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2014年10月1日星期三

MB0-001 Training online, MB0-001 Free download

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Exam Code: MB0-001
Exam Name: CompTIA Mobility+ Certification Exam
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Last Update: 2014-10-01

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NO.1 During the e-discovery process, a litigation hold has been placed on information stored in
several areas, including the mobile device of the Chief Financial Officer (CFO). Which of the
following
A. Review logging on the device and connecting MDM server
B. Isolate the device and apply chain of custody controls
C. Encrypt information stored internally on the device
D. Hash information stored on the device
Answer: D

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NO.2 Ann, a user, called to report an issue related to authenticating to her mobile device. After
resolving the issue, which of the following is the FINAL task that should be completed by the
mobility administrator according to troubleshooting best practices?
A. Establish a theory of probable cause
B. Verify full system functionality
C. Document findings, actions, and outcomes
D. Implement preventative measures
Answer: C

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NO.3 When an application is assigned to a group profile:
A. it is assigned to all administrative users by default.
B. it is assigned to all users in the group.
C. it is removed from all users in the group.
D. it is assigned to all other groups.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Ann, an administrator, is at a tradeshow and wishes to exchange contact information with a
vendor. Which of the following can she use? (Select TWO).
A. IR
B. DMZ
C. NFC
D. DNS
E. CSD
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 Ann, a user, reports that her calendar is always an hour different than actual time. Which of
the following would cause this issue?
A. Calendar sync
B. Time zone
C. Connection to mail server
D. Battery level
Answer: B

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NO.6 An administrator can control network access to enterprise resources using which of the
following?
A. AES encryption
B. SNMP
C. DNS
D. PKI
Answer: D

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NO.7 A solution which tracks and organizes the usage and cost of voice and data is referred to as:
A. TEM.
B. MaaS.
C. SaaS.
D. B2B.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following would be used to enforce a policy requiring two-factor authentication
on certain mobile devices?
A. Username and password
B. Facial recognition and PIN
C. Pattern unlock and password
D. Fingerprint and retina scan
Answer: B

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2014年9月22日星期一

MB0-001 Practice Exam, SY0-401 Study Guide, JK0-022 Practice Exam

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Exam Code: MB0-001
Exam Name: CompTIA Mobility+ Certification Exam
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Last Update: 2014-09-22

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Exam Code: SY0-401
Exam Name: CompTIA Security+ Certification
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Last Update: 2014-09-22

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Exam Code: JK0-022
Exam Name: CompTIA Security+ Certification
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Last Update: 2014-09-22

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NO.1 Pete, a developer, writes an application. Jane, the security analyst, knows some things about
the overall application but does not have all the details. Jane needs to review the software before it
is released to production. Which of the following reviews should Jane conduct?
A. Gray Box Testing
B. Black Box Testing
C. Business Impact Analysis
D. White Box Testing
Answer: A

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NO.2 Jane has recently implemented a new network design at her organization and wishes to
passively identify security issues with the new network. Which of the following should Jane perform?
A. Vulnerability assessment
B. Black box testing
C. White box testing
D. Penetration testing
Answer: A

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NO.3 In the initial stages of an incident response, Matt, the security administrator, was provided
the hard drives in question from the incident manager. Which of the following incident response
procedures would he need to perform in order to begin the analysis? (Select TWO).
A. Take hashes
B. Begin the chain of custody paperwork
C. Take screen shots
D. Capture the system image
E. Decompile suspicious files
Answer: A,D

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NO.4 Which of the following assessments would Pete, the security administrator, use to actively test
that an application's security controls are in place?
A. Code review
B. Penetration test
C. Protocol analyzer
D. Vulnerability scan
Answer: B

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NO.5 Configuring the mode, encryption methods, and security associations are part of which of the
following?
A. IPSec
B. Full disk encryption
C. 802.1x
D. PKI
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following is being tested when a company's payroll server is powered off for
eight hours?
A. Succession plan
B. Business impact document
C. Continuity of operations plan
D. Risk assessment plan
Answer: C

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NO.7 Several bins are located throughout a building for secure disposal of sensitive information.
Which of the following does this prevent?
A. Dumpster diving
B. War driving
C. Tailgating
D. War chalking
Answer: A

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NO.8 Mike, a network administrator, has been asked to passively monitor network traffic to the
company's sales websites. Which of the following would be BEST suited for this task?
A. HIDS
B. Firewall
C. NIPS
D. Spam filter
Answer: C

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2014年8月27日星期三

JK0-022 Training online, SY0-401 Test Questions, MB0-001 Bootcamp

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Exam Code: JK0-022
Exam Name: CompTIA Security+ Certification
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Exam Code: SY0-401
Exam Name: CompTIA Security+ Certification
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Last Update: 2014-08-27

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Exam Code: MB0-001
Exam Name: CompTIA Mobility+ Certification Exam
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MB0-001 Test Questions Total Q&A: 287 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-08-27

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NO.1 In the initial stages of an incident response, Matt, the security administrator, was provided
the hard drives in question from the incident manager. Which of the following incident response
procedures would he need to perform in order to begin the analysis? (Select TWO).
A. Take hashes
B. Begin the chain of custody paperwork
C. Take screen shots
D. Capture the system image
E. Decompile suspicious files
Answer: A,D

