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Exam Code: CSSLP
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NO.1 The National Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (NIACAP) is the minimum
standard process for the certification and accreditation of computer and telecommunications systems that
handle U.S. national security information. Which of the following participants are required in a NIACAP
security assessment.?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Certification agent
B. Designated Approving Authority
C. IS program manager
D. Information Assurance Manager
E. User representative
Answer: A,B,C,E

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NO.2 Which of the following roles is also known as the accreditor?
A. Data owner
B. Chief Risk Officer
C. Chief Information Officer
D. Designated Approving Authority
Answer: D

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NO.3 .Which of the following cryptographic system services ensures that information will not be disclosed to
any unauthorized person on a local network?
A. Authentication
B. Integrity
C. Non-repudiation
D. Confidentiality
Answer: D

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NO.4 According to U.S. Department of Defense (DoD) Instruction 8500.2, there are eight Information
Assurance (IA) areas, and the controls are referred to as IA controls. Which of the following are among
the eight areas of IA defined by DoD? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all
that apply.
A. VI Vulnerability and Incident Management
B. Information systems acquisition, development, and maintenance
C. DC Security Design & Configuration
D. EC Enclave and Computing Environment
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.5 DoD 8500.2 establishes IA controls for information systems according to the Mission Assurance
Categories (MAC) and confidentiality levels. Which of the following MAC levels requires high integrity and
medium availability?
A. MAC III
B. MAC IV
C. MAC I
D. MAC II
Answer: D

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NO.6 You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. You are working on a project and the management
wants a rapid and cost-effective means for establishing priorities for planning risk responses in your
project. Which risk management process can satisfy management's objective for your project?
A. Qualitative risk analysis
B. Historical information
C. Rolling wave planning
D. Quantitative analysis
Answer: A

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NO.7 Microsoft software security expert Michael Howard defines some heuristics for determining code review
in "A Process for Performing Security Code Reviews". Which of the following heuristics increase the
application's attack surface? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Code written in C/C++/assembly language
B. Code listening on a globally accessible network interface
C. Code that changes frequently
D. Anonymously accessible code
E. Code that runs by default
F. Code that runs in elevated context
Answer: B,D,E,F

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NO.8 You work as a Network Auditor for Net Perfect Inc. The company has a Windows-based network. While
auditing the company's network, you are facing problems in searching the faults and other entities that
belong to it. Which of the following risks may occur due to the existence of these problems?
A. Residual risk
B. Secondary risk
C. Detection risk
D. Inherent risk
Answer: C

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NO.1 ______________ is a major component of an overall risk management program.
Answer: Risk assessment

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NO.2 A salami attack refers to what type of activity?
A. Embedding or hiding data inside of a legitimate communication - a picture, etc.
B. Hijacking a session and stealing passwords
C. Committing computer crimes in such small doses that they almost go unnoticed
D. Setting a program to attack a website at 11:59 am on New Year's Eve
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which form of media is handled at the Physical Layer (Layer 1) of the OSI Reference
Model?
A. MAC
B. L2TP
C. SSL
D. HTTP
E. Ethernet
Answer: E

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NO.4 Instructions or code that executes on an end user's machine from a web browser is known
as __________ code.
A. Active X
B. JavaScript
C. Malware
D. Windows Scripting
E. Mobile
Answer: E

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NO.5 Trend Analysis involves analyzing historical ___________ files in order to look for patterns
of abuse or misuse.
Answer: Log files

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NO.6 Layer 4 in the DoD model overlaps with which layer(s) of the
OSI model?
A. Layer 7 - Application Layer
B. Layers 2, 3, & 4 - Data Link, Network, and Transport Layers
C. Layer 3 - Network Layer
D. Layers 5, 6, & 7 - Session, Presentation, and Application Layers
Answer: D

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NO.7 DES - Data Encryption standard has a 128 bit key and is very difficult to break.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.8 The ability to identify and audit a user and his / her actions is known as ____________.
A. Journaling
B. Auditing
C. Accessibility
D. Accountability
E. Forensics
Answer: D

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NO.9 A Security Reference Monitor relates to which DoD security
standard?
A. LC3
B. C2
C. D1
D. L2TP
E. None of the items listed
Answer: B

