2013年7月1日星期一

Featured Oracle certification 1Z0-515 exam test questions and answers

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Exam Code: 1Z0-515

Exam Name: Oracle (Data Warehousing 11g Essentials)

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NO.1 Indentify the true statement about REF partitions.
A. REF partitions have no impact on partition-wise joins.
B. Changes to partitioning in the parent table are automatically reflected in the child table.
C. Changes in the data in a parent table are reflected in a child table.
D. REF partitions can save storage space in the parent table.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which is NOT among Oracle SQL Analytic functions included in Oracle Database 11g?
A. Ranking functions
B. Substring functions
C. Window aggregate functions
D. LAG/LEAD functions
E. All of the above
Answer: B

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NO.3 For data warehousing, identify the benefits that would NOT be provided by the use of RAC.
A. Distribute workload across all the nodes.
B. Distribute workload to some of the nodes.
C. Provide parallel query servers.
D. Provide high availability for all the operations.
Answer: C

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NO.4 For which type of query is the SQL result cache automatically disabled?
A. Queries that access data which changes frequently
B. Queries that return large amounts of data
C. Queries that use SQL functions such as SYSDATE
D. Queries that are used infrequently
Answer: C

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NO.5 You want partitions to be automatically created when data that does not fit into current date range
loaded. Which type of partitioning would you implement?
A. Hash
B. List
C. Invisible
D. Interval
Answer: D

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NO.6 Identify the action that you CANNOT perform using Database Resource Manager.
A. Define Consumer Groups.
B. Create rules to map sessions to Consumer Groups.
C. Define a Resource Plan.
D. Allocate individual CPUs to Consumer Groups.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Identify the control structure that would NOT be defined as part of a data flow with Oracle Data
Integrator.?
A. Loops
B. Conditions
C. Error handling
D. GOTOs
Answer: D

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NO.8 You think that result set caching might provide some benefits for your current data warehouse scenario.
You perform some analysis on the composition of the queries used in the scenario. Identify the result of
the analysis that would indicate the most potential for improvement with result set caching.
A. The scenario consists mainly of queries that are used infrequently.
B. The scenario consists mainly of queries that work on data which changes frequently.
C. The scenario consists mainly of queries with long run times and small result sets.
D. All data warehouse scenarios will benefit from result set caching.
Answer: C

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NO.9 How many Exadata Storage Server cells can be used in a grid?
A. 7
B. 14
C. 128
D. No practical limit
Answer: D

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NO.10 You will be implementing a data warehouse for one of your customers. In your design process, which
index type is most likely to be used to improve the performance of some queries where the data is of low
cardinality?
A. Bitmap indexes
B. B*-tree indexes
C. Reverse indexes
D. Invisible indexes
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 1Z0-550

Exam Name: Oracle (JD Edwards EnterpriseOne 9 Configurable Network Computing Essentials)

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NO.1 EnterpriseOne subsystem UBE jobs provide the system the ability to run without interaction and to
avoid the fixed cost of repeated UBE startup overhead. Which of the options would make UBE a
good candidate for the subsystem?
A. Long running jobs
B. Short duration jobs
C. Process intensive jobs
D. Light-weight process jobs
E. High memory usage jobs
Answer: B

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NO.2 Sever Manager provides a unified interface where administrators can view information regarding
EnterpriseOne. What are the three major functions of Server Manager?
A. Check the EnterpriseOne Server Installed Programs
B. Check the EnterpriseOne Server Configurations
C. Check the EnterpriseOne Server OS Patch level
D. Monitor the EnterpriseOne Server Process
E. Monitor the EnterpriseOne Server Task Manager
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.3 ACME is working on setting up security for *PUBLIC, individual users, and roles. What security type
grants permission to run an application regardless of other security settings?
A. Application
B. Action
C. Exit
D. Exclusive Application
E. Tab
Answer: D

