory System Agent?
A. The Directory Access Protocol
B. The Directory System Protocol
C. The Directory Information Tree
D. The Directory Information Database
E. The Directory Information Shadowing Protocol
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which statements are true regarding subordinate reference replicas? (Choose two.)
A. Subordinate references only contain the partition root object.
B. Subordinate references link a parent partition with its child partition.
C. Subordinate references can be manually created by the administrator.
D. A subordinate reference can be changed to be a master replica without losing information.
E. Subordinate references should be removed to help reduce traffic across the communication
channel.
Answer: A, B

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NO.15 Which statements regarding the extensible match feature of eDirectory 8.7 are true?
(Choose two.)
A. eDirectory 8.7 currently only supports an exact value match.
B. eDirectory 8.7 supports matching rules in the extensible match filter.
C. eDirectory 8.7 allows the inclusion of ACL attributes in a search via the extensible match
filter.
D. eDirectory 8.7 allows the inclusion of the distinguished name attributes in a search via the
extensible match filter.
E. eDirectory 8.7 allows the inclusion of partition-specific attributes in a search via the
extensible match filter.
Answer: A D

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NO.16 Which are true statements when using the eDirectory Backup eMTool to back up and
restore Novell eDirectory 8.7? (Choose two.)
A. You can backup an attribute of just one object.
B. You can do a quick restore of an individual server.
C. You must be inside the firewall to do a backup or restore.
D. You can backup files on the server that are related to the database.
E. You should not backup your server until eDirectory has been shut down.
Answer: B, D

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NO.17 You have an eDirectory tree that contains 7 servers. Each server holds replicas as shown in
the exhibit. From the information given in the exhibit, which servers will hold a replica of
the schema partition?
A. All servers
B. The DA1 server only
C. All servers except DA7
D. The DA1, DA2 and DA6 servers only
Answer: A

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NO.18 You have an eDirectory tree that contains 7 servers. Each server holds replicas as shown in
the exhibit. From the information given in the exhibit, which servers can you use to make
modifications to the schema partition?
A. All servers
B. The DA1 server only
C. All servers except DA7
D. The DA1, DA2 and DA6 servers only
Answer: D

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NO.19 The DA3 server is preparing to synchronize schema. What servers will DA3 send schema
synchronization information to?
A. Only servers in DA3's poll list
B. All servers in the same tree as DA3
C. All servers sharing replica rings with DA3
D. Only servers in replica rings where DA3 is the Master
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which replica type contains only the partition root object?
A. Master
B. Read/write
C. Read-only
D. Filtered replica
E. Subordinate reference
Answer: E

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NO.21 RThomas is logging in to the DA4 server. The DA4 server does not hold a replica of the
partition where RThomas' user object exists. An external reference is created on the DA4
server containing information about RThomas user object. On the server with a replica of
the partition containing RThomas eDirectory also attempts to create an attribute pointing
to the DA4 server.
What is the name of this attribute?
A. Janitor
B. Obituary
C. Backlink
D. Flat cleaner
E. External reference
Answer: C

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NO.22 You created a new application object in the SLC.DigitalAir partition. After creating the
object you noticed a problem when running a health check. Using the information in the
exhibits, what is the best solution to try first?
A. Reset schema on the DA1 server.
B. Reset schema on the DA2 server.
C. Remove all replicas from the DA1 server.
D. Remove all replicas from the DA2 server.
E. Declare a new epoch on the Schema partition.
F. Remove eDirectory from the DA1 server and re-install.
G. Remove eDirectory from the DA2 server and re-install.
Answer: D

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NO.23 Your eDirectory tree doesn't change often. On average, about once every three months
partition changes are made as servers are added to the tree. There are very few additions,
deletions or modifications of objects. In general, how often should you perform a health
check on this tree?
A. Once a week
B. Once a month
C. Once every three months
D. Only when partition changes are made
E. When objects have been added or deleted
Answer: A