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NO.10 There are 5 classes of IP addresses available, but only 3 classes are in common use today,
identify the three: (Choose three)
A. Class A: 1-126
B. Class B: 128-191
C. Class C: 192-223
D. Class D: 224-255
E. Class E: 0.0.0.0 - 127.0.0.1
Answer: A, B, C

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NO.11 A standardized list of the most common security weaknesses and exploits is the
__________.
A. SANS Top 10
B. CSI/FBI Computer Crime Study
C. CVE - Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures
D. CERT Top 10
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which of the concepts best describes Availability in relation to
computer resources?
A. Users can gain access to any resource upon request (assuming they have proper permissions)
B. Users can make authorized changes to data
C. Users can be assured that the data content has not been altered
D. None of the concepts describes Availability properly
Answer: A

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NO.13 When an employee leaves the company, their network access account should be
__________?
Answer: Disable

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NO.14 Cable modems are less secure than DSL connections because cable modems are shared
with other subscribers?
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.15 Is the person who is attempting to log on really who they say they are? What form of access
control does this questions stem from?
A. Authorization
B. Authentication
C. Kerberos
D. Mandatory Access Control
Answer: B

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NO.16 What is the main difference between computer abuse and
computer crime?
A. Amount of damage
B. Intentions of the perpetrator
C. Method of compromise
D. Abuse = company insider; crime = company outsider
Answer: B

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NO.17 If Big Texastelephone company suddenly started billing you for caller ID and call
forwarding without your permission, this practice is referred to as __________________.
Answer: Cramming

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NO.18 _____ is the authoritative entity which lists port assignments
A. IANA
B. ISSA
C. Network Solutions
D. Register.com
E. InterNIC
Answer: A

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NO.19 An attempt to break an encryption algorithm is called _____________.
Answer: Cryptanalysis

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NO.20 Wiretapping is an example of a passive network attack?
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.21 Passwords should be changed every ________ days at a minimum.
90 days is the recommended minimum, but some resources will tell you that 30-60 days is
ideal.
Answer: 90

NO.22 The act of intercepting the first message in a public key exchange and substituting a bogus key
for the original key is an example of which style of attack?
A. Spoofing
B. Hijacking
C. Man In The Middle
D. Social Engineering
E. Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS)
Answer: C

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NO.23 IKE - Internet Key Exchange is often used in conjunction with
what security standard?
A. SSL
B. OPSEC
C. IPSEC
D. Kerberos
E. All of the above
Answer: C

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NO.24 One method that can reduce exposure to malicious code is to run
applications as generic accounts with little or no privileges.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.25 What are some of the major differences of Qualitative vs. Quantitative methods of performing
risk analysis? (Choose all that apply)
A. Quantitative analysis uses numeric values
B. Qualitative analysis uses numeric values
C. Quantitative analysis is more time consuming
D. Qualitative analysis is more time consuming
E. Quantitative analysis is based on Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) formulas
F. Qualitative analysis is based on Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) formulas
Answer: A, C, E

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NO.26 The ultimate goal of a computer forensics specialist is to ___________________.
A. Testify in court as an expert witness
B. Preserve electronic evidence and protect it from any alteration
C. Protect the company's reputation
D. Investigate the computer crime
Answer: B

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NO.27 Multi-partite viruses perform which functions?
A. Infect multiple partitions
B. Infect multiple boot sectors
C. Infect numerous workstations
D. Combine both boot and file virus behavior
Answer: D

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NO.28 HTTP, FTP, SMTP reside at which layer of the OSI model?
A. Layer 1 - Physical
B. Layer 3 - Network
C. Layer 4 - Transport
D. Layer 7 - Application
E. Layer 2 - Data Link
Answer: D

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NO.29 ____________ is a file system that was poorly designed and has numerous security flaws.
A. NTS
B. RPC
C. TCP
D. NFS
E. None of the above
Answer: D

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NO.30 What security principle is based on the division of job responsibilities - designed to prevent
fraud?
A. Mandatory Access Control
B. Separation of Duties
C. Information Systems Auditing
D. Concept of Least Privilege
Answer: B