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NO.4 When deploying a Full Package to an Enterprise Server, what defines the location of the object
specifications to be used during runtime that the package deployment modifies?
A. The path code spec directory
B. The package spec directory
C. JDE.INI
D. OCM
E. The spec.ini file in the package spec directory
Answer: E

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NO.5 ACME is about to upgrade their Development environment from ERP 8.0 to EnterpriseOne 9.00.
Which pre-upgrade task is NOT recommended by the EnterpriseOne Upgrade documentation?
A. Verify Media Object queue setting in P98MOQUE
B. Generate serialized objects for the development environment
C. Transfer production versions to prototype using UBE R9830512
D. Make sure all work in progress objects have been checked into the development environment
E. Check the modification and merge flags through the Specification Merge Selection application
Answer: D

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NO.6 Regardless of the platform choice, Work with Server Jobs is the key mechanism to review the status of
a UBE job that has been submitted to server. After a job has been submitted, which of the following
configuration option is NOT required for Object Management Workbench (OMW) to function an
administrator cannot do from Work with Server Jobs?
A. Print Jobs
B. Change Job Priority
C. View Logs for Job
D. Terminate Jobs
E. Resubmit a Job
Answer: B

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NO.7 What three object types are promoted via Object Management Workbench (OMW)?
A. UDCs
B. User Overrides
C. Data Dictionary Item
D. Favorites
E. Serialized Objects
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.8 When selecting a Path Code Database as part of the EnterpriseOne Platform Pack installation, which
two get installed on the server.?
A. System/Foundation code
B. Path Code specifications and runtime libraries
C. Database scripts to create and load databases
D. Server Manager Agent
E. Path Code Databases - Central Objects, Business Data, ...
Answer: B,C

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NO.9 What configuration option is NOT required for Object Management Workbench (OMW) to function?
A. Activity Rules
B. User Roles
C. Constants
D. Allowed Actions
E. Save Location
Answer: D

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NO.10 ACME has decided to begin their EnterPriseOne implementation using the Oracle VM Templates for
JDE. Which three types are available for immediate download and quick implementation via e delivery?
A. Enterprise Server
B. HTML Server
C. Portal Server
D. Deployment Server
E. Database Server
Answer: A,B,E

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Exam Code: 1Z0-898

Exam Name: Oracle (Java Platform, Enterprise Edition 6 Java Persistence API Developer Certified Expert Exam)

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NO.1 Entity lifecycle callback methods may be defined in which three classes.? (Choose three)
A.Embedded classes
B.Entity classes
C.Abstract classes
D.Entity listener classes
E.Mapped superclasses
F.Concrete non-entity superclasses
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.2 An application that uses pessimistic locking calls an updateData method that results in a
LockTimeoutException being thrown.What three statements are correct? (Choose three)
A.The current transaction continues.
B.The current statement continues.
C.The current transaction is rolled back.
D.The current statement is rolled back.
E.The LockTimeoutException can NOT be caught.
F.The LockTimeoutException can be caught, and the updateData method retried.
Answer: A,D,F

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NO.3 Consider a persistence application with the following orm.xml:
What will be the effect of the above orm.xml?
A.The access type for only those entities that have not explicitly specified @Access will be defaulted to
field.
B.The access type for all entities in the persistence unit will be changed to FIELD.
C.The access type for allentities specified in this orm.xmlwill be changed to FIELD.
D.The access type for only those entities defined in thisorm-xml for which access is notspecified will be
defaulted to FIELD.
Answer: D

