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NO.1 What information is found in the SmartView Tracker Management log?
A. Administrator SmartDashboard logout event
B. SecurePlatform expert login event
C. Creation of an administrator using cpconfig
D. FTP username authentication failure
Answer: A

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NO.2 You install and deploy GAiA with default settings. You allow Visitor Mode in the Gateway
object's Remote Access properties and install policy; but SecureClient refuses to connect. What is the
cause of this?
A. Set Visitor Mode in Policy > Global Properties > Remote-Access > VPN - Advanced.
B. Office mode is not configured.
C. You need to start SSL Network Extender first, then use Visitor Mode.
D. The WebUI on GAiA runs on port 443 (HTTPS). When you configure Visitor Mode it cannot bind to
default port 443, because it's used by another program (WebUI). You need to change the WebUI
port, or run Visitor Mode on a different port.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Looking at the SYN packets in the Wireshark output,
select the statement that is true about NAT.
A. This is an example of Hide NAT.
B. This is an example of Static NAT and Translate destination on client side unchecked in Global
Properties.
C. There is not enough information provided in the Wireshark capture to determine the NAT settings.
D. This is an example of Static NAT and Translate destination on client side checked in Global
Properties.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which R77 GUI would you use to see the number of packets accepted since the last policy
install?
A. SmartView Monitor
B. SmartView Status
C. SmartView Tracker
D. SmartDashboard
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which R75 component displays the number of packets accepted, rejected, and dropped on a
specific Security Gateway, in real time?
A. SmartView Monitor
B. SmartView Status
C. SmartEvent
D. SmartUpdate
Answer: A

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NO.6 The customer has a small Check Point installation, which includes one GAiA server working as
the SmartConsole, and a second server running Windows 2008 as both Security Management Server
and Security Gateway. This is an example of a(n):
A. Distributed Installation
B. Hybrid Installation
C. Unsupported configuration
D. Stand-Alone Installation
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following statements accurately describes the command upgrade_export?
A. Used primarily when upgrading the Security Management Server, upgrade_export stores all object
databases and the /conf directories for importing to a newer Security
Gateway version.
B. upgrade_export stores network-configuration data, objects, global properties, and the database
revisions prior to upgrading the Security Management Server.
C. This command is no longer supported in GAiA.
D. upgrade_export is used when upgrading the Security Gateway, and allows certain files to be
included or excluded before exporting.
Answer: A

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NO.8 The technical-support department has a requirement to access an intranet server. When
configuring a User Authentication rule to achieve this, which of the following should you remember?
A. You can limit the authentication attempts in the User Properties' Authentication tab.
B. Once a user is first authenticated, the user will not be prompted for authentication again until
logging out.
C. You can only use the rule for Telnet, FTP, SMTP, and rlogin services.
D. The Security Gateway first checks if there is any rule that does not require authentication for this
type of connection before invoking the Authentication Security Server.
Answer: D

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NO.1 How does Check Point recommend that you secure the sync interface between gateways?
A. Configure the sync network to operate within the DMZ.
B. Secure each sync interface in a cluster with Endpoint.
C. Use a dedicated sync network.
D. Encrypt all sync traffic between cluster members.
Answer: C

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NO.2 John Adams is an HR partner in the ACME organization. ACME IT wants to limit access to HR
servers to designated IP addresses to minimize malware infection and unauthorized access risks.
Thus, the gateway policy permits access only from John's desktop which is assigned a static IP address
10.0.0.19.
John received a laptop and wants to access the HR Web Server from anywhere in the organization.
The IT department gave the laptop a static IP address, but that limits him to operating it only from his
desk. The current Rule Base contains a rule that lets John Adams access the HR Web Server from his
laptop with a static IP (10.0.0.19). He wants to move around the organization and continue to have
access to the HR Web Server.
To make this scenario work, the IT administrator:
1) Enables Identity Awareness on a gateway, selects AD Query as one of the Identity Sources installs
the policy.
2) Adds an access role object to the Firewall Rule Base that lets John Adams PC access the HR Web
Server from any machine and from any location.
John plugged in his laptop to the network on a different network segment and he is not able to
connect. How does he solve this problem?
A. John should lock and unlock the computer
B. Investigate this as a network connectivity issue
C. John should install the Identity Awareness Agent
D. The firewall admin should install the Security Policy
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following commands shows full synchronization status?
A. cphaprob -a if
B. fw ctl iflist
C. fw hastat
D. fw ctl pstat
Answer: D