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Exam Name: ISC (CISSP-ISSEP - Information Systems Security Engineering Professional)
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NO.1 Which of the following documents is defined as a source document, which is most useful for the ISSE
when classifying the needed security functionality
A. Information Protection Policy (IPP)
B. IMM
C. System Security Context
D. CONOPS
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following types of firewalls increases the security of data packets by remembering the state
of connection at the network and the session layers as they pass through the filter
A. Stateless packet filter firewall
B. PIX firewall
C. Stateful packet filter firewall
D. Virtual firewall
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following elements of Registration task 4 defines the system's external interfaces as well
as the purpose of each external interface, and the relationship between the interface and the system
A. System firmware
B. System software
C. System interface
D. System hardware
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following documents were developed by NIST for conducting Certification & Accreditation
(C&A) Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. NIST Special Publication 800-59
B. NIST Special Publication 800-60
C. NIST Special Publication 800-37A
D. NIST Special Publication 800-37
E. NIST Special Publication 800-53
F. NIST Special Publication 800-53A
Answer: A,B,D,E,F

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NO.5 Which of the following guidelines is recommended for engineering, protecting, managing, processing,
and controlling national security and sensitive (although unclassified) information
A. Federal Information Processing Standard (FIPS)
B. Special Publication (SP)
C. NISTIRs (Internal Reports)
D. DIACAP by the United States Department of Defense (DoD)
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following email lists is written for the technical audiences, and provides weekly
summaries of security issues, new vulnerabilities, potential impact, patches and workarounds, as well as
the actions recommended to mitigate risk
A. Cyber Security Tip
B. Cyber Security Alert
C. Cyber Security Bulletin
D. Technical Cyber Security Alert
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following federal laws is designed to protect computer data from theft
A. Federal Information Security Management Act (FISMA)
B. Computer Fraud and Abuse Act (CFAA)
C. Government Information Security Reform Act (GISRA)
D. Computer Security Act
Answer: B

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NO.8 FITSAF stands for Federal Information Technology Security Assessment Framework. It is a
methodology for assessing the security of information systems. Which of the following FITSAF levels
shows that the procedures and controls are tested and reviewed?
A. Level 4
B. Level 5
C. Level 1
D. Level 2
E. Level 3
Answer: A

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NO.9 Part of your change management plan details what should happen in the change control system for
your project. Theresa, a junior project manager, asks what the configuration management activities are
for scope changes. You tell her that all of the following are valid configuration management activities
except for which one
A. Configuration Item Costing
B. Configuration Identification
C. Configuration Verification and Auditing
D. Configuration Status Accounting
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following professionals plays the role of a monitor and takes part in the organization's
configuration management process
A. Chief Information Officer
B. Authorizing Official
C. Common Control Provider
D. Senior Agency Information Security Officer
Answer: C

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NO.11 The Phase 4 of DITSCAP C&A is known as Post Accreditation. This phase starts after the system has
been accredited in Phase 3. What are the process activities of this phase Each correct answer represents
a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Security operations
B. Continue to review and refine the SSAA
C. Change management
D. Compliance validation
E. System operations
F. Maintenance of the SSAA
Answer: A,C,D,E,F

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NO.12 Which of the following elements are described by the functional requirements task Each correct
answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Coverage
B. Accuracy
C. Quality
D. Quantity
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.13 Which of the following processes culminates in an agreement between key players that a system in its
current configuration and operation provides adequate protection controls
A. Certification and accreditation (C&A)
B. Risk Management
C. Information systems security engineering (ISSE)
D. Information Assurance (IA)
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which of the following is a type of security management for computers and networks in order to identify
security breaches.?
A. IPS
B. IDS
C. ASA
D. EAP
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which of the following protocols is used to establish a secure terminal to a remote network device
A. WEP
B. SMTP
C. SSH
D. IPSec
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which of the following professionals is responsible for starting the Certification & Accreditation (C&A)
process
A. Authorizing Official
B. Information system owner
C. Chief Information Officer (CIO)
D. Chief Risk Officer (CRO)
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which of the following security controls is a set of layered security services that address
communications and data security problems in the emerging Internet and intranet application space
A. Internet Protocol Security (IPSec)
B. Common data security architecture (CDSA)
C. File encryptors
D. Application program interface (API)
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which of the following is used to indicate that the software has met a defined quality level and is ready
for mass distribution either by electronic means or by physical media
A. ATM
B. RTM
C. CRO
D. DAA
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which of the following tasks obtains the customer agreement in planning the technical effort
A. Task 9
B. Task 11
C. Task 8
D. Task 10
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which of the following Security Control Assessment Tasks gathers the documentation and supporting
materials essential for the assessment of the security controls in the information system
A. Security Control Assessment Task 4
B. Security Control Assessment Task 3
C. Security Control Assessment Task 1
D. Security Control Assessment Task 2
Answer: C