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NO.4 A developer wants to model the grades for a student as a Map<course, integer>.Assume that Student
and Course are entitles, and that grades are modeled by integers.
Which of the following two statements are correct? (Choose two)
A.The developer can model the grades as an element collection in the Student entity.
B.The developer can model the grades as a oneToMany relationship in the Student entity.
C.The mapping for the key of the map can be specified by the @MapKeycolumn annotation.
D.The mapping for the value of the map can be specified by the @Column annotation.
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 A developer is creating an entity which is mapped to a table that has a primary key constraint defined on
two character columns and would like to use mapping defaults as much as possible to simplify the code.
Which two mapping options can be chosen? (Choose two.)
A.Use an @id property that constructs a private field as a concatenation of two columns.
B.Use a separate class to map those two columns and use an @idclass annotation to denote I primary
key field or property in the entity.
C.Use a separate @Embeddable class to map those two columns and use an @EmbeddedId annotation
to denote a single primary key field or property in the entity.
D.Use a separate @Embeddable class to map those two column and add two fields or properties the
entity, each marked as @id, that correspond to the fields or properties in the embeddable class.
E.Use a separate class to map those two columns.Specify that class using @Idclass annotation on the
entity class.Add two fields or properties to the entity, each marked as @Id, that correspond to the fields or
properties in that separate class.
Answer: B,C

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NO.6 A developer has created a deep entity class hierarchy with many polymorphic relationships between
entitles.Which inheritance strategy, as defined by the inheritanceType enumerated type, will be most
performed in this scenario?
A.Single table-per-class-hierarchy (InheritanceType.SINGLE_TABLE)
B.Joined-subclass (inheritanceType.JOINED)
C.Table-per-concrete-class (inheritanceType.TABLE_PER_CLASS)
D.Polymorphic join table (inheritanceType.POLYMORPHIC_JOIN_TABLE)
Answer: C

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NO.7 A developer wrote an entity class with the following method:
Private static Logger logger = Logger.getLogger ( ° m yLogge¡± )
@PrePersist @PreUpdate Public void doA () { Logger.info ( ° ¡± ); } @ P o s t P ersis t @ P o s t U pd ate Pu b l ic v oi
doB () { logger.info ( ° ¡± );
What will the log message contain when an application does the following?
Begins a transaction
Creates the entity
Persists the entity
Commits the transaction
Begins the entity data
Modifies the entity data
Merges the entity
Commits the second transaction
A.A A B B
B.A B A B
C.A B B A B
D.The application will throw an exception because multiple lifecycle callback annotations applied to a
single method.
Answer: B

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NO.8 A developer has created an application managed entity manager.Which statement is correct?
A.A new persistence context begins when the entity manager is created.
B.A new persistence context begins when a new JTA transaction begins.
C.A new persistence context begins when the entity manager is invoked in the context o\ transaction.
D.A new persistence context begins when the entity manager is invoked in the context of a resource-local
transaction.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Given:
Which statement is correct?
A.The method will return TRUE.
B.The method will return FALSE.
C.The method will throw an exception.
D.The order instance will be removed from the database.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Given the following code:
Public void create () {
try {
doA () {
} catch (PersistenceException e) {} try (doB) ();
} catch (PersistenceException e) {}
}
Calling method doA will cause an NonUniqueResultException to be thrown.Calling method doB will cause
an EntityExistsException to be thrown.
What two options describe what will happen when the create method is called within an application ' uses
container managed transactions? (Choose two)
A.Method doB will never be called.
B.The current transaction will continue after doA executes.
C.The current transaction will continue after doB executes.
D.The current transaction will be marked for rollback when doA is called.
E.The current transaction will be marked for rollback when doB is called.
Answer: C,E

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Exam Code: 1Z0-569

Exam Name: Oracle (Exalogic Elastic Cloud X2-2 Essentials)

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NO.1 Which two network channels are necessary to be configured on the admin server?
A. HTTP client channel
B. T3 channel
C. SDP channel
D. EoIB channel
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 In a reference Exalogic topology, all compute nodes _________.
A. Use locally installed application binaries for execution
B. Are subdivided using InfiniBand partitions based on application deployment topology
C. Remotely access software binaries installed on the shared Sun ZFS storage
D. Use SDP for all interprocess communication
Answer: D

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NO.3 If you cannot connect to ILOM over the network, which connection method would you use?
A. USB
B. Serial connection
C. Web
D. SSH
Answer: B