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NO.4 The Management Portal allows all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Manage firewall logs
B. Schedule policy installation
C. View administrator activity
D. View the status of Check Point products
Answer: B

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NO.5 In Management High Availability, what is an Active SMS?
A. Active Security Master Server
B. Active Smart Management Server
C. Active Security Management Server
D. Active Smart Master Server
Answer: C

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NO.6 Reinstall the Security Policy on all three Security Gateways.
A. 1, 2, 5
B. 1, 3, 4, 5
C. 1, 2, 3, 5
D. 1, 2, 4, 5
E. 1, 2, 3, 4
Answer: A

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5. John Adams is an HR partner in the ACME organization. ACME IT wants to limit access to HR
servers to a set of designated IP addresses to minimize malware infection and unauthorized access
risks. Thus, the gateway policy permits access only from John's desktop which is assigned a static IP
address 10.0.0.19.
He has received a new laptop and wants to access the HR Web Server from anywhere in the
organization. The IT department gave the laptop a static IP address, but that limits him to operating it
only from his desk. The current Rule Base contains a rule that lets John Adams access the HR Web
Server from his laptop with a static IP (10.0.0.19).
He wants to move around the organization and continue to have access to the HR Web Server. To
make this scenario work, the IT administrator:
1) Enables Identity Awareness on a gateway, selects AD Query as one of the Identity Sources, and
installs the policy.
2) Adds an access role object to the Firewall Rule Base that lets John Adams access the HR Web
Server from any machine and from any location and installs policy.
John plugged in his laptop to the network on a different network segment and was not able to
connect to the HR Web server. What is the next BEST troubleshooting step?
A. John should install the Identity Awareness Agent
B. Investigate this as a network connectivity issue
C. After enabling Identity Awareness, reboot the gateway
D. He should lock and unlock the computer
Answer: D

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NO.7 What is a "sticky" connection?
A. A Sticky Connection is one in which a reply packet returns through the same gateway as the
original packet.
B. A Sticky Connection is a VPN connection that remains up until you manually bring it down.
C. A Sticky Connection is a connection that remains the same.
D. A Sticky Connection is a connection that always chooses the same gateway to set up the initial
connection.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which network port does PPTP use for communication?
A. 1723/tcp
B. 1723/udp
C. 25/udp
D. 25/tco
Answer: A

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NO.1 You install and deploy GAiA with default settings. You allow Visitor Mode in the Gateway
object's Remote Access properties and install policy; but SecureClient refuses to connect. What is the
cause of this?
A. Set Visitor Mode in Policy > Global Properties > Remote-Access > VPN - Advanced.
B. Office mode is not configured.
C. You need to start SSL Network Extender first, then use Visitor Mode.
D. The WebUI on GAiA runs on port 443 (HTTPS). When you configure Visitor Mode it cannot bind to
default port 443, because it's used by another program (WebUI). You need to change the WebUI
port, or run Visitor Mode on a different port.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Identify the ports to which the Client Authentication daemon listens by default.
A. 80, 256
B. 8080, 529
C. 259, 900
D. 256, 600
Answer: C

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NO.3 Your boss wants you to closely monitor an employee suspected of transferring company secrets
to the competition. The IT department discovered the suspect installed a WinSCP client in order to
use encrypted communication. Which of the following methods is BEST to accomplish this task?
A. Use SmartView Tracker to follow his actions by filtering log entries that feature the WinSCP
destination port. Then, export the corresponding entries to a separate log file for documentation.
B. Watch his IP in SmartView Monitor by setting an alert action to any packet that matches your Rule
Base and his IP address for inbound and outbound traffic.
C. Send the suspect an email with a keylogging Trojan attached, to get direct information about his
wrongdoings.
D. Use SmartDashboard to add a rule in the firewall Rule Base that matches his IP address, and those
of potential targets and suspicious protocols. Apply the alert action or customized messaging.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following statements accurately describes the command upgrade_export?
A. Used primarily when upgrading the Security Management Server, upgrade_export stores all object
databases and the /conf directories for importing to a newer Security
Gateway version.
B. upgrade_export stores network-configuration data, objects, global properties, and the database
revisions prior to upgrading the Security Management Server.
C. This command is no longer supported in GAiA.
D. upgrade_export is used when upgrading the Security Gateway, and allows certain files to be
included or excluded before exporting.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Looking at the SYN packets in the Wireshark output,
select the statement that is true about NAT.
A. This is an example of Hide NAT.
B. This is an example of Static NAT and Translate destination on client side unchecked in Global
Properties.
C. There is not enough information provided in the Wireshark capture to determine the NAT settings.
D. This is an example of Static NAT and Translate destination on client side checked in Global
Properties.
Answer: D