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NO.24 Which Web-based utilities can you use to perform diagnostics and manage eDirectory 8.7?
A. iMonitor and iManager
B. iMonitor and Rconsole
C. iManager and ConsoleOne
D. iMonitor and Server Console Manager
E. iManager and Server Console Manager
Answer: A

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NO.25 Which statements are true regarding replica types? (Choose two.)
A. The master replica controls the obituary process through the janitor process.
B. Master, read/write, and read-only replicas control partition boundary changes.
C. Master, read/write, and read-only replicas control creating, deleting, and moving objects.
D. The subordinate reference replica is the only replica that cannot be manually created by the
network administrator.
E. Master, read/write, read-only, and subordinate references contain a complete copy of all
object information of the partition.
Answer: A, D

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NO.26 You are using the eMBox client to log into a server. The information required for login is
as follows:
- server's IP address is 10.0.0.1
- port number is 8008
- context for admin is slc.digitalair
-password is novell.
Given this information, what is the appropriate syntax to login from the eMBox client?
A. login 10.0.0.1:8008; admin.slc.digitalair.novell:
B. login admin.slc.digitalair:novell 10.0.0.1:8008
C. login 10.0.0.1:8008 admin.slc.digitalair novell
D. login 10.0.0.1:8008 -u admin.slc.digitalair -w novell -n
E. login -s 10.0.0.1 -p 8008 -u admin.slc.digitalair -w novell -n
Answer: E

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NO.27 Which replica type can fill original requests for object changes but passes off all partition
requests?
A. Master
B. Read/write
C. Read-only
D. Subordinate reference
Answer: B

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NO.28 You are the system administrator for the SLC DigitalAir container. You are creating some
new user objects in this container. Which statements are true regarding the eDirectory
rights for these new users? (Choose two.)
A. The rights for the SLC.DigitalAir container has to itself will affect the new users.
B. The default rights granted to the new users depends on the tool used to create them.
C. The new users will not have any eDirectory rights unless they are manually assigned.
D. Tue new users will not have any eDirectory rights unless they are created with a template.
E. The schema information for the user class will grant the new users some default eDirectory
rights.
F. The new users will not have any eDirectory rights unless they are created with a template or
have rights manually assigned.
Answer: B, F

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NO.29 Which utilities can be used to view the schema synchronization process? (Choose two.)
A. iMonitor
B. iManager
C. ConsoleOne
D. MONITOR.NLM
E. DSTRACE.NLM
Answer: A, E

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NO.30 In an eDirectory 8.7 environment, the capabilities of which utilities are included in
iManager? (Choose two.)
A. DSVIEW
B. DSTRACE
C. DSMERGE
D. DSREPAIR
E. DSBROWSE
Answer: C, D

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Exam Code: 00M-642
Exam Name: IBM (ICS Social Software Sales Mastery Test v2)
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Total Q&A: 47 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-01

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NO.1 Three key attributes to focus on for designing for reputation and risk management are: have a plan, be
proactive and fast, and __________________.
A. ensure that strategies are pushed down into the organization
B. limit access to social media site by employees and partners
C. do not respond to negative statements in social media sites
D. be transparent with two-way dialog
Answer: A

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NO.2 What design theme allows IBM Connections to be plugged in and accessed from a variety of different
software and mobile products?
A. Social everywhere
B. Idea center
C. Social forums
D. Blogs
Answer: A