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NO.4 When using OHS and the WebLogic Server proxy plugin with dynamic server lists, what, if any,
configuration is required at the OHS tier when adding additional WebLogic Server instances?
A. OHS must be restarted anduponrestart;the dynamic server list will be automatically updated with newly
added server(s).
B. OHS httpd.conf must be updated with the newly added WebLogic Server(s).
C. Nothing. Newly added WebLogic Server instances are automatically picked up and the plugin is
dynamically reconfigured.
D. The admin server must be restarted when the cluster has been reconfigured. This will, in turn, notify
the web tier (OHS).
Answer: A

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NO.5 In order to scale the WebLogic Server cluster beyond a single computers node, the domain must be
propagated to additional computers nodes. How is this best accomplished?
A. The domain can simply be zipped (using tar, cpio, or jar), copied over, and extracted on the other
computer node.
B. Web logic Server has specific commands like pack.sh and unpack.sh that are designed for this
purpose.
C. The step can be accomplished most easily through the admin server when the second machine is
added to the cluster.
D. With Exalogic Elastic Cloud software, domain propagation is automatic when additional machine is
added to the cluster.
Answer: B

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NO.6 In ILOM, you can configure up to _________ alert rules.
A. 12
B. 20
C. 15
D. 32
Answer: C

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NO.7 In the CLI for the gateway switch, the command [option][option] . . . format of commands is used for
__________ .
A. General hardware administration
B. InfiniBand fabric control and management
C. ILOM access
D. Launching the web interface
Answer: B

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NO.8 When you run the Exalogic Configuration Utility scripts the first time, which three verification steps are
performed? (Choose Three)
A. BOND1 interfaces for all compute nodes
B. ILOM interfaces for all compute nodes
C. ILOM interfaces for storage heads
D. NET0 interfaces for all compute nodes
E. BOND2 interfaces for storage heads
Answer: BCD

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NO.9 Which statement is true about the default cluster configuration of Exaloglc's storage appliance?
A. The default storage pool is assigned to each storage head.
B. The default storage pool is assigned to the passive storage head.
C. A separate storage pool is allocated to each storage head.
D. The default storage pool is assigned to the active storage head.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which three are features of the Sun ZFS Storage 7320 appliance that is used in Exalogic machines?
(Choose Three)
A. Entry level cluster option
B. Multi-protocol support
C. 100 TB of usable capacity
D. Replication and snapshots
E. 80 TB of usable capacity
Answer: A,B,D

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Exam Code: 1z0-151

Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Fusion Middleware 11g: Build Applications with Oracle Forms)

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NO.1 In Forms Builder, the iconic buttons on the form are blank, but when you click Run Form the
form
appears in the browser with Images in the iconic buttons.
What are two things that you can check to track the source of this problem?
A. forms Builder runtime preferences
B. the UI_ICON settinginthe operating system
C. the iconpath settinginthe Forms registry file
D. the UI_ICOM_EXTENSION settinginthe operating system
E. the iconextension settinginthe Forms registry file
F. the FORMS_PATH settinginthe Forms environment file
G. the classpath settinginthe operating system
Answer: B,C

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NO.2 You want to display employee records in tabular format, but the form is not wide enough to
display all
the items in the Employees block. The employee IDs and names of displayed records should always
be
visible, but you want to scroll the additional information as users tab through the Items, the form
should
look like a spreadsheet with the first two columns frozen.
Which canvas types would be most appropriate in this scenario?
A. content canvasina window with a horizontal scroll bar
B. content canvas and multiple tab canvases
C. content canvas and a tab canvas with multiple tab pages
D. content canvas and a stacked canvas with a horizontal scroll bar
E. multiple content canvases
Answer: C

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NO.3 You have created a complex menu structure with several types of menu objects. To which
objects
would you assign menu commands?
A. mainmenus
B. individual menus
C. submenus
D. menu items
E. all of the above
Answer: E