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NO.6 The technical-support department has a requirement to access an intranet server. When
configuring a User Authentication rule to achieve this, which of the following should you remember?
A. You can limit the authentication attempts in the User Properties' Authentication tab.
B. Once a user is first authenticated, the user will not be prompted for authentication again until
logging out.
C. You can only use the rule for Telnet, FTP, SMTP, and rlogin services.
D. The Security Gateway first checks if there is any rule that does not require authentication for this
type of connection before invoking the Authentication Security Server.
Answer: D

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NO.7 When using AD Query to authenticate users for Identity Awareness, identity data is received
seamlessly from the Microsoft Active Directory (AD). What is NOT a recommended usage of this
method?
A. Leveraging identity in the application control blade
B. Identity-based enforcement for non-AD users (non-Windows and guest users)
C. Identity-based auditing and logging
D. Basic identity enforcement in the internal network
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which R77 GUI would you use to see the number of packets accepted since the last policy
install?
A. SmartView Monitor
B. SmartView Status
C. SmartView Tracker
D. SmartDashboard
Answer: A

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NO.1 Identify the correct step performed by SmartUpdate to upgrade a remote Security Gateway.
After selecting Packages > Distribute Only and choosing the target Gateway, the:
A. selected package is copied from the Package Repository on the Security Management Server to
the Security Gateway and the installation IS performed.
B. selected package is copied from the CD-ROM of the SmartUpdate PC directly to the Security
Gateway and the installation IS performed.
C. SmartUpdate wizard walks the Administrator through a distributed installation.
D. selected package is copied from the Package Repository on the Security Management Server to
the Security Gateway but the installation IS NOT performed.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which component functions as the Internal Certificate Authority for R76?
A. Security Gateway
B. Management Server
C. Policy Server
D. SmartLSM
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is the primary benefit of using the command upgrade_export over either backup or
snapshot?
A. The commands backup and snapshot can take a long time to run whereas upgrade_export will
take a much shorter amount of time.
B. upgrade_export will back up routing tables, hosts files, and manual ARP configurations, where
backup and snapshot will not.
C. upgrade_export has an option to back up the system and SmartView Tracker logs while backup
and snapshot will not.
D. upgrade_export is operating system independent and can be used when backup or snapshot is
not available.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which type of R76 Security Server does not provide User Authentication?
A. FTP Security Server
B. SMTP Security Server
C. HTTPS Security Server
D. HTTP Security Server
Answer: B

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NO.5 How do you configure an alert in SmartView Monitor?
A. By right-clicking on the Gateway, and selecting Properties.
B. By choosing the Gateway, and Configure Thresholds.
C. An alert cannot be configured in SmartView Monitor.
D. By right-clicking on the Gateway, and selecting System Information.
Answer: B

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NO.6 How do you configure the Security Policy to provide user access to the Captive Portal
through an external (Internet) interface?
A. Change the Identity Awareness settings under Global Properties to allow Captive Portal access on
all interfaces.
B. Change the Identity Awareness settings under Global Properties to allow Captive Portal access for
an external interface.
C. Change the gateway settings to allow Captive Portal access via an external interface.
D. No action is necessary. This access is available by default.
Answer: C

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NO.7 In order to have full control, you decide to use Manual NAT entries instead of Automatic NAT
rules. Which of the following is NOT true?
A. When using Static NAT, you must enter ARP entries for the Gateway on all hosts that are using the
NAT Gateway with that Gateway's internal interface IP address.
B. When using Static NAT, you must add proxy ARP entries to the Gateway for all hiding addresses.
C. If you chose Automatic NAT instead, all necessary entries are done for you.
D. When using Dynamic Hide NAT with an address that is not configured on a Gateway interface,
you need to add a proxy ARP entry for that address.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following methods will provide the most complete backup of an R75
configuration?
A. Execute command upgrade_export
B. Database Revision Control
C. Policy Package Management
D. Copying the directories $FWDIR\conf and $CPDIR\conf to another server
Answer: A