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NO.2 Pete needs to open ports on the firewall to allow for secure transmission of files. Which of
the following ports should be opened on the firewall?
A. TCP 23
B. UDP 69
C. TCP 22
D. TCP 21
Answer: C

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NO.3 Several bins are located throughout a building for secure disposal of sensitive information.
Which of the following does this prevent?
A. Dumpster diving
B. War driving
C. Tailgating
D. War chalking
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following is an example of a false positive?
A. Anti-virus identifies a benign application as malware.
B. A biometric iris scanner rejects an authorized user wearing a new contact lens.
C. A user account is locked out after the user mistypes the password too many times.
D. The IDS does not identify a buffer overflow.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following is being tested when a company's payroll server is powered off for
eight hours?
A. Succession plan
B. Business impact document
C. Continuity of operations plan
D. Risk assessment plan
Answer: C

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NO.6 After entering the following information into a SOHO wireless router, a mobile device's user
reports being unable to connect to the network:
PERMIT 0A: D1: FA. B1: 03: 37
DENY 01: 33: 7F: AB: 10: AB
Which of the following is preventing the device from connecting?
A. WPA2-PSK requires a supplicant on the mobile device.
B. Hardware address filtering is blocking the device.
C. TCP/IP Port filtering has been implemented on the SOHO router.
D. IP address filtering has disabled the device from connecting.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Configuring the mode, encryption methods, and security associations are part of which of the
following?
A. IPSec
B. Full disk encryption
C. 802.1x
D. PKI
Answer: A

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NO.8 Pete, a developer, writes an application. Jane, the security analyst, knows some things about
the overall application but does not have all the details. Jane needs to review the software before it
is released to production. Which of the following reviews should Jane conduct?
A. Gray Box Testing
B. Black Box Testing
C. Business Impact Analysis
D. White Box Testing
Answer: A

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2014年7月20日星期日

JK0-022 Actual Test, CV0-001 Exam Dumps, CD0-001 PDF VCE

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Exam Code: JK0-022
Exam Name: CompTIA Security+ Certification
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Exam Code: CV0-001
Exam Name: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam
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Last Update: 2014-07-20

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Exam Code: CD0-001
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NO.1 Which of the following technologies would MOST likely be used for personal use to virtualize a
desktop?
A. Type II
B. Type I
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 0
Answer: A

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NO.2 An administrator is tasked to reduce the company's datacenter power utilization. Currently
there are 500 physical servers in the datacenter and 600 virtual servers with five additional available
host servers. Which of the following should the administrator perform?
A. Migrate servers using V2V technology
B. Perform an offline migration of virtual servers
C. Migrate servers using V2P technology
D. Migrate servers using P2V technology
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following should an administrator perform to harden a VM that has been
provisioned in a public cloud environment before deploying the system?
A. Defrag system
B. Update drivers
C. Disable firewall
D. Patch system
Answer: D

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NO.4 An administrator is creating a new VM template and has a requirement that the OS must be
hardened. Which of the following should be performed to harden a guest OS?
A. Encrypt the hard drive
B. Run defrag
C. Rename administrator account
D. Change page file
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following should an administrator implement when connecting the company's
existing network to a public cloud environment to ensure confidentiality of data that is being
transmitted?
A. A proxy server
B. A load balancing solution
C. An IPSec tunnel
D. A server clustering solution
Answer: C

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NO.6 A company has decided to reduce their datacenter size. An administrator for the company has
been tasked to virtualize many of the company's servers. Which of the following should the
administrator perform to accomplish this goal?
A. P2V
B. P2P
C. V2P
D. V2V
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following is MOST important when factoring network level security in a public
cloud environment?
A. Ensuring good user experience
B. Ensuring confidentiality
C. Ensuring redundancy
D. Ensuring high availability
Answer: B

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NO.8 An administrator needs to provide Internet access to all internal systems using a single IP
address. Which of the following should the administrator implement?
A. NAT
B. Virtual switching
C. VLAN tagging
D. PAT
Answer: A

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2014年7月16日星期三

MB0-001 Training online, JK0-802 Test Answers

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Exam Code: MB0-001
Exam Name: CompTIA Mobility+ Certification Exam
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Exam Code: JK0-802
Exam Name: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam (JK0-802)
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NO.1 A technician is creating an image that will be used to deploy Windows 7 to 100 PCs. Which of
the
following tools should be used to accomplish this?
A. SYSPREP
B. Windows 7 Advisor
C. CHKDSK
D. DISKPART
Answer: A

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NO.2 A customer calls and states the new plasma display they just received has yellow spots all over
the screen. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?
A. Using wrong video connector
B. Dead pixels
C. Dropped in shipping
D. Incorrect installation
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following is an advantage of a virtual machine hosted on a PC?
A. Reduces the training required for employees.
B. Reduces the amount of physical hardware required.
C. Reduces the amount of CPU required on the host PC.
D. Reduces the amount of RAM required on the host PC.
Answer: B

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NO.4 A technician would like to dispose of a hard drive that is no longer needed. According to
company
policy, all contents on the disk should be deleted before disposal. Which of the following OS
command line tools should be used?
A. CHKDSK
B. DEL
C. SCANDSK
D. FORMAT
Answer: D