Oracle   1z0-151   1z0-151   1z0-151

NO.4 The Credit_Rating item in the Customers block of an Order Entry form must be restricted to
three
possible values: Good, Poor, or Null (the latter value indicates that the credit rating has not been
determined). Order entry clerks must be able to update this item to any of the preceding three
values.
You want to change the item to a check box labeled "Credit Risk" that should be selected if the
customer
has poor credit, the check box should not be selected if the customer's credit rating is good or
undetermined.
You change the item type to Checkbox, set other properties as shown in the Exhibit, and then run
your
form and insert three records: two with good credit and the check box deselected, and one with
poor
credit and the check box selected. You commit the data and query the records, with the following
result
set: The first two records show an undetermined credit rating, although your intention was to set
the value
to Good for these customers.
What change must you make in the properties of the Credit_Ratinq item to enable values of Good,
Poor,
and Null to be entered?
A. Change theinitial Value property to Good.
B. Change the Check Box Mapping of Other Values property to Not Allowed.
C. Change theinitial Value property to Good and the Value When Unchecked property to Null.
D. Change theinitial Value property to Good and the Chock Box Mapping of Other Valued property
to Null.
E. Change theinitial Value property to Good and the Check Box Mapping of Other Values property to
checked.
F. Change the item type. It is not appropriate to use a check box to enable entry and update of more
than
two valuesinan item.
Answer: E

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NO.5 View the Exhibit.
The Departments table in the database contains four columns. In a new form, you use the Data
Block
Wizard to add all columns to the block, but in the layout Wizard, you choose all columns except
Location_Id to add to the canvas. The Object Navigator and layout Editor appear as shown in the
Exhibit.
You then decide that you do need to display Location_Id on the canvas.
What object must you select before invoking the Layout Editor in re-entrant mode to make this
change?
A. the text item toolinthe Layout Editor
B. Frame 16ineither the Object Navigator or the layout Editor
C. Canvas4ineither the Object Navigatoror the Layout Editor
D. Location_Idinthe Object Navigator
E. the Departments data blockinthe Object Navigator
Answer: D

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NO.6 View the Exhibit.
Iin the Human Resources form shown in the Exhibit, you want to modify the prompts, heights, and
widths
of the Department Id, Manager Id, and Location Id Holds in the Departments data block.
What must you select before invoking the Layout Wizard in reentrant mode to modify these item
properties?
A. Frame5
B. Frames
C. Canvas4
D. the Departments block
E. the DEPARTMENT_ID, MANAGER_ID and LOCATION_ID items
Answer: C

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NO.7 The Orders database table uses Order_id as its primary key. You have written the following
code to use
in the Orders block of a form:
SELECT orders_seq.NEXTVAL
INTO :orders.order_id
FROM SYS.dual;
Which statement is true about this code?
A. If you place thisCodeina trigger that fires when the record isinsertedinto the database, you will
likely
have more gapsinOrderIDs than if you use the sequence as a default value for the item.
B. If you place this codeina trigger, you should ensure that Order_Id hasitsrequiredproperty set to
Yes.
C. If you place this codeina trigger, you should ensure that Order_Id has its Database Item property
set to
No.
D. If the named sequence does not exist, it is automatically created the first time the code is called.
E. You should place this code aina database trigger to minimize the gapsinOrder IDs.
F. You should place this codeinPre-insert trigger to minimize the gapsinOrder IDs.
G. You should place this codeina Post_insert trigger to minimize the gapsinOrder IDs.
Answer: F

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NO.8 You are implementing a JavaBean in a form, the bean has no visible component on the form
when
invoked, the bean displays an input text where users enter a zip code, the bean has a single method
that
returns a short weather forecast for that zip code as a character value.
How can you retrieve that value so that you can display it to the user?
A. Use FBEAN.ENABLE_EVENT to register a listener for the bean event. Obtainthe value of
SYSTEM.CUSTOM_ITEM_EVENTina When-Custom item Event trigger, and then use that value as an
argument to the MESSAGE builtin.
B. Use FBEAN.REGISTER_BEAN as an argument to the MESSAGE builtintoinvoke the bean's method
and return the value as a message displayed to the user.
C. Use FBEAN.REGISTER_BEAN to register the bean, so that when the user enters a zip codeinto the
bean sinput text, the value is automatically displayedinthe bean area item.
D. Use FBEAN.ENABLE_EVENT to register a listener for the bean event. Obtainthe value of
SYSTEM.CUSTOM_EVENT_PARAMETERina When_Custom-item-Event trigger, and then use that
value as an argument to the MESSAGE built-in.
Answer: D