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NO.3 What are the five IT eras that are listed as transformational technologies in IT?
A. Hardware, Database, Software, Web 2.0, XML
B. Mainframe, Departmental, PCs, Internet, Social
C. Vacuum tube, Transistor, RAM, vRAM, Quantum Effect
D. Fortran, COBOL, Basic, C++, Java
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is another characteristic of a Social Business other than being engaging and nimble?
A. Technically strong
B. Has a strong presence in the Internet
C. Transparent
D. Informal
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is happening to an organization s business network?
A. Changing from the ground up
B. Creating new sales potentials
C. Delivering on new promised Web 2.0 ideas
D. Related computer systems are only involved
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-578
Exam Name: IBM (Fundamentals of Applying Tivoli Service Availability and Performance Management Solutions V3 )
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NO.1 What is a good way to identify personnel in an IT organization when trying to determine key decision
makers?
A. Determine who is able to get their tasks done the most quickly
B. Determine who gets the most important tasks in the organization
C. Identify if any staff members are always available during interviews
D. Identify the staff members who have been at the organization the longest
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which IBM product can receive events from Nagios and open tickets in HP Service Desk?
A. IBM Tivoli Monitoring
B. IBM Tivoli Netcool/Impact
C. IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus
D. IBM Tivoli Composite Application Manager for Applications
Answer: C

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NO.3 A customer's business is comprised of multiple sites located across the United States. Each location
specializes in supporting a different part of the infrastructure while sharing the responsibility for supporting
all business services offered by the organization.
What is the best approach to identify the project goals from key decision makers?
A. Align the customer requirements with the strategic vision of the project sponsors.
B. Recommend a service oriented approach for identifying the project goals across the organization.
C. Map the tool capabilities from each business location to the project goals identified by the decision
makers.
D. Interview the decision makers from locations across the organization to ensure all perspectives are
taken into consideration.
Answer: B

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NO.4 When designing a Service Availability and Performance Management solution for a new customer,
which two steps should be taken to ensure current staff will be able to support the new products? (Choose
two.)
A. Design a skills matrix that identifies any training gaps
B. Develop a skill set questionnaire based on ITIL standards
C. Identify the skill sets required for each of the new products
D. Create a test to assess support skills for the new products
E. Develop a custom application support education module for the new products
Answer: B,C

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NO.5 A customer currently leverages IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus, various probes, and IBM Tivoli
Netcool/Impact as part of their monitoring solution. They want to add dashboards and service views to
their environment so that they can better monitor the health of their services and determine the root cause
of any incidents in a proactive way.
The customer has no prior experience with IBM Tivoli Business Service Manager and has not yet
leveraged the dashboard functionality within IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus Web GUI. They want to
understand the product capabilities in their environment before they make a decision on their solution
toolset.
Which presentation methodology would be best suited for the customer?
A. White boarding session
B. Proof of concept followed by a presentation
C. Live demonstration of a controlled test environment
D. Microsoft PowerPoint presentation with dashboard and service view screenshots
Answer: B

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NO.6 A customer is trying to find out the response time for each component of a composite application.
There seems to be an issue with the IBM WebSphere server getting slow response times on select
statements to IBM DB2. Which two IBM solutions will help diagnose the problem? (Choose two.)
A. IBM Tivoli Monitoring for Database Agent
B. IBM Tivoli Monitoring for Web Response Time
C. IBM Tivoli Composite Application Manager for Transactions
D. IBM Tivoli Composite Application Manager for Web Resources
E. IBM Tivoli Composite Application Manager for Web Response Time
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 What is an example of a security and identity management software architecture?
A. Web Proxy
B. Virtual Private Network
C. Public Key Infrastructure D. Secure Hypertext Transfer Protocol
Answer: C