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NO.5 A user on a domain network cannot install software that they need. Which of the following
user
groups is this user MOST likely associated with?
A. Standard user
B. Guest user
C. Power user
D. Administrator
Answer: A

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NO.6 A user wants to prevent access to specific websites to prevent their children from accidently
accessing them. Which of the following can be implemented?
A. A switch
B. Antivirus software
C. Antispyware software
D. A firewall
Answer: D

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NO.7 A user is reporting their web browser is not going to the site they are attempting to access.
Which
of the following would BEST resolve this?
A. Delete all Internet cookies.
B. Ensure the user is not utilizing a proxy server.
C. Remove all Internet shortcuts.
D. Clear all Internet cache and saved passwords.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following is a new feature of iOS 5?
A. Ability to dual boot the Android OS
B. Ability to run native PC applications
C. Ability to perform iTunes backups
D. Ability to perform untethered updates
Answer: D

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2014年6月29日星期日

CV0-001 Actual Test, JK0-U21 Exam Prep, PK0-003 Exam Dumps

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NO.1 Which of the following should an administrator perform to harden a VM that has been
provisioned in a public cloud environment before deploying the system?
A. Defrag system
B. Update drivers
C. Disable firewall
D. Patch system
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following can be used to encrypt data at rest on a VM located in the cloud?
A. AES
B. SSL
C. TLS
D. VPN
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following should an administrator implement when connecting the company's
existing network to a public cloud environment to ensure confidentiality of data that is being
transmitted?
A. A proxy server
B. A load balancing solution
C. An IPSec tunnel
D. A server clustering solution
Answer: C

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NO.4 An administrator is creating a new VM template and has a requirement that the OS must be
hardened. Which of the following should be performed to harden a guest OS?
A. Encrypt the hard drive
B. Run defrag
C. Rename administrator account
D. Change page file
Answer: C

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NO.5 A company has decided to reduce their datacenter size. An administrator for the company has
been tasked to virtualize many of the company's servers. Which of the following should the
administrator perform to accomplish this goal?
A. P2V
B. P2P
C. V2P
D. V2V
Answer: A

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NO.6 An administrator is tasked to reduce the company's datacenter power utilization. Currently
there are 500 physical servers in the datacenter and 600 virtual servers with five additional available
host servers. Which of the following should the administrator perform?
A. Migrate servers using V2V technology
B. Perform an offline migration of virtual servers
C. Migrate servers using V2P technology
D. Migrate servers using P2V technology
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following technologies would MOST likely be used for personal use to virtualize a
desktop?
A. Type II
B. Type I
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 0
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following is MOST important when factoring network level security in a public
cloud environment?
A. Ensuring good user experience
B. Ensuring confidentiality
C. Ensuring redundancy
D. Ensuring high availability
Answer: B

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2014年3月22日星期六

CompTIA JK0-U11 training and testing

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NO.1 Which of the following types of parental controls is used to limit access to the Internet
contents?
A. Monitoring control
B. Usage management tool
C. Content filter control
D. Bandwidth control
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Content filter control is a type of parental control that is used to limit access to the Internet content.
Answer A is incorrect. Monitoring control is a type of parental control that is used to track locations
nd activities when using the device.
Answer B is incorrect. Usage management tool is a type of parental control that allows parents to
enforce learning time into child computing time.
Answer D is incorrect. There is no parental control such as bandwidth control.

NO.2 Which of the following statements does the UK Parliament state in the Computer Misuse Act
1990? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Unauthorized access to the computer material is punishable by 6 months imprisonment or a fine
"not exceeding level 5 on the standard scale".
B. Personal data shall be adequate, relevant, and not excessive in relation to the purpose or
purposes for which they are processed.
C. Appropriate technical and organizational measures shall be taken against unauthorized or
unlawful processing of personal data and against accidental loss or destruction of, or damage
D. Unauthorized modification of computer material is subject to the same sentences as section 2
offences.
Answer: A,D

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Explanation:
The Computer Misuse Act 1990 is an act of the UK Parliament which states the following statement:
Unauthorized access to the computer material is punishable by 6 months imprisonment or a fine
"not exceeding level 5 on the standard scale" (currently 5000). Unauthorized access with the intent
to commit or facilitate commission of further offences is punishable by 6 months/maximum fine on
summary conviction or 5 years/fine on indictment. Unauthorized modification of computer material
is subject to the same sentences as section 2 offences.
Answer B and C are incorrect. These two statements are stated in the Data Protection Act 1998.

NO.3 Which of the following parts of the computer is built-in to the motherboard?
A. Joystick
B. Mouse
C. Sound card
D. CD-ROM drive
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Sound cards are built-in to the motherboard. Sound card enables the computer to output sound to
audio devices, as well as accept input from a microphone. Most modern computers have sound
cards built-in to the motherboard, though it is common for a user to install a separate sound card as
an upgrade.
Answer D is incorrect. CD- ROM is a device used for reading data from a CD. This device is not built-
in to the mother board.
Answer B is incorrect. Mouse is a pointing device that detects two dimensional motion relative to its
supporting surface. This device is not built-in to the mother board.
Answer A is incorrect. Joystick is a device mostly used in gaming. It consists of a handheld stick that
pivots around one end, to detect angles in two or three dimensions.