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NO.1 VPN-1 NGX includes a resource mechanism for working with the Common Internet File
System (CIFS). However, this service only provides a limited level of actions for CIFS security. Which
of the following services is NOT provided by a CIFS resource?
A. Log access shares
B. Block Remote Registry Access
C. Log mapped shares
D. Allow MS print shares
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which Check Point product is used to create and save changes to a Log Consolidation Policy?
A. SmartReporter Client
B. Security Management Server
C. SmartDashboard Log Consolidator
D. SmartEvent Server
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning MEP VPN's?
A. The VPN Client is assigned a Security Gateway to connect to based on a priority list, should the
first connection fail.
B. MEP Security Gateways can be managed by separate Management Servers.
C. MEP VPN's are restricted to the location of the gateways.
D. State synchronization between Secruity Gateways is required.
Answer: B

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NO.4 _______________ manages Standard Reports and allows the administrator to specify
automatic uploads of reports to a central FTP server.
A. SmartDashboard Log Consolidator
B. SmartReporter
C. Security Management Server
D. SmartReporter Database
Answer: B

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NO.5 You have an internal FTP server, and you allow downloading, but not uploading. Assume
Network Address Translation is set up correctly, and you want to add an inbound rule with:
Source: Any Destination: FTP server Service: FTP resources object.
How do you configure the FTP resource object and the action column in the rule to achieve this goal?
A. Enable only the "Get" method in the FTP Resource Properties, and use this method in the rule,
with action accept.
B. Enable only the "Get" method in the FTP Resource Properties and use it in the rule, with action
drop.
C. Enable both "Put" and "Get" methods in the FTP Resource Properties and use them in the rule,
with action drop.
D. Disable "Get" and "Put" methods in the FTP Resource Properties and use it in the rule, with
action accept.
E. Enable only the "Put" method in the FTP Resource Properties and use it in the rule, with action
accept.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following statements accurately describes the migrate command?
A. upgrade_export is used when upgrading the Security Gateway, and allows certain files to be
included or excluded before exporting.
B. upgrade_export stores network-configuration data, objects, global properties, and the database
revisions prior to upgrading the Security Management Server.
C. Used primarily when upgrading the Security Management Server, migrate stores all object
databases and the conf directories for importing to a newer version of the Security Gateway
D. Used when upgrading the Security Gateway, upgrade_export includes modified files, such as in
the directories /lib and /conf.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Based on the following information, which of the statements below is FALSE?
A DLP Rule Base has the following conditions: Data Type =Password Protected File Source=My
Organization Destination=Outside My Organization Protocol=Any Action=Ask User Exception: Data
Type=Any, Source=Research and Development (R&D) Destination=Pratner1.com Protocol=Any All
other rules are set to Detect. UserCheck is enabled and installed on all client machines.
A. When a user from R&D sends an e-mail with a password protected PDF file as an attachment to
xyz@partner1 .com, he will be prompted by UserCheck.
B. When a user from Finance sends an e-mail with an encrypted ZIP file as an attachment to. He will
be prompted by UserCheck.
C. Another rule is added: Source = R&D, Destination = partner1.com, Protocol = Any, Action = Inform.
When a user from R&D sends an e-mail with an encrypted ZIP file as an attachment to, he will be
prompted by UserCheck.
D. When a user from R&D sends an e-mail with an encrypted ZIP file as an attachment to , he will
NOT be prompted by UserCheck.
Answer: B

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NO.8 You are preparing computers for a new ClusterXL deployment. For your cluster, you plan to use
four machines with the following configurations:
Cluster Member 1: OS: SecurePlatform, NICs: QuadCard, memory: 1 GB, Security Gateway only,
version: R76
Cluster Member 2: OS: SecurePlatform, NICs: 4 Intel 3Com, memory: 1 GB, Security Gateway only,
version: R76
Cluster Member 3: OS: SecurePlatform, NICs: 4 other manufacturers, memory: 512 MB, Security
Gateway only, version: R76
Security Management Server: MS Windows 2003, NIC. Intel NIC (1), Security Gateway and primary
Security Management Server installed, version: R76
Are these machines correctly configured for a ClusterXL deployment?
A. No, the Security Gateway cannot be installed on the Security Management Pro Server.
B. No, Cluster Member 3 does not have the required memory.
C. Yes, these machines are configured correctly for a ClusterXL deployment.
D. No, the Security Management Server is not running the same operating system as the cluster
members.
Answer: C