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NO.8 Acme Corporation's (ACME) core business is to provide electronic payment services to financial
institutions and companies worldwide. They serve clients worldwide with local offices in the Americas,
EMEA, and Asia Pacific. There are data centers located in North America, South America, China, and
Italy.
One of ACME'S core services is credit card transaction processing (CCTP). At the core of CCTP are
multiple clusters of application servers running IBM WebSphere. Transactions are stored in a database
environment running on the mainframe. There are additional distributed databases to the application
running on Oracle and MS SQL. The clusters of application servers are distributed throughout the data
centers. The customers' clients connect to the environment Web-based services such as SOAP, and
message queues such as IBM WebSphere MQ. In addition the client hosts dedicated CCTP
environments for some of its customers.
ACME is experiencing several issues with CCTP. John W. Smith is the Chief Information Officer (CIO)
and has contacted an outside company to possibly assist with addressing these issues. After an initial
kick-off call with John W. Smith, he has identified the following individuals as part of his team that the
outside company will be working with:
Molly Fox - Vice President of Operations
Dennis Boucher- Vice President of Development
Ira Dale - Vice President of Sales
Each of the four data centers has a local operations team which is responsible for maintaining the local
servers, network devices, connections, and commercial off the shelf (COTS) applications that CCTP runs
on. The primary North America data center has the worldwide operations center which is responsible for
worldwide CCTP monitoring (including its own data center) and coordinating with the local operations
teams. It also houses the worldwide helpdesk which provides Level 1 CCTP issue resolution and
coordinates response of all CCTP issues (Level 1-3). CCTP application developers (Level 3) are located
in North America and Ireland.
ACME currently uses Omegamon to monitor the mainframe. HP OpenView, IBM Tivoli NetView and
Nagios to monitor parts of the network, and SMS and BMC Patrol to monitor the distributed environment.
The data center in Italy is currently using IBM Tivoli Monitoring, but it has not been rolled out to CCTP. In
addition, most of the local operations centers use variety of custom scripts and open source programs to
monitor the COTS and CCTP applications. Each of the local data centers has some sort of the central
view of their monitoring, but not all of the monitoring is sending events to the central or worldwide views.
The help desk uses HP Service Manager as its ticketing system.
ACME is experiencing several major issues with CCTP.
The first is that the helpdesks spending too much time in reaction mode (responding to issues after the
fact).
The second is that credit card transaction processing slows down at random intervals. These slowdowns
are usually noticed by the client's customers first (as they violate their Service Level Agreements) and that
the intervals between issues range from hours to weeks.
The third is that there is no central view of the CCTP server and the environment that it runs on.
ACME would also like to take into consideration implementing or migrating all or a portion of their
infrastructure into the cloud.
What is a potential question to ask ACME personnel?
A. What are the configuration parameters of Microsoft SQL?
B. Does the solution need to integrate with any ACME systems?
C. What are the configuration parameters of IBM WebSphere Application Server?
D. What are the configuration parameters of IBM WebSphere Application Server MQ?
Answer: B

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NO.9 A customer has extensive education requirements based on the products being delivered and the
number of personnel being educated. Which two components should be included in the education plan?
(Choose two.)
A. Group travel costs
B. Review white papers and IBM documentation
C. An onsite training plan to cover all delivered products
D. A Web-based education plan to cover all delivered products
E. Schedule training in groups of six to optimize the class size
Answer: C,D

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NO.10 The chief information officer would be mapped into which functional path?
A. IT Manager
B. Implementer
C. Decision Maker
D. Customer Client
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which two systems need to be documented when gathering information for a Service Availability and
Performance Management project? (Choose two.)
A. Storage Systems
B. Event Management Systems
C. Network Management Systems
D. Application Development Systems
E. Environmental Monitoring Systems
Answer: B,C

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NO.12 Which IBM product can be used to open help desk tickets in HP Service Manager based on external
customer data?
A. IBM Tivoli Netcool/Impact
B. IBM Tivoli Netcoot/OMNIbus
C. IBM Tivoli Business Service Manager
D. IBM Tivoli Composite Application Manager for Applications
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which IBM product can replace the functionality of Microsoft SMS?
A. IBM Tivoli Composite Application Manager for Applications
B. IBM Tivoli Composite Application Manager for Transactions
C. IBM Tivoli Composite Application Manager for Microsoft Applications
D. IBM Tivoli Composite Application Manager for Application Diagnostics
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which IBM product provides a visual representation of the status of a company's business lines?
A. IBM Tivoli Monitoring
B. IBM Tivoli Network Manager
C. IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus
D. IBM Tivoli Business Service Manager
Answer: D