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NO.9 You have created an editor named MyEditor, and you want it to be available to edit the text
item
Product_Description. You can associate the editor with the text item by setting the Editor property
of
Product_Description to MyEditor.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.10 The Order Entry application contains several forms. The inventories form uses an LOV that is
based on
a record group that queries the Warehouses table to return a warehouse ID.
Several of the forms use LOVs that are based on the same query. You decide to centralize the
creation of
the record group to the entry form of the application, which opens all the other forms, for example,
to open
the inventories form, there is a When-Button Pressed trigger on the inventories button with the
following
code;
OPEN _FORM ('inventories');
in a When-New-Form-instance trigger for the entry form, you create the warehouse_rg record
group by
using the CREATE_GROUP_QUERY built in with the following arguments:
('warehouse_rg' , 'SELECT ALL WAREHOUSE.WAREHOUSE_ID, WAREHOUSE.WAREHOUSE_NAME
FORM WAREHOUSE order by warehouse_name);
You also populate the record group in this trigger.
What must you do to make this record group available to the inventories form and the other forms?
A. inthe When-New-Form-instance trigger for the entry form, add a values for the SCOPE argument
of
CREATE_GROUP_QUERY.
B. inthe entry form, move the record group code to the end of the When-Button-Pressed triggers
for the
buttons that open other forms, so that the record group is created and populated immediately after
OPEN_FORM is called.
C. inthe entry form, move the record group code to the beginning of the When-Button-Pressed
triggers for
the button that open other forms, so that the record group is created and populated just before
OPEN_FORM is called.
D. inthe When-Button_Pressed triggers of the entry from the buttons that open other forms, add a
value
for the SESSION argument of OPEN_FORM.
E. inthe other forms, refer to the record group as: global.warehouse_rg.
Answer: A

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NO.11 You have a text item in your form named Object1. You want to create Object2 as an exact
duplicate of
Object1. You want to be able to change the properties of Object2. However if you change Object1,
you do
not want Object2 to change.
Which method of reusing Object1 would be best for these requirements?
A. Copying Object1
B. Subclassing Object1
C. Creating a property class from Object1
D. Putting Object1inan Object library
E. Referencing Object1ina PL/SQL library
Answer: A

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NO.12 When tabbing through items in the Employees form, users should not be able to navigate to
the Salary
text item. If they need to update the item, they will have to explicitly navigate to it by using the
mouse.
Which property setting accomplishes this requirement.?
A. Enabled = Yes; Keyboard Navigable = No
B. Enabled = No; Keyboard Navigable = Yes
C. Enabled = Yes; Keyboard Navigable = Yes
D. Enabled = No; Keyboard Navigable = No
E. Automatic Skip = Yes
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which four types of variables must have their names preceded by a colon when they are
referenced in
trigger code?
A. PL/SQL variables
B. Form items
C. global variables
D. system variables
E. parameters
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.14 The Orders form has four blocks. The Orders and Order_items block are on the CV_Order
content
canvas; the inventories block items are on the CV_inventories content canvas; and Control block
buttons
are on the CV_Buttons toolbar canvas. All buttons have mouse Navigate set to No.
The Order_Items block is a detail of Orders. The inventories block is a detail of Order_Items,
showing the
stock of the selected product.
There is a button in the Control block with a When-Button-Pressed trigger:
IF GET_CANVAS_PROPERTY(:SYSTEM.cursor_item, item_canvas) = 'CV_ORDER' THEN
GO_BLOCK ('inventories')
ELSE
GO_BLOCK('orders');
END IF;
When you run the form and click the button, navigation does not occur, and the form displays the
runtime
error FRM-41053: Cannot find Canvas: invalid ID.
What should you do to correct this problem?
A. Change the sequence of blocksinthe Object Navigator
B. Chang the Mouse Navigator property of the button to yes
C. inthe first line of code, change the built-into GET_ITEM_PROPERTY
D. inthe first line of code, change the system variable to: SYSTEM.CURSOR_CANVAS.
E. inthe first line of code, change the CV_ORDER to lowercase
F. Chang the argument to the GO_BLOCK built-ins to uppercase
Answer: D