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Exam Code: CISSP-ISSAP
Exam Name: ISC (CISSP-ISSAP - Information Systems Security Architecture Professional)
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Total Q&A: 237 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-02

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NO.1 Which of the following statements about a stream cipher are true? Each correct answer represents a
complete solution. Choose three.
A. It typically executes at a higher speed than a block cipher.
B. It divides a message into blocks for processing.
C. It typically executes at a slower speed than a block cipher.
D. It divides a message into bits for processing.
E. It is a symmetric key cipher.
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.2 Which of the following elements of planning gap measures the gap between the total potential for the
market and the actual current usage by all the consumers in the market?
A. Project gap
B. Product gap
C. Competitive gap
D. Usage gap
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following does PEAP use to authenticate the user inside an encrypted tunnel? Each
correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. GTC
B. MS-CHAP v2
C. AES
D. RC4
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 You are the Security Consultant advising a company on security methods. This is a highly secure
location that deals with sensitive national defense related data. They are very concerned about physical
security as they had a breach last month. In that breach an individual had simply grabbed a laptop and
ran out of the building. Which one of the following would have been most effective in preventing this?
A. Not using laptops.
B. Keeping all doors locked with a guard.
C. Using a man-trap.
D. A sign in log.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following security devices is presented to indicate some feat of service, a special
accomplishment, a symbol of authority granted by taking an oath, a sign of legitimate employment or
student status, or as a simple means of identification?
A. Sensor
B. Alarm
C. Motion detector
D. Badge
Answer: D

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NO.6 IPsec VPN provides a high degree of data privacy by establishing trust points between communicating
devices and data encryption. Which of the following encryption methods does IPsec VPN use? Each
correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. MD5
B. LEAP
C. AES
D. 3DES
Answer: C,D

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NO.7 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. He wants users to access only those resources
that are required for them. Which of the following access control models will he use?
A. Policy Access Control
B. Mandatory Access Control
C. Discretionary Access Control
D. Role-Based Access Control
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following terms refers to a mechanism which proves that the sender really sent a
particular message?
A. Integrity
B. Confidentiality
C. Authentication
D. Non-repudiation
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of the following types of attack can be used to break the best physical and logical security
mechanism to gain access to a system?
A. Social engineering attack
B. Cross site scripting attack
C. Mail bombing
D. Password guessing attack
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following protocols multicasts messages and information among all member devices in an
IP multicast group?
A. ARP
B. ICMP
C. TCP
D. IGMP
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which of the following is used to authenticate asymmetric keys?
A. Digital signature
B. MAC Address
C. Demilitarized zone (DMZ)
D. Password
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which of the following types of firewall functions at the Session layer of OSI model?
A. Circuit-level firewall
B. Application-level firewall
C. Packet filtering firewall
D. Switch-level firewall
Answer: A

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NO.13 You want to implement a network topology that provides the best balance for regional topologies in
terms of the number of virtual circuits, redundancy, and performance while establishing a WAN network.
Which of the following network topologies will you use to accomplish the task?
A. Bus topology
B. Fully meshed topology
C. Star topology
D. Partially meshed topology
Answer: D

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NO.14 A user is sending a large number of protocol packets to a network in order to saturate its resources and
to disrupt connections to prevent communications between services. Which type of attack is this?
A. Denial-of-Service attack
B. Vulnerability attack
C. Social Engineering attack
D. Impersonation attack
Answer: A