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NO.15 After gathering all the information from meeting with the customer it is discovered that the IBM solution
does not meet one of the customer's requirements. What is the next step?
A. Omit this discovery from the gap analysis document.
B. Document this finding in the gap analysis documentation.
C. Find a compromise to the requirement that the customer will accept.
D. Set up a meeting with the customer to reevaluate the customer requirement.
Answer: B

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NO.16 By measuring the factors like flexibility, supportability, performance, and coverage of the application
what will be known about the application?
A. The weakness of the current application
B. The ways one can improve the application
C. The end-to-end solution in which the application is used
D. The Key Performance Indicators and Service Level Agreement of the current application
Answer: A

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NO.17 What is a basic requirement for all project staffing?
A. No vacation for the duration of the project
B. Mandatory overtime if the project delivery slips
C. Skills and expertise directly relevant to the project requirements
D. Certified Information Systems Security Professional certification
Answer: C

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NO.18 A large shipping company currently employs IBM Tivoli Monitoring, IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus. and
the Syslog and MTTrapd probes within their monitoring environment. There is currently a collection layer
Object Server and a single IBM Tivoli Monitoring instance.
The customer wants to deploy IBM Tivoli Netcool/Impact and IBM Tivoli Composite Application Manager
for Internet Service Monitoring to add this functionality to the current monitoring environment:
-Event enrichment and correlation based on data within the CMDB
-Monitoring of DNS and HTTP services
-Auto-ticketing capability through WebServices -TCP port monitoring -Monitoring of LDAP service
availability
Which two statements describe the additional value provided by the monitoring solution described above?
(Choose two.)
A. Closed-loop change management
B. Improvement in mean time to recovery
C. Improved redundancy within the monitoring solution
D. Application transaction response time monitoring will improve
E. New metrics and key performance indicators will be available to identify service performance
Answer: B,E

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NO.19 How are business processes identified?
A. Scope of the software
B. Information gathered from end users
C. Information gathered in stakeholder meeting
D. Interviews with the key personnel that help determine the workflow
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which two tasks should be performed when producing a project plan for a Service Availability and
Performance Management solution? (Choose two.)
A. Create a work breakdown structure
B. Schedule working group meetings for the project
C. Develop a timeline based on a level of effort for each milestone
D. Identify the team members that will be working on the solution
E. Develop a system to identify milestones as the project progresses
Answer: A,C

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Exam Code: 00M-232
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Solutions for Smart Business Sales Mastery Test v1)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 25 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-01

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NO.1 Is it true or false that individual solutions for Smart Business are generally ordered via single part
number, and are installed as a single software package?
A. True. Solutions for Smart Business are completely integrated in one package to allow ease of ordering.
B. False. Solutions for Smart Business require separate part numbers for the solution and Foundation for
Smart Business.
C. True. A single part number can be used except for situations where the customer would like to
exchange parts of the solution for other components.
D. False. Solutions for Smart Business can be ordered as a hardware appliance
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is the value proposition for Business Partners selling Solutions for Smart Business.?
A. Shorter sales cycles with minimal time and investment required - solution sales are repeatable and
require limited customization.
B. Priced right for midsize customers.
C. Offer more pricing flexibility and generate annuity streams from customers who want to utilize usage
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D. All of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.3 How can IBM Solutions for Smart Business be deployed?
A. In Unix or Linux operating environments.
B. On all IBM or any non-IBM hardware.
C. On selected IBM and third Party vendor platforms.
D. In Microsoft Windows Server operating environments.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-015
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Maximo Asset Management V7.1 Implementation)
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Total Q&A: 148 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 What are the three types of meters?
A.Flow, Utility, Rate
B.Condition, Utility, Gauge
C.Continuous, Condition, Rate
D.Continuous, Gauge, Characteristic
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which applications record the history of attribute changes made on the Specifications tab, without
having to use e-Audit as defined in Database Configuration?
A.Asset, Configuration Item
B.Job Plan, Ticket Template
C.Item Master, Service Item, Tool, Job Plan
D.Asset, Location, Item Master, Service Item, Tool
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which record type(s) can belong to a Collection?
A.Users
B.Asset, Location, Item
C.Asset, Location, Configuration Item
D.Asset, Actual Configuration Item, Deployed Asset, Configuration Item
Answer: C