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NO.15 To avoid overloading the database during busy times, you decide to restrict the queries that
are
executed on the Orders form so that users query by either Order ID or Customer ID during these
times.
Which trigger is most appropriate for the code to enforce this restriction?
A. When-New-Form-instance
B. When-New-Block-instance
C. On-Query
D. Pre-Query
E. Post-Query
Answer: D

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2013年6月30日星期日

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Exam Code: 650-752

Exam Name: Cisco (Advanced IP NGN Architecture Sales )

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NO.1 What are the three primary developments that influence modern networks.? (Choose three.)
A. social networks
B. location-based services
C. working from the office
D. instant messaging
E. wireline connectivity
F. use of narrowband access networks
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.2 DRAG DROP
Match the terms on the left to the explanations on the right.
Answer:

NO.3 What is the main portal where Cisco Partners can access the tools and resources they need for their
sales and support efforts?
A. Cisco Partner Talent Network
B. Cisco Partner Education Connection
C. Cisco Partner Central
D. Cisco Interoperability Portal
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which two documents comprise a customer transfer of information? (Choose two.)
A. technical high-level overview
B. technical low-level overview
C. optimization tests
D. implementation and testing plan
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 Which three services will be available in the Connected Life at Move service after the deployment of
LTE access technology? (Choose three.)
A. location-based service
B. audio/video streaming
C. VPN
D. QoS
E. gaming
F. remote control of home appliances
Answer: B,E,F

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Exam Code: 642-883

Exam Name: Cisco (Deploying Cisco Service Provider Network Routing (SPROUTE) )

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NO.1 On Cisco IOS XR Software, which set of commands is used to enable the gi0/0/0/1 interface for OSPF
in area 0?
A. interface gi0/0/0/0 ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0 ! router ospf 1 network 10.1.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0
B. interface gi0/0/0/0 ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0 ! router ospf 1 network 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.255
area 0
C. router ospf 1 area 0 interface GigabitEthernet0/0/0/1
D. interface gi0/0/0/0 ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0 ip ospf 1 area 0
E. router ospf 1 address-family ipv4 unicast interface GigabitEthernet0/0/0/1 area 0
F. router ospf 1 address-family ipv4 unicast interface GigabitEthernet0/0/0/1 area 0
Answer: C

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NO.2 When configuring IPv4 and IPv6 IS-IS routing on Cisco IOS XR routers, which three statements are
correct? (Choose three.)
A. By default, a single SPF is used for both IPv4 and IPv6, so the IPv4 and IPv6 topology should be the
same.
B. By default, the IS-IS router type is Level 1 and Level 2.
C. All IS-IS routers within the same IS-IS area must be configured with the same IS-IS routing process
instance ID.
D. By default, metric-style narrow is used.
E. By default, the IS-IS interface circuit type is Level 1 and Level 2.
F. The area IS-IS address-family configuration command is used to specify the IS-IS area address.
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.3 Which four statements are correct regarding IS-IS operations? (Choose four.)
A. By default, Level 1 routers within an IS-IS area do not carry any routing information external to the area
to which they belong. They use a default route to exit the area.
B. Summarization should be configured on the Level 2 routers, which injects the Level 2 routes into Level
1.
C. IS-IS supports "route leaking" in which selected Level 2 routes can be advertised by a Level 1/Level 2
router into Level 1.
D. The IS-IS backbone is a contiguous collection of Level 1 capable routers, each of which can be in a
different area.
E. With IS-IS, an individual router is in only one area, and the border between areas is on the link that
connects two routers that are in different areas.
F. Cisco IOS XR Software supports multitopology for IPv6 IS-IS unless single topology is explicitly
configured in IPv6 address-family configuration mode.
Answer: A,C,E,F