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NO.1 Can the Anti-Bot software blade be enabled on a Secure Web Gateway as well?
A. Yes, this is an optional blade for the Secure Web Gateway.
B. No, Anti-Bot needs to be part of the Threat Prevention Appliance.
C. Yes, it can be enabled if IPS is enabled as well.
D. Yes, Anti-Bot is always enabled together with Identity Awareness.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of these statements describes the Check Point ThreatCloud?
A. A worldwide collaborative security network
B. Prevents vulnerability exploits
C. Controls access to web sites based on category
D. Blocks or limits usage of web applications
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which software blades are characteristic to a Threat Prevention Appliance?
A. Anti-Virus, Anti-Bot, IPS, Identity Awareness
B. Anti-Virus, Anti-Bot, IPS, URL Filtering, Identity Awareness
C. Anti-Virus, Anti-Bot, IPS, Application Control, URL Filtering, Identity Awareness
D. Anti-Virus, Anti-Bot, IPS, URL Filtering, Identity Awareness, SmartEvent
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of these statements describes the Check Point IPS software blade?
A. Blocks or limits usage of web applications
B. A worldwide collaborative security network
C. Prevents vulnerability exploits
D. Controls access to web sites based on category
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which TCP ports allow LDAP users to communicate with the Account Unit?
A. 689 clear, or 336 encrypted
B. 636 clear, or 389 encrypted
C. 336 clear, or 689 encrypted
D. 389 clear, or 636 encrypted
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of these is a Check Point Firewall attribute?
A. Malicious P2P application protection
B. Buffer overflow prevention
C. Worm injection blocking
D. Granular access control
Answer: D

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NO.7 What is the minimum amount of RAM needed for a Threat Prevention Appliance?
A. 4 GB
B. It depends on the number of software blades enabled.
C. 2 GB with GAiA in 32-bit mode, 4 GB with GAiA in 64-bit mode
D. 6 GB
Answer: A

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NO.8 Check Point Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) is available in two deployment methods, as a
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A. InterSpect Appliance
B. IPS-1 Sensor
C. Smart-1 Appliance
D. Power-1 Appliance
Answer: B

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NO.1 Which files should be acquired from a Windows 2003 Server system crash with a Dr.
Watson error?
A. drwtsn32.log
B. vmcore.log
C. core.log
D. memory.log
E. info.log
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following types of information should an Administrator use tcpdump to
view?
A. DECnet traffic analysis
B. VLAN trunking analysis
C. NAT traffic analysis
D. Packet-header analysis
E. AppleTalk traffic analysis
Answer: D

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NO.3 fw monitor packets are collected from the kernel in a buffer. What happens if the buffer
becomes full?
A. The information in the buffer is saved and packet capture continues, with new data stored
in the buffer.
B. Older packet information is dropped as new packet information is added.
C. Packet capture stops.
D. All packets in it are deleted, and the buffer begins filling from the beginning.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Assume you have a rule allowing HTTP traffic, on port 80, to a specific Web server in a
Demilitarized Zone (DMZ). If an external host port scans the Web server's IP address, what
information
will be revealed?
A. Nothing; the NGX Security Server automatically block all port scans.
B. All ports are open on the Security Server.
C. All ports are open on the Web server.
D. The Web server's file structure is revealed.
E. Port 80 is open on the Web server.
Answer: E

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NO.5 The list below provides all the actions Check Point recommends to troubleshoot a
problem with an NGX
product.
A. List Possible Causes
B. Identify the Problem
C. Collect Related Information
D. Consult Various Reference Sources
E. Test Causes Individually and Logically
Select the answer that shows the order of the recommended actions that make up Check
Point's
troubleshooting guidelines?
F. B, C, A, E, D
G. A, E, B, D, C
H. A, B, C, D, E
I. B, A, D, E, C
J. D, B, A, C, E
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which file provides the data for the host_table output, and is responsible for keeping a
record of all
internal IPs passing through the internal interfaces of a restricted hosts licensed Security
Gateway?
A. hosts.h
B. external.if
C. hosts
D. fwd.h
E. fwconn.h
Answer: D

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NO.7 VPN debugging information is written to which of the following files?
A. FWDIR/log/ahttpd.elg
B. FWDIR/log/fw.elg
C. $FWDIR/log/ike.elg
D. FWDIR/log/authd.elg
E. FWDIR/log/vpn.elg
Answer: C