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NO.4 The appropriate status to invoke a Preventive Maintenance (PM) alert has been determined to be in the
Organization application.
What is the Select Action menu item where this can be set?
A.PM options
B.Asset options
C.System settings
D.Work Order options
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is a seasonal-based Preventive Maintenance (PM) record?
A.a PM that defines a period when the PM status is made inactive
B.a PM that defines the specific dates in the future upon which Work Order will be generated
C.a PM with a set of defined days of week or periods of time in a year when the PM is considered active
and is eligible for Work Order generation
D.a PM that defines the days of the week when a Work Order can be generated (for example, Saturday -
Sunday when the production line has stopped)
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which field(s) are hidden on the Asset application and may need the Application Designer in order to
display them?
A.Priority
B.Failure Class
C.Calendar and Shift Number
D.GL Account, Warranty Expiry Date
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which statement about Condition Monitoring is the most accurate?
A.Multiple monitoring points can be created against the same Asset or Location. Before creating these
points, a meter of type Gauge or Characteristic must be defined.
B.Multiple monitoring points can be created against the same Asset. The meter type of these points will
be Gauge. A meter does not need to be created as this is created automatically.
C.Multiple monitoring points can be created against the same Asset. The Asset's current location is
provided as a reference. The point type needs to be specified as Gauge or Characteristic before entering
other details.
D.Multiple monitoring points can be created against the same Asset or Location. As each point is created,
a Gauge type meter for the measurements to be recorded against needs to be created. Characteristic
meters are not set up in Condition Monitoring, but on the Job Plan.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which statement about an Asset hierarchy is correct?
A.Once created, additional children can always be added to the hierarchy from the Spare Parts tab when
the parent Asset is the current record.
B.Once created, additional children can always be added to the hierarchy as long as the parent is a
rotating Asset, it is not decommissioned, and it is not in a storeroom.
C.An Asset hierarchy can be created from rotating and non-rotating Assets and can be set so that the
hierarchy can not be modified from the Spare Parts tab in the Asset application.
D.An Asset hierarchy can only be created from rotating Assets using the action Apply Item Assembly
Structure. The hierarchy can be locked so that it cannot be modified from the Spare Parts tab in the Asset
application.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which Asset fields must have data for the record to be saved to the database?
A.Site, Location, Type
B.Site, Status, Location
C.Site, Status, Asset Up?
D.Status, Location, Failure Class
Answer: C

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NO.10 An attribute is added to a ClassStructure record in the Classifications application.
On which applications will the attribute be copied to existing records that use this classification?
A.Assets, Item, Locations
B.Job Plan, Ticket Template, Item
C.all applications that have a Specifications tab
D.Assets, Item, Job Plan, Preventive Maintenance
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which statement is correct?
A.A condition code can be used on any rotating Asset.
B.A condition code can be added to any type of Asset.
C.A condition code can only be used on a rotating Asset when the item is condition enabled.
D.There is no condition code on an Asset. Condition codes are only associated with items that are
purchased or held in a storeroom.
Answer: C

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NO.12 What is the purpose of a Condition Rate?
A.to create alternate paths in Workflows
B.to assign relative values to inventory items
C.to assign values to personnel for labor purposes
D.to indicate the costs associated with inventory items
Answer: B

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NO.13 Click the Exhibit button.
The diagram in the exhibit shows a dialog box that opens when the Select Value option is selected from
the Asset or Location field on a Service Request. The Filter By field has three options User/Custodian,
Public and All.
In which application can the default for this field be changed?
A.Organizations
B.Service Requests
C.Application Designer
D.Database Configuration
Answer: D