NO.4 You need to alter disk partitions in Windows XP prior to upgrade to Windows Vista.
Which Windows utility should you use for this?
A. Disk Defragmenter
B. The Registry
C. Disk Management
D. System Configuration Utility
Answer: C

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Explanation:
The Disk Management tool is used to alter, adjust, and configure partitions.

NO.5 You are selecting memory to put in to a laptop. Which of the following types of RAM chips
would you most likely select?
A. 72 PIN
B. 240 PIN
C. 184 PIN
D. 144 PIN
Answer: D

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Explanation:
Both MicroDIMM and SO-DIMM come in a 144 pin configuration, and are used for laptops.

NO.6 You are working with a team that will be bringing in new computers to a sales department at a
company.
The sales team would like to keep not only their old files, but system settings as well on the new
PC's. What should you do?
A. Do a system backup (complete) on each old machine, then restore it onto the new machines.
B. Copy the files and the Windows Registry to a removable media then copy it onto the new
machines.
C. Use the User State Migration tool to move the system settings and files to the new machines.
D. Use the Disk Management tool to move everything to the new computer.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
The User State Migration Tool is made specifically for this purpose. Large scale migrations require
not only files but system settings to be moved to new machines and Microsoft created this tool for
this purpose.

NO.7 Which of the following statements about a smart card are true? Each correct answer
represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. It is a device that contains a microprocessor and permanent memory.
B. It is used to securely store public and private keys for log on , e-mail signing and encryption, and
file encryption.
C. It is a device that routes data packets between computers in different networks.
D. It is a device that works as an interface between a computer and a network.
Answer: A,B

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Explanation:
A smart card is a credit card-sized device that contains a microprocessor and permanent memory. It
is used to securely store public and private keys for log on, e- mail signing and encryption, and file
encryption. To use a smart card, a computer must have a smart card reader attached with it.

NO.8 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc.
The company has a Windows 2000 domain-based network. A user working on a Windows 2000
Professional client computer reports that he is unable to access some files on the hard disk.
However, he is able to successfully log on and access other files. What should Mark do to resolve
the issue?
A. Instruct the user to log off and log on again.
B. Enable the user account on the computer.
C. Check the file permissions on the hard disk drive.
D. Check the hard disk drive using the SCANDISK utility.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
In order to resolve the issue, Mark should check the file permissions for the user on the hard disk
drive. According to the question, the user is able to access other files on the hard disk. Hence, the
most likely cause of the issue is that the user does not have sufficient privileges on those files.
Answer A is incorrect. Logging off and then logging on will not help resolve the issue.
Answer D is incorrect. Checking the hard disk drive using the SCANDISK utility will not help, as the
issue is related to permissions.
Answer B is incorrect. According to the question, the user is able to successfully log on to the
computer. This indicates that his user account is already enabled. Hence, there is no need to enable
it.

NO.9 Which of the following refers to the data rate supported by a network connection or
interface?
A. Spam
B. Preboot Execution Environment (PXE)
C. Bandwidth
D. Branding
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Bandwidth is a term that refers to the data rate supported by a network connection or interface.
Bandwidth (or digital bandwidth) is a measurement of how much data can be sent in a period of
time. It is a data rate measured in bits. The standard unit of digital bandwidth is bits per second
(bps). In radio communication,
bandwidth (analogue bandwidth) is the range of frequencies occupied by the radio signals. The
standard unit of analogue bandwidth is Hertz (Hz).
Answer D is incorrect. In Web site designing, branding refers to the look and feel of a Web site.
Branding helps in differentiating a site from its competitors and also helps the customer to develop
a relationship with the Web site. The look and feel of a Web site comes through logo, fonts, color
schemes, and symbols used in the Web site. The overall look of the Web site should be consistent.
Answer B is incorrect. Preboot Execution Environment (PXE) is an environment to boot computers
using a network interface independently of available data storage devices like hard disks or installed
operating systems. PXE is also known as Pre-Execution Environment.
Answer A is incorrect. Spam is a term that refers to the unsolicited e-mails sent to a large number of
e-mail users. The number of such e-mails is increasing day by day, as most companies now prefer to
use e-mails for promoting their products. Because of these unsolicited e- mails, legitimate e-mails
take a much longer time to deliver to their destination. The attachments sent through spam may
also contain viruses. However, spam can be stopped by implementing spam filters on servers and
e-mail clients.

NO.10 Which of the following is used by Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) to provide data encryption?
A. IDEA
B. TKIP
C. RSA
D. RC4
Answer: B

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Explanation:
TKIP (Temporal Key Integrity Protocol) is an encryption protocol defined in the IEEE 802.11i standard
for wireless LANs (WLANs). It is designed to provide more secure encryption than the disreputably
weak Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP). TKIP is the encryption method used in Wi-Fi Protected Access
(WPA), which replaced WEP in WLAN products. TKIP is a suite of algorithms to replace WEP without
requiring the replacement of legacy WLAN equipment. TKIP uses the original WEP programming but
wraps additional code at the beginning and end to encapsulate and modify it. Like WEP , TKIP uses
the RC4 stream encryption algorithm as its basis.