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NO.15 Peter works as a Network Administrator for Net World Inc. The company wants to allow remote users to
connect and access its private network through a dial-up connection via the Internet. All the data will be
sent across a public network. For security reasons, the management wants the data sent through the
Internet to be encrypted. The company plans to use a Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP) connection.
Which communication protocol will Peter use to accomplish the task?
A. IP Security (IPSec)
B. Microsoft Point-to-Point Encryption (MPPE)
C. Pretty Good Privacy (PGP)
D. Data Encryption Standard (DES)
Answer: A

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NO.16 Adam works as a Security Analyst for Umbrella Inc. CEO of the company ordered him to implement
two-factor authentication for the employees to access their networks. He has told him that he would like to
use some type of hardware device in tandem with a security or identifying pin number. Adam decides to
implement smart cards but they are not cost effective. Which of the following types of hardware devices
will Adam use to implement two-factor authentication?
A. Biometric device
B. One Time Password
C. Proximity cards
D. Security token
Answer: D

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NO.17 You work as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company wants to encrypt its e-mails. Which
of the following will you use to accomplish this?
A. PGP
B. PPTP
C. IPSec
D. NTFS
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which of the following is a method for transforming a message into a masked form, together with a way
of undoing the transformation to recover the message?
A. Cipher
B. CrypTool
C. Steganography
D. MIME
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which of the following terms refers to the method that allows or restricts specific types of packets from
crossing over the firewall.?
A. Hacking
B. Packet filtering
C. Web caching
D. Spoofing
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which of the following protocols is an alternative to certificate revocation lists (CRL) and allows the
authenticity of a certificate to be immediately verified?
A. RSTP
B. SKIP
C. OCSP
D. HTTP
Answer: C

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Exam Code: CISSP
Exam Name: ISC (Certified Information Systems Security Professional )
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Total Q&A: 2137 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-22

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NO.1 Most computer attacks result in violation of which of the following security properties?
A. Availability
B. Confidentiality
C. Integrity and control
D. All of the choices.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following defines the intent of a system security policy?
A. A definition of the particular settings that have been determined to provide optimum security.
B. A brief, high-level statement defining what is and is not permitted during the operation of the system.
C. A definition of those items that must be excluded on the system.
D. A listing of tools and applications that will be used to protect the system.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which must bear the primary responsibility for determining the level of protection needed
for information systems resources?
A.) IS security specialists
B.) Senior Management
C.) Seniors security analysts
D.) system auditors
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which one of the following is the MOST crucial link in the computer security chain?
A. Access controls
B. People
C. Management
D. Awareness programs
Answer: C

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NO.5 When developing an information security policy, what is the FIRST step that should be taken?
A. Obtain copies of mandatory regulations.
B. Gain management approval.
C. Seek acceptance from other departments.
D. Ensure policy is compliant with current working practices.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Why must senior management endorse a security policy?
A. So that they will accept ownership for security within the organization.
B. So that employees will follow the policy directives.
C. So that external bodies will recognize the organizations commitment to security.
D. So that they can be held legally accountable.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which one of the following is an important characteristic of an information security policy?
A. Identifies major functional areas of information.
B. Quantifies the effect of the loss of the information.
C. Requires the identification of information owners.
D. Lists applications that support the business function.
Answer: A

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NO.8 An area of the Telecommunications and Network Security domain that directly affects the
Information Systems Security tenet of Availability can be defined as:
A.) Netware availability
B.) Network availability
C.) Network acceptability
D.) Network accountability
Answer: B

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NO.9 In an organization, an Information Technology security function should:
A.) Be a function within the information systems functions of an organization
B.) Report directly to a specialized business unit such as legal, corporate security or insurance
C.) Be lead by a Chief Security Officer and report directly to the CEO
D.) Be independent but report to the Information Systems function
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which one of the following statements describes management controls that are instituted to
implement a security policy?
A. They prevent users from accessing any control function.
B. They eliminate the need for most auditing functions.
C. They may be administrative, procedural, or technical.
D. They are generally inexpensive to implement.
Answer: C

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NO.11 The Structures, transmission methods, transport formats, and security measures that are
used to provide integrity, availability, and authentication, and confidentiality for
transmissions over private and public communications networks and media includes:
A.) The Telecommunications and Network Security domain
B.) The Telecommunications and Netware Security domain
C.) The Technical communications and Network Security domain
D.) The Telnet and Security domain
Answer: A