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NO.14 Where are Ticket Templates used?
A.Work Requests
B.Service Requests
C.Desktop Requisitions
D.Work Order Tracking
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which item type(s) can be used as a rotating item on both an Asset and a Location?
A.Item only
B.Item and Tool only
C.Item, Service Item, Tool
D.Item and Service Item only
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which statement is true about a characteristic meter in the Condition Monitoring application?
A.Multiple action values can be entered that belong to an ALN domain. When an action value is recorded,
a Job Plan or a PM is used to generate a Work Order.
B.Multiple action values can be entered that belong to either an ALN or a Numeric domain. When an
action value is recorded, a PM is used to generate a Work Order.
C.An upper limit and a lower limit can be entered. When the last measurement is outside of these limits, a
Preventive Maintenance (PM) can be used to generate a Work Order.
D.When an action value is recorded, a Work Order can be generated using the specified Job Plan. Only
one of the values in the ALN domain can be used as an action value.
Answer: A

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NO.17 What are the three main differences between the functions of the Move/Modify Assets and Swap
Assets actions in the Assets application and the Move/Swap/Modify action in the Work Order Tracking
application? (Choose three.)
A.Future Asset moves can be planned in the Move/Swap/Modify action.
B.Downtime can be applied to multiple Assets in the Move/Modify Assets action.
C.Meter readings for Assets and Locations can be entered in the Move/Swap/Modify action.
D.The specification records of a Location or a Configuration Item can be modified in the
Move/Swap/Modify action.
E.Future changes to the user and custodian records of Assets and Locations can be planned in the
Move/Swap/Modify action.
F.Modifications can be made to the fields, priority, failure class, calendar and shift and changes can be
applied to multiple Assets in the Move/Modify Assets action.
Answer: ADE

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NO.18 Which statement is true about Asset hierarchies?
A.A hierarchy of Assets can only be created by using the actions: Apply Item Assembly Structure and
Move/Modify Assets.
B.There are numerous ways of creating or modifying an Asset hierarchy including planning and then
executing a group of Asset moves from the Ticket-based applications.
C.When creating an Asset, it can be assigned a parent Asset. After the record is saved, the hierarchy can
be created from the Spare Parts tab or the action Move/Modify Assets.
D.Asset hierarchies can only be formed for rotating Assets. The most popular methods of creating the
hierarchy are to use the action Apply Item Assembly Structure and Move/Modify Assets in the Asset
application and Move/Swap/Modify in the Work Order Tracking application.
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which statement is true about the Users and Custodians functionality?
A.Users and Custodians can be created for Assets. A User is someone who uses the Asset. A Custodian
is someone responsible for the care of the Asset. For each person entered, the User field, the Custodian
field or both must be checked. One person can be nominated as the Primary Contact for the Asset.
B.Users and Custodians can be created for Assets and Locations. A User is someone who uses the Asset
or Location. A Custodian is someone responsible for the care of the Asset or Location. For each person
entered, either the User field or the Custodian field or both fields must be checked. One person can be
nominated as the Primary Contact for the Asset or Location.
C.User and Custodians can be created for Assets, Locations and Configuration Items (CIs). The dialog
box has a table window for creating Users and Custodians and another for creating Primary Contacts who
are used for communicating information about the Asset, Location or CI by email or bulletin board. A
person can be a user or a custodian, or both a user and a custodian.
D.Users and Custodians can be created for Assets and Locations. A User is someone who uses the
Asset. A Custodian is someone responsible for the care of the Asset. The Primary Contact is used for
communicating information about the Asset or Location by email or bulletin board. These three fields act
like a radio button, only one of them can be checked on each person record.
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which statement is correct?
A.The classification of a rotating Asset is determined from the classification belonging to its rotating item.
The value of an Asset specification record is always updateable.
B.The classification of a rotating Asset is determined from the classification belonging to its rotating item.
The value of an Asset specification record is determined from the corresponding attribute's value on the
item specification.
C.The classification of a rotating Asset can be entered by the user and the Asset specification is derived
from the classification you enter. The value of an attribute can be entered by the user. There is no
relationship with the item specification.
D.The classification of a rotating Asset is enterable only if its rotating item has no classification of its own.
When the classification has been entered by the user on the Asset, the attribute values are updateable.
Otherwise, they are read-only and are determined from the corresponding attribute's value on the item
specification.
Answer: B