NO.11 Which of the following is a file management tool?
A. Windows Explorer
B. Device Manager
C. MSCONFIG
D. Defrag
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Windows Explorer is a file management tool. Windows Explorer is a dual-pane window that can be
used for file management.
File management includes copying, moving, renaming, and searching files and folders.
Windows Explorer displays the resources on the system and the tools available in the operating
system in a hierarchical form, in its left window-pane.
It displays the contents of the folder that is selected in the left window-pane, in its right window-
pane.
Windows Explorer can also be used for starting programs or accessing system resources such as a
printer.
It can be accessed in Windows through the Start menu as follows:
Start>Programs>Accessories>Windows Explorer
Answer B and C are incorrect.
Device Manager and MSCONFIG are system management tools.

NO.12 Which of the following is a circuit board that is used to extend slots for expansion cards and
provides the ability to connect additional expansion cards to the computer?
A. Audio/modem riser
B. Secure Digital (SD) card
C. Riser card
D. Communication and Networking Riser (CNR)
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Riser card is a circuit board that is used to extend slots for expansion cards and provides the ability
to connect additional expansion cards to the computer.
These cards are used with LPX motherboards. With the introduction of ATX motherboards, riser
cards are rarely used. In ATX motherboards, the expansion cards connect directly to the computer
motherboard instead of using riser cards.
Answer A is incorrect. The audio/modem riser (AMR), also known as an AMR slot, is an expansion
slot. It is found on the motherboards of some Pentium III, Pentium 4, and Athlon personal
computers. It was designed by Intel to interface with chipsets and provide analog functionality, such
as sound cards and modems, on an expansion card. It has two rows of 23 pins each, making a total
of 46 pins.
Answer D is incorrect. Communication and Networking Riser (CNR) is a hardware device developed
by Intel. It plugs into the motherboard and holds chips for the functioning of devices such as
modems and audio devices. It supports V.90 analog modem, multi-channel audio, phone-line-based
networking, and 10/100 Ethernet-based networking. CNR also minimizes electrical noise
interference through the physical separation of noise- sensitive elements from the motherboard's
communication systems.
Answer B is incorrect. Secure Digital (SD) card is a non-volatile memory card format used in portable
devices such as mobile phones, digital cameras, and handheld computers. SD cards are based on the
older MultiMediaCard (MMC) format, but they are a little thicker than MMC cards. Generally an SD
card offers a write-protect switch on its side. SD cards generally measure 32 mm x 24 mm x 2.1 mm,
but they can be as thin as 1.4 mm. The devices that have SD card slots can use the thinner MMC
cards, but the standard SD cards will not fit into the thinner MMC slots. Some SD cards are also
available with a USB connector. SD card readers allow SD cards to be accessed via many connectivity
ports such as USB, FireWire, and the common parallel port.

NO.13 Which of the following slots on a motherboard are best for a video card? Each correct answer
represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. PCI
B. PCIe
C. EISA
D. AGP
Answer: D,B

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Explanation:
AGP and PCIe are the best slots for a video card. PCI Express (PCIe), also known as 3rd Generation
I/O (3GIO), is a type of computer bus. It is a new I/O bus technology that has more bandwidth than
PCI and AGP slots. It uses two low-voltage differential pairs, at 2.5Gb/s in each direction. It is
designed to replace PCI and AGP expansion slots. The bus is available in several different bus widths:
x1, x2, x4, x8, x12, x16, and x32. PCIe is able to transfer data in both directions at a time. PCIe
hardware will work on operating systems that support PCI. AGP is a high speed 32-bit bus designed
for high performance graphics and video support. It allows a video card to have direct access to a
computer's RAM, which enables fast video performance. AGP provides a bandwidth of up to 2,133
MB/second.
Answer C is incorrect. The Extended Industry Standard Architecture (EISA) is a 32-bit PC expansion
bus designed as a superset of a 16-bit ISA bus. The EISA bus is designed to increase the speed and
expand the data width of the legacy expansion bus while still supporting older ISA cards. EISA slots
are obsolete now.
Answer A is incorrect. PCIe and AGP slots are better than PCI slot for a video card.

NO.14 You are working in a Windows network environment. Which of the following accounts/groups
have many advanced permissions not needed by occasional users?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two.
A. Guest
B. Standard user
C. Administrator
D. Power Users
Answer: D,C

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Explanation:
An Administrator user account has full permissions on the computer.
The Power Users group has many advanced permissions not needed by occasional users.
Power users can perform any tasks except those reserved for administrators.
Answer B is incorrect. A Standard user account has a minimal set of permissions.
Each account in standard user mode is designed to store a separate set of settings for users.
The users are allowed to launch applications, create new documents, and modify basic system
configurations.
Answer A is incorrect. A Guest account is designed to provide temporary access to computers.
It does not store user-specific profile settings permanently. This account is disabled by default.