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NO.12 Network Security is a
A.) Product
B.) protocols
C.) ever evolving process
D.) quick-fix solution
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which one of the following is NOT a fundamental component of a Regulatory Security Policy?
A. What is to be done.
B. When it is to be done.
C. Who is to do it.
D. Why is it to be done
Answer: C

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NO.14 A security policy would include all of the following EXCEPT
A. Background
B. Scope statement
C. Audit requirements
D. Enforcement
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which of the following choices is NOT part of a security policy?
A.) definition of overall steps of information security and the importance of security
B.) statement of management intend, supporting the goals and principles of information security
C.) definition of general and specific responsibilities for information security management
D.) description of specific technologies used in the field of information security
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which of the following embodies all the detailed actions that personnel are required to
follow?
A.) Standards
B.) Guidelines
C.) Procedures
D.) Baselines
Answer: C

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NO.17 A significant action has a state that enables actions on an ADP system to be traced to individuals
who may then be held responsible. The action does NOT include:
A. Violations of security policy.
B. Attempted violations of security policy.
C. Non-violations of security policy.
D. Attempted violations of allowed actions.
Answer: D

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NO.18 What are the three fundamental principles of security?
A.) Accountability, confidentiality, and integrity
B.) Confidentiality, integrity, and availability
C.) Integrity, availability, and accountability
D.) Availability, accountability, and confidentiality
Answer: B

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NO.19 Ensuring the integrity of business information is the PRIMARY concern of
A. Encryption Security
B. Procedural Security.
C. Logical Security
D. On-line Security
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which of the following department managers would be best suited to oversee the
development of an information security policy?
A.) Information Systems
B.) Human Resources
C.) Business operations
D.) Security administration
Answer: C

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NO.21 Which of the following describes elements that create reliability and stability in networks
and systems and which assures that connectivity is accessible when needed?
A.) Availability
B.) Acceptability
C.) Confidentiality
D.) Integrity
Answer: A

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NO.22 Which of the following would be the first step in establishing an information security
program?
A.) Adoption of a corporate information security policy statement
B.) Development and implementation of an information security standards manual
C.) Development of a security awareness-training program
D.) Purchase of security access control software
Answer: A

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NO.23 Making sure that the data is accessible when and where it is needed is which of the
following?
A.) Confidentiality
B.) integrity
C.) acceptability
D.) availability
Answer: D

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NO.24 All of the following are basic components of a security policy EXCEPT the
A. definition of the issue and statement of relevant terms.
B. statement of roles and responsibilities
C. statement of applicability and compliance requirements.
D. statement of performance of characteristics and requirements.
Answer: D

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NO.25 Which one of the following should NOT be contained within a computer policy?
A. Definition of management expectations.
B. Responsibilities of individuals and groups for protected information.
C. Statement of senior executive support.
D. Definition of legal and regulatory controls.
Answer: B

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NO.26 Which of the following prevents, detects, and corrects errors so that the integrity,
availability, and confidentiality of transactions over networks may be maintained?
A.) Communications security management and techniques
B.) Networks security management and techniques
C.) Clients security management and techniques
D.) Servers security management and techniques
Answer: A

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NO.27 What is the function of a corporate information security policy?
A. Issue corporate standard to be used when addressing specific security problems.
B. Issue guidelines in selecting equipment, configuration, design, and secure operations.
C. Define the specific assets to be protected and identify the specific tasks which must be completed to
secure them.
D. Define the main security objectives which must be achieved and the security framework to meet
business
objectives.
Answer: D

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NO.28 Security is a process that is:
A. Continuous
B. Indicative
C. Examined
D. Abnormal
Answer: A

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NO.29 Which of the following are objectives of an information systems security program?
A. Threats, vulnerabilities, and risks
B. Security, information value, and threats
C. Integrity, confidentiality, and availability.
D. Authenticity, vulnerabilities, and costs.
Answer: C

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NO.30 In which one of the following documents is the assignment of individual roles and
responsibilities MOST appropriately defined?
A. Security policy
B. Enforcement guidelines
C. Acceptable use policy
D. Program manual
Answer: C

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