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NO.8 NGX Wire Mode allows:
A. Peer gateways to establish a VPN connection automatically from predefined preshared
secrets.
B. Administrators to verify that each VPN-1 SecureClient is properly configured, before
allowing it access
to the protected domain.
C. Peer gateways to fail over existing VPN traffic, by avoiding Stateful Inspection.
D. Administrators to monitor VPN traffic for troubleshooting purposes.
E. Administrators to limit the number of simultaneous VPN connections, to reduce the traffic
load passing
through a Security Gateway.
Answer: C

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NO.1 Who is best able to provide the justification for allowing access to some higher risk
applications?
A. The Help Desk
B. The Security Administrator
C. The User
D. The Group Manager
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following actions applies to a Risk Level of 5 - Critical?
A. Can bypass security or hide identities
B. Potentially not business related
C. Can be misused and cause data leakage or malware infection
D. Can cause data leakage or malware infection without user knowledge
Answer: A

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B. Can bypass security or hide identities
C. Potentially not business related
D. Can be misused and cause data leakage or malware infection
Answer: A

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B. Can bypass security or hide identities
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D. Can cause data leakage or malware infection without user knowledge
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Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following statement is true regarding SmartEvent Intro? SmartEvent Intro:
A. requires no license, only a contract
B. has been discontinued
C. is free, and therefore requires no license
D. only view events from one blade
Answer: D

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NO.7 During the Application Control Discovery process, what is the best source of information for
decisions on blocking or not blocking an application?
A. The Help Desk
B. The Group Manager
C. The User
D. The Security Administrator
Answer: C

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NO.8 When analyzing Application Control data with SmartEvent, using the predefined queries, how
are the events grouped? In order of:
A. date/time
B. rule applied
C. risk
D. number of megabytes used
Answer: D

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NO.1 NGX Wire Mode allows:
A. Peer gateways to establish a VPN connection automatically from predefined preshared secrets.
B. Administrators to verify that each VPN-1 SecureClient is properly configured, before allowing it access
to the protected domain.
C. Peer gateways to fail over existing VPN traffic, by avoiding Stateful Inspection.
D. Administrators to monitor VPN traffic for troubleshooting purposes.
E. Administrators to limit the number of simultaneous VPN connections, to reduce the traffic load passing
through a Security Gateway.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which files should be acquired from a Windows 2003 Server system crash with a Dr. Watson error?
A. drwtsn32.log
B. vmcore.log
C. core.log
D. memory.log
E. info.log
Answer: A

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NO.3 The list below provides all the actions Check Point recommends to troubleshoot a problem with an NGX
product.
A. List Possible Causes
B. Identify the Problem
C. Collect Related Information
D. Consult Various Reference Sources
E. Test Causes Individually and Logically
Select the answer that shows the order of the recommended actions that make up Check Point's
troubleshooting guidelines?
F. B, C, A, E, D
G. A, E, B, D, C
H. A, B, C, D, E
I. B, A, D, E, C
J. D, B, A, C, E
Answer: A

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NO.4 You modified the *def file on your Security Gateway, but the changes were not applied. Why?
A. There is more than one *.def file on the Gateway.
B. You did not have the proper authority.
C. *.def files must be modified on the SmartCenter Server.
D. The *.def file on the Gateway is read-only.
Answer: C

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NO.5 VPN debugging information is written to which of the following files?
A. FWDIR/log/ahttpd.elg
B. FWDIR/log/fw.elg
C. $FWDIR/log/ike.elg
D. FWDIR/log/authd.elg
E. FWDIR/log/vpn.elg
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which statement is true for route based VPNs?
A. IP Pool NAT must be configured on each gateway
B. Route-based VPNs replace domain-based VPNs
C. Route-based VPNs are a form of partial overlap VPN Domain
D. Packets are encrypted or decrypted automatically
E. Dynamic-routing protocols are not required
Answer: E

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NO.7 Which of the following types of information should an Administrator use tcpdump to view?
A. DECnet traffic analysis
B. VLAN trunking analysis
C. NAT traffic analysis
D. Packet-header analysis
E. AppleTalk traffic analysis
Answer: D

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NO.8 fw monitor packets are collected from the kernel in a buffer. What happens if the buffer becomes full?
A. The information in the buffer is saved and packet capture continues, with new data stored in the buffer.
B. Older packet information is dropped as new packet information is added.
C. Packet capture stops.
D. All packets in it are deleted, and the buffer begins filling from the beginning.
Answer: D