NO.15 Which of the following is designed to infiltrate or damage a computer without the consent of
the owner?
A. Shareware
B. Malware
C. Freeware
D. Stealware
Answer: B

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Explanation:
The term malware refers to malicious software, which is a broad class of malicious viruses, including
spyware.
Malware is designed to infiltrate or damage a computer without the consent of the owner.
Answer D is incorrect. Stealware is associated with Web bugs or spyware.
It is used by Web sites to affiliate marketing programs. Stealware attributes can be present in
peer-to-peer software applications. Spyware, adware, and stealware are similar types of malicious
code. Some Websites are advertised as free and allow information to be downloaded.
However, a pop-up window with a disclaimer should appear.
The disclaimer discloses information of possible charges or rerouting of the Web site. The users
should read the disclaimer to learn what charges are applicable before clicking the advertisement.
Otherwise, they will be liable to pay a large sum of money. The working procedure of stealware is
shown in the figure below:
Answer A is incorrect. Shareware is software designed to use freely or for a limited period available
on the Internet. After completing the given time, the user can either purchase it or legally remove it.
These types of products are usually offered either with certain features only available when the user
has purchased the product, or as a full version but for a limited trial period of time.
Answer C is incorrect. Freeware is computer software that can be used without paying for it.

NO.16 A customer has come to you wanting upgrade the video card in his laptop. What would you
recommend?
A. A PCI Express card
B. Upgrade is not possible
C. A PCMCIA card
D. An AGP Card
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Video cards in laptops are built into the motherboard and cannot be upgraded.
Answer D is incorrect. An AGP card is an older type of video card for PC's.

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Exam Code: ISS-001
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NO.1 An Intel Server Board is integrated into
an Intel Server Chassis and uses the latest system update
package to bring the BIOS and firmware to the most up-to-date versions. After this process, an Intel
Server Specialist finds that the system fans still spin at full speed, even when the system is idle. Which of
the following is the MOST likely cause of this?
A. The memory DIMMs in the system do not have a thermal sensor.
B. The processor has reached the thermal throttling point.
C. One of the system fans is connected to the wrong header.
D. The chassis intrusion switch is malfunctioning.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following items are features of IPMI, implemented on Intel Server Boards? (Select
THREE).
A. Built-in web server
B. Monitoring of fan speeds
C. Increased processor speed
D. System event log
E. Remote alerting via PET traps
F. Remote keyboard ,video, mouse, and media redirection
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.3 A customer has asked an Intel Server Specialist to provide them with a 1U, 2-socket server. The
customer has concerns about power consumption.
Which of the following configurations would offer the MOST energy efficient solution?
A. Intel Server System SR1695WB
B. Intel Server System SR1630HGP
C. Intel Server System SR1600URLX
D. Intel Server System SR2625URBRP
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following chassis are compatible with the Intel Server Board S5520UR? (Select TWO).
A. Intel Server Chassis SR1600
B. Intel Server Chassis SR1625
C. Intel Server Chassis SR1630
D. Intel Server Chassis SR1640
E. Intel Server Chassis SR1695
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 Which of the following RAID levels should an Intel Server Specialist recommend to a customer who
must have the highest reliability available, but only has room for four hard drives?
A. RAID 1
B. RAID 5
C. RAID 6
D. RAID 10
Answer: C

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NO.6 On an Intel Server Board S5520HC, which of the following is the MAXIMUM possible memory speed
that can be reached when the system is configured with 12 DIMMs and 2 Intel Xeon Processors
X5560?
A. 800 MHz
B. 1066 MHz
C. 1333 MHz
D. 1600 MHz
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following documents and tools would a technician use to help determine the correct parts
necessary to build an Intel server? (Select TWO).
A. Quick Start Guide
B. Configuration Guide
C. Intel Server Configurator Tool (SCT)
D. Product Change Notification (PCN)
E. Technical Product Specification (TPS)
Answer: B,C

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NO.8 The Intel Server Board S5520UR has two different headers through which front panel signals can be
routed. Which of the following documents would a technician use to identify the headers used in a
particular chassis?
A. The Quick Start Guide
B. The Service Guide
C. The Technical Product Specification
D. The Spare Parts and Configuration Guide
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following items are stored in the SDR s? (Select TWO).
A. BMC remote access settings
B. Part number information
C. BMC Operational Code
D. Fan speed control settings
E. Voltage sensor thresholds
Answer: D,E

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NO.10 A customer is designing a security appliance, and has asked an Intel Server Specialist to supply them
with a 1-socket rack mount server with as many Gigabit Ethernet ports as possible.
Which of the following configurations would be the MOST appropriate to recommend?
A. Intel Server System SR1695GPRX, with Intel Quad Port Gigabit I/O module, and an Intel Gigabit
ET2 Server Adapter.
B. Intel Server System SR1630GP, with an Intel Quad Port Gigabit I/O module.
C. Intel Modular Server System, with additional Gigabit Ethernet mezzanine cards.
D. Intel Server System SR1625UR, with Intel Quad Port Gigabit I/O module, and an Intel PRO/1000
PT Server Adapter.
Answer: A

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NO.11 On an Intel Server Board S5520HC, which of the following is the MAXIMUM possible memory speed
that can be reached when the system is configured with 12 DIMMs and 2 Intel Xeon Processors
X5650?
A. 800 MHz
B. 1066 MHz
C. 1333MHz
D. 1600 MHz
Answer: C

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NO.12 When updating the HSC firmware, where is the flash chip that the new firmware is written to?
A. On the backplane
B. On the power distribution board
C. On the remote management module
D. On the mainboard
Answer: A