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NO.4 When troubleshooting OSPF neighbor errors, which three verification steps should be considered.?
(Choose three.)
A. Verify if neighboring OSPF interfaces are configured in the same area.
B. Verify if neighboring OSPF interfaces are configured with the same OSPF process ID.
C. Verify if neighboring OSPF interfaces are configured with the same OSPF priority.
D. Verify if neighboring OSPF interfaces are configured with the same hello and dead intervals.
E. Verify if neighboring OSPF interfaces are configured with the same area type.
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.5 Refer to the PE1 router routing table output exhibit.
What is causing the i su 10.1.10.0/24 [115/30] via 0.0.0.0, 00:40:34, Null0 entry on the PE1 router routing
table?
A. The PE1 router is receiving the 10.1.10.0/24 summary route from the upstream L1/L2 IS-IS router.
B. The PE1 router has been configured to summarize the 10.1.10.x/32 IS-IS routes to 10.1.10.0/24.
C. The 10.1.10.0/24 has been suppressed because IS-IS auto-summary has been disabled on the PE1
router.
D. The 10.1.10.0/24 has been suppressed because of a route policy configuration on the PE1 router.
E. The 10.1.10.0/24 has been suppressed because the more specific 10.1.10.x/32 IS-IS routes have
been configured to leak into the IS-IS non-backbone area.
Answer: B

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NO.6 In comparing IS-IS with OSPF, a Level-1-2 IS-IS router is similar to which kind of OSPF router?
A. ASBR on a normal OSPF area
B. ASBR on NSSA
C. ABR on totally stubby OSPF area
D. ABR on stubby OSPF area
E. ABR on a normal OSPF area
Answer: C

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NO.7 What is function of the RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:PE1(config-ospf)#distance Cisco IOS-XR command?
A. To modify the administrative distance of the OSPF routes
B. To modify the default seed metric of the OSPF external routes
C. To modify the OSPF default reference bandwidth
D. To modify the OSPF cost
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which three statements are true regarding the OSPF router ID? (Choose three.)
A. The OSPF routing process chooses a router ID for itself when it starts up.
B. The router-id command is the preferred procedure to set the router ID.
C. If a loopback interface is configured, its address will always be preferred as the router ID over any
other methods.
D. After the router ID is set, it does not change, even if the interface that the router is using for the router
ID goes down. The router ID changes only if the router reloads or if the OSPF routing process restarts.
E. In OSPF version 3, the OSPF router ID uses a 128-bit number.
Answer: A,B,D

Cisco   642-883   642-883 practice test

NO.9 Which two OSPF network scenarios require OSPF virtual link configuration? (Choose two.)
A. to connect an OSPF non-backbone area to area 0 through another non-backbone area
B. to connect an NSSA area to an external routing domain
C. to connect two parts of a partitioned backbone area through a non-backbone area
D. to enable route leaking from Level 2 into Level 1
E. to enable route leaking from Level 1 into Level 2
F. to enable OSPF traffic engineering
Answer: A,C

Cisco   642-883 test answers   642-883   642-883

NO.10 Refer to the OSPF command exhibit.
Which effect does the no-summary command option have?
A. It will cause area 1 to be able to receive non-summarized inter-area routes.
B. It will cause area 1 to not receive any inter-area routes and will use a default route to reach networks in
other areas.
C. It will cause area 1 to not receive any external routes and will use a default route to reach the external
networks.
D. It will convert the NSSA area into a NSSA totally stubby area.
E. It will convert the stubby area into a NSSA.
F. It will disable OSPF auto-summary.
Answer: B

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