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NO.1 In a load sharing MEP environment accessed by secuRemote.What is true about gateway
selection?
A. SecuRemote will choose the gateway closest to the server
B. SecuRemote will use the first gateway to respond
C. SecuRemote will chose the gateway randomly
D. SecuRemote will prefer its primary gateway if both respond
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is a land attack?
A. It causes incomplete TCP connections
B. It involves gaining access by imitating an authorized IP address
C. It involves scanning for ports on an IP address that will allow access
D. It causes a server to send packets to itself
Answer: D

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NO.3 By default a Windows NT platform enables both TCP/IP and IPX. What does FW-1 do
with any IPX traffic?
A. Logs it, then drops it
B. Allows it through without being inspected
C. Drops all traffic regardless
D. Inspects the traffic and decide whether to allow it through
Answer: B

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NO.4 When installing FW-1 on a Windows NT platform, what state should IP forwarding be in
for correct FW-1 operation?
A. Enabled
B. Disabled
Answer: A

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NO.5 In a resilient MEP topology, what mechanism can be used by SecuRemote to determine
that the primary gateway is still available?
A. TCP Ping
B. TCP keepalives
C. RDP status queries
D. UDP ping
Answer: C

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NO.6 When using IP pools for MEP VPN access, where would you specify the pool to be used for
a particular gateway?
A. The NAT screen of the gateway's properties configuration
B. The ADVANCED screen of the gateway's properties configuration
C. The VPN screen of the gateway's properties screen
D. The TOPOLOGY screen of the gateway's properties configuration
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which two types of overlapping encryption domains are supported by FW-1?
A. Partial overlap
B. Full overlap
C. Proper subset
D. Partial subset
Answer: B, C

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NO.8 You can tell if CPMAD is enabled because you see the message
"FireWall-1: Starting cpmad (Malicious Activity Detection)"
whenyou perform a fwstart. True of false?
A. False
B. True
Answer: A

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NO.9 What does LDAP stand for?
A. Link level Direct Access Process
B. Layered Directory Administration Protocol
C. Layer Dependent Administration process
D. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following should be disabled in a Windows NT platform when installing
FW-1?
A. WINS
B. RPC
C. NetBIOS
D. All of them
E. DHCP relay
Answer: D

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NO.11 What is true about detecting "blocked connection port scanning"?
A. It requires less memory than general port scanning
B. It is less secure than general port scanning
C. It is more secure than general port scanning
D. It requires more memory than general port scanning
Answer: A, B

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NO.12 Which are two network related conditions required by high availability in SEP VPN's?
A. The gateways must be synchronized
B. Traffic must be redirected correctly to the backup gateway when the primary gateway fails
C. The gateways must use identical MAC addresses
D. NTP (network time protocol) must be configured between both gateways
Answer: A, B

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NO.13 When making changes to users in an LDAP server using the policy editor
usermanager, when will the changes take effect?
A. After the user database is downloaded
B. When you log out of policy editor
C. After a policy download
D. When cache times out
Answer: A, C, D

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NO.14 Addresses allocated from an IP pool remain allocated for a configurable period, even after
all connections to that address are closed. What is the default time before the address is
returned to the pool?
A. 120 mins
B. 180mins
C. 30 mins
D. 60 mins
Answer: D

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NO.15 How often will SecuRemote check for the availability of a VPN gateway by default?
A. 60 secs
B. 120 secs
C. 30 secs
D. 90 secs
Answer: A

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NO.16 CPMAD will try to connect to the LEA server a number of times before giving up. What
are the default values for the number of connection attempts and the time interval between
them?
A. 20 times with 30secs between attempts
B. 10 times with 60secs between attempts
C. 5 times with 60secs between attempts
D. 10 times with 10secs between attempts
Answer: B

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NO.17 What is true when using SEP high availability encryption topologies?
A. Gateways must use the same FW-1 build level
B. All of these
C. You must use a distributed installation of VPN-1/FW-1
D. Gateways must use the same platform and OS
E. Gateways must run identical policies
Answer: B

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NO.18 How much memory is reserved for the VPN-1/FW-1 kernel on a Nokia platform?
A. 5 MB
B. 15 MB
C. 3 MB
D. 10 MB
Answer: A