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NO.13 Most Intel servers support memory reliability features like ECC memory, memory scrubbing, mirroring,
and sparing. Which of the following features gives the HIGHEST level of memory reliability?
A. Spare channel mode
B. Mirrored channel mode
C. ECC memory
D. Patrol read/scrubbing
Answer: B

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NO.14 A customer calls and says that a server has suffered a stop error, and intermittently fails to boot. Which
of the following is the preferred FIRST step to take?
A. Connect to the SEL via the DPC CLI.
B. Ask the customer to return the server.
C. Ask the customer to reseat the memory.
D. Start a remote desktop session to the server.
E. Connect to the remote management module if present.
Answer: E

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NO.15 When the server operating system is indicating a generic hardware problem, which of the following is
the BEST place to check for more information on what the root cause of the issue could be?
A. The EFI shell
B. The system BIOS
C. The operating system event log
D. The SEL
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which of the following RAID levels should an Intel Server Specialist recommend to a customer who
needs the highest write performance, but only has room for four hard drives?
A. RAID 1
B. RAID 5
C. RAID 6
D. RAID 10
Answer: D

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NO.17 Below is a step in the server management configuration process. Which of the following is true about
this command.?
A. This SYSCFG command, Reset Factory Settings, can be used to erase all BMC management settings.
This command can be used to reset the management settings to support reconfiguration of management,
without carrying over previous management settings.
B. This SYSCFG command, Refreshes Sensors, resets the sensor values and forces the BMC to rescan
all sensors to update the Sensor Data Records (SDR). This is used when a system error has been
resolved, but the status remains critical in the SDR.
C. This SYSCFG command, Restore File System, is used to restore a backup of the server management
settings. This is an efficient method of restoring the BMC settings if they have been lost or deleted.
D. This DOS command allows a super user to replace the file system within the BMC, reformatting the
data area down to a low-level format prior to a system restore.
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which of the following is MOST likely to cause a stop error on a 5520 Chipset based Server Board?
A. CMOS checksum error
B. PCI bus error
C. Single drive failure in a RAID 1 set
D. Memory ECC single bit error
Answer: B

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NO.19 The Intel Server Board S5520UR has two different headers through which front panel signals can be
routed. Which of the following documents would a server technician use to identify the pinout of each
header?
A. The Technical Product Specification
B. The Service Guide
C. The Quick Start Guide
D. The Spare Parts and Configuration Guide
Answer: A

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NO.20 Why is it important to update the FRU when first building a system?
A. Updating the FRU enables the server administrator to remotely access the server.
B. Updating the FRU allows the server to configure the fan speed correctly.
C. Updating the FRU allows for the relevant part numbers to be programmed into NVRAM.
D. Updating the FRU makes sure the Management Engine is running the most recent firmware.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: SGO-001
Exam Name: CompTIA (CompTIA Storage+ Powered by SNIA)
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Total Q&A: 250 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-22

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NO.1 A server administrator notices when a specific server is re-booted its SAN storage is sometimes visible
and sometimes it is not. After examining the SAN switch logs, no FLOGI message has been received on
that port. Which HBA parameter is a most likely cause?
A. Port Link/Speed is set to Autonegotiate.
B. WWPN reset timeout is set too low.
C. R_A_TOV does not match.
D. HBA Port Type is set to "E-Port"
Answer: A

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NO.2 Your customer has upgraded to faster tape technology and the backup is now taking longer. No other
changes have been made. What is a possible cause of the performance degradation?
A. tape buffer overload
B. hardware compression
C. backup server cannot sustain required throughput
D. serpentine recording changed to helical scan technology
Answer: C

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NO.3 After a company experienced a localized disaster, the Business Continuance Plan was reviewed. The
plan was revised to include a Recovery Time Objective (RTO) of four (4) hours and a Recovery Point
Object (RPO) of one hour. What two (2) processes must be implemented to support this requirement?
(Choose two.)
A. mirrored snapshots of data and applications
B. backup tapes recovered from offsite storage
C. data snapshots from the previous day
D. operating system and application reinstallation media
E. hot or warm site
Answer: A,E

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NO.4 Which set of SCSI components are required to support SCSI command tag queuing?
A. adapter, adapter driver, device, device driver
B. adapter, device, device driver
C. adapter, device driver, controller, controller firmware
D. device, device driver
Answer: A

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NO.5 The customer has an existing fabric switches installed from one manufacturer. They have decided to
add a redundant fabric using switches from a different manufacturer. Interoperability is their main concern.
What is important when considering interoperability in the SAN?
A. switch interoperability mode
B. HBA firmware/driver code
C. zone naming convention
D. virtualization engine
Answer: D

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NO.6 A production cluster is attached to redundant disk fabrics and a tape fabric. Each cluster member has
access to twelve (12) TB of RAID 5 production storage and twelve (12) TB of RAID 0 local replica
accessed through eight HBAs single initiator zoned to sixteen storage ports on one storage subsystem.
The tape fabric includes one connection to each server and connections to four (4) 1Gb FC to SCSI
gateways connected to ten (10) LTO II (35MB/s) tape drives. The standby cluster member performs
multi-threaded backups using the local replica. All HBAs and ports are 2Gb/s. If the recovery time is equal
to backup time, where is the bottleneck?
A. Tape HBA
B. Disk HBAs
C. Tape Drives
D. FC to SCSI Gateway
Answer: A