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NO.21 When can Material Receipts be changed if inspection is not required?
A.prior to saving the Receipt Line
B.prior to inspecting the Receipt Line
C.prior to approving the Receipt Line
D.prior to completing the Receipt Line
Answer: A

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NO.22 Where can a Meter Group be referenced?
A.Asset, Location, Rotating Item
B.Asset, Item Master, Service Item, Tools
C.Asset, Location, Preventive Maintenance
D.Asset, Preventive Maintenance, Condition Monitoring
Answer: A

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NO.23 What is a Failure Code hierarchy?
A.Problem, Cause, Remedy hierarchy based on a Work Classification
B.Problem, Cause, Remedy hierarchy based on an Asset Classification
C.Problem, Cause, Remedy hierarchy based on a Failure Classification
D.Problem, Cause, Remedy hierarchy based on a Location Classification
Answer: C

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NO.24 Which statement is correct?
A.Any type of Ticket or Work Order can be created from the Asset, Location and Configuration Item (CI)
applications.
B.A Service Request, Incident, Problem, Work Order, Change or Release in the Assets, Locations and CI
applications can be created.
C.A Service Request or Work Order can be created from the Assets and Locations applications. A Ticket
or Work Order cannot be created from the CI application.
D.Any type of Ticket or Work Order can be created from the Assets and Locations applications, but you
can not create an activity or task. A Ticket or Work Order cannot be created from the CI application.
Answer: B

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NO.25 When creating a purchase contract, what is the purpose of checking the Change Price on Use field?
A.It specifies that the price in the purchase order (PO) is only an estimated price.
B.It specifies that when a PO is issued against this contract, the price must be changed.
C.It specifies that the price of a given related item can be changed on related POs or purchase requests.
D.It specifies that the price of a given item specified in the Master Contract is reduced or increased, based
on market conditions.
Answer: C

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NO.26 Which statement is correct?
A.When creating an Asset, it can be added directly to any storeroom by specifying a Location and rotating
item. The balance in the storeroom is incremented by one.
B.To add a rotating Asset to a storeroom, use the Inventory application and then use the Inventory
Adjustments - Current Balance action to increment the balance by one.
C.When creating an Asset, it can be added directly to a specific site's storeroom by specifying a Location
and rotating item. The balance in the storeroom is incremented by one.
D.When creating an Asset that will be initially held in a storeroom, the user creates the Asset then goes to
the Storeroom application in order to book it into a specific storeroom so that the balance is incremented
by one.
Answer: C

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NO.27 Which three statements are true about using the Move/Modify Assets or Swap Assets actions in the
Assets application? (Choose three.)
A.Any Asset can be moved to any site
B.Multiple Assets cannot be moved to another site in one action.
C.An Asset cannot be moved to another site if the Asset number already exists at that site.
D.Multiple Assets can be moved to the same Location or make these Assets a child of another Asset.
E.A hierarchy of Assets can be moved from one Location to another in the same site by selecting just the
top parent Asset.
F.A hierarchy of Assets can be moved into a storeroom by selecting just the top parent Asset, if all Assets
in the hierarchy are rotating.
Answer: DEF

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NO.28 From which three applications is it possible to create a Work Order? (Choose three.)
A.Assets
B.Routes
C.Job Plan
D.Work View
E.Configuration Items
F.Condition Monitoring
Answer: AEF

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NO.29 Which three objects have rotating records? (Choose three.)
A.Person
B.Assets
C.Locations
D.Job Plans
E.Item Master
F.Service Items
Answer: BCE

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