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NO.19 If CPMAD terminates, how can you restart it?
A. By using the GUI log client
B. It automatically starts itself
C. By using fw cpmadstart
D. By using fwstop/fwstart
Answer: D

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NO.20 What is the maximum limit to the number of secondary management modules allowed?
A. No limit
B. 4
C. 2
D. 1
E. 8
Answer: A

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NO.1 You want to upgrade a cluster with two members to VPN-1 NGK The SmartCenter
Server and both members are version VPN-1/FireWall-1 NG FP3, with the latest
Hotfix. What is the correct upgrade procedure?
1. Change the version, in the General Properties of the gateway-cluster object
2. Upgrade the SmartCenter Server, and reboot after upgrade
3. Run cpstop on one member, while leaving the other member running. Upgrade
one member at a time, and reboot after upgrade
4. Reinstall the Security Policy
A. 3,2,1,4
B. 2,4,3,1
C. 1,3,2,4
D. 2,3,1,4
E. 1,2,3,4
Answer: D

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NO.2 Eric wants to see all URLs' ful destination path in the SmartView Tracker logs, not
just the fully qualified domain name of the web servers. For Example, the
information field of a log entry displays the URL
http://hp.msn.com/css/home/hpcl1012.css. How can Eric best customize SmartView
Tracker to see the logs he wants? Configure the URl resource, and select
A. "transparent" asthe connection method
B. "tunneling"as the connection method
C. "optimize URL logging"; use the URI resource in the rule, with action "accept"
D. "Enforce URI capability"; use the URI resource in the rule,with action "accept"
Answer: C

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NO.3 You are reviewing SmartView Tracker entries, and see a Connection Rejection on a
Check Point QoS rule. What causes the Connection Rejection?
A. No QoS rule exists to match the rejected traffic
B. The number of guaranteed connections is exceeded. The rule's action properties are
not set to accept additional connections
C. The Constant Bit Rate for a Low Latency Class has been exceeded by greater than

NO.4 What do you use to view an NGX Security Gateway's status, including CPU use,
amount of virtual memory, percent of free hard-disk space, and version?
A. SmartLSM
B. SmartViewTracker
C. SmartUpdate
D. SmartViewMonitor
E. SmartViewStatus
Answer: D

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NO.5 In NGX, what happens if a Distinguished Name (ON) is NOT found in LADP?
A. NGX takes the common-name value from the Certificate subject, and searches the
LADP account unit for a matching user id
B. NGX searches the internal database for the username
C. The Security Gateway uses the subject of the Certificate as the ON for the initial
lookup
D. If the first request fails or if branches do not match, NGX tries to map the identity to
the user id attribute
E. When users authenticate with valid Certificates, the Security Gateway tries to map the
identities with users registered in the extemal LADP user database
Answer: D

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NO.6 By default, when you click File >- Switch Active File from SmartView Tracker, the
SmartCenter Server
A. Opens a new window with a previously saved log file
B. Purges the current log file, and starts a new log file
C. Purges the current log, and prompts you for the new log's mode
D. Saves the current log file, names the log file by date and time, and starts a new log file
E. Prompts you to enter a filename, then saves the log file
Answer: D

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NO.7 You want VPN traffic to match packets from internal interfaces. You also want the
traffic to exit the Security Gateway, bound for all site-to-site VPN Communities,
including Remote Access Communities. How should you configure the VPN match
rule?
A. Internal_clear>- All_GwToGw
B. Communities >- Communities
C. Internal_clear>- External_Clear
D. Internal_clear>- Communitis
E. Internal_clear>-All_communitis
Answer: E

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NO.8 After being authenticated by the Security Gateway, When a user starts an HTTP
connection to a Web site, the user tries to FTP to another site using the command
line. What happens to the user? The:
A. FTP session is dropped by the implicit Cleanup Rule
B. user is prompted from that FTP site on~, and does not need to enter username and
password for Client Authentication
C. FTP connection is dropped by rule2
D. FTP data connection is dropped, after the user is authenticated successfully
E. User is prompted for authentication by the Security Gateway aqain
Answer: B

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NO.9 Gail is the security administrator for a marketing firm. Gail is working with the
networking team, to troubleshoot user complaints regarding access to
audio-streaming material from the internet. The networking team asks Gail to
check the object and rule configuration settings for the perimeter Security Gateway.
Which SmartConsole application should Gail use to check these objects and rules?
A. SmartView Monitor
B. SmartUpdate
C. SmartViewTracker