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NO.7 Two servers have been connected to a SAN with redundant fabrics and the zone configuration needs to
be changed. How can you safely change the zone configuration?
A. Save the current zone configuration to disk, modify it and apply it to both fabrics simultaneously to
avoid segmentation.
B. Modify the zone configuration on one fabric, test it, and then modify the zone configuration on the
second fabric.
C. Modify the zone configuration on one fabric, test it, and then copy the zone configuration to the second
fabric.
D. Modify the zone configuration on both fabrics at the same time, enable them simultaneously to avoid
segmentation.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Last month, you successfully merged two (2) local SAN islands into a single core/edge fabric topology
and connected storage devices to the core switches. Performance benchmarks were met or exceeded. In
recent days, server administrators have documented a slow down in performance as I/O demands have
increased. Storage administrators report that all storage ports are under-utilized. What is the most likely
explanation?
A. conflicts between SAN routing protocols
B. storage port buffer credit limits have restricted I/O capabilities
C. multiple process login failures
D. over utilization of one or more ISLs
Answer: D

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NO.9 The storage administrator has a request to add more storage to support added features on an
application. Which two (2) steps must be taken for the application to recognize the added storage?
(Choose two.)
A. re-scan the SCSI bus
B. enable array re-scanning
C. configure LUN masking
D. zone the host to the subsystem port
E. increase the HBA time out value
Answer: A,C

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NO.10 The SAN audit reports that there is a single fabric in a full mesh topology. Which three (3) benefits result
from migrating to dual fabrics with full mesh topologies? (Choose three.)
A. less inter-switch links
B. simplifies manageability
C. protection from human error
D. reduction in maintenance activity
E. decreased maintenance disruption
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.11 What enables a virtual machine to have a unique World Wide Port Name?
A. Address Replacement Protocol
B. Virtual Machine Address Translation
C. N_Port ID Virtualization
D. extended WWID Architecture
Answer: C

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NO.12 A two fabric merge has failed leaving you with segmented fabrics. Which could be the the cause of the
segmented fabrics?
A. unique domain Ids
B. identical zone names
C. timeouts set to equal values
D. non-compatible interoperability modes
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which two (2) are advantages of ISL over-subscription? (Choose two.)
A. efficient ISL bandwidth utilization
B. lowers cost-per-port per installation
C. higher performance per ISL
D. enables zoning simplicity
E. more available F_Ports
Answer: A,E

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NO.14 A storage configuration was created which stores large amounts of infrequently used documents. The
storage implementation is based on serial attached SCSI (SAS) and an edge expander. Almost all ports
are utilized, and a second edge expander will be installed. What is required to connect SATA devices to
the SAS domain?
A. SAS-SATA adapter
B. SAS-SATA protocol converter
C. cable with two SATA connectors
D. cable with a SAS and a SATA connector
Answer: C

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NO.15 You have a single fabric with four servers connecting to an edge switch in a core edge configuration with
single 2Gb/s ISLs to the core. Each server has an average throughput requirement of 40MB/s. Under
which circumstance would you need to add a second ISL?
A. to provide a redundant path
B. to avoid congestion on the ISL
C. to separate out FSPF updates
D. to provide a management path
Answer: A

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NO.16 A customer has a database server that processes a great deal of data very quickly. They have identified
a bottleneck in the storage subsystem and requested a change to the RAID configuration. How would you
configure the new RAID group? (Choose two.)
A. Stripe across 7200 rpm drives
B. Stripe across 15K rpm drives
C. RAID 6
D. RAID 1+0
E. RAID 5
Answer: B,D

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NO.17 University IT provides shared Fibre Channel storage services. All storage subsystems and fibre
channel switches are located in the secure campus datacenter. Each college and department provides
their own systems and staff. Central IT provides fabric, storage and backup administration. Which security
mechanism is most important in this Fibre Channel infrastructure?
A. FCPAP
B. link encryption
C. switch authentication
D. port authentication
Answer: D

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NO.18 An application administrator seeks to improve the I/O performance of the server's SAN-attached
storage. Which HBA parameter setting change can affect the performance?
A. Queue Depth
B. PCI Connection Type
C. NL-Port Mode
D. SCSI ID Mapping
Answer: A

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NO.19 You are the system administrator of a medium-sized manufacturing company. The chief executive
officer (CEO) is concerned about business continuity in case of a disaster. He constituted a project team
to develop a business continuity and disaster recovery solution. The team is discussing online backup
strategies. What affects time-to-create and incremental update of a copy-on-write snapshot?
A. number of files
B. number of LUNs
C. size of snap volume
D. size of LUN
Answer: D

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NO.20 What two (2) benefits does SCSI Command Tag Queueing provide? (Choose two.)
A. allows I/O requests to be queued to the device
B. determines the most efficient way to order & process commands
C. tags I/O requests so they can be executed first in first out
D. allows SCSI I/O throughput to equal rates of fibre channel
E. determines queue depth position
Answer: A,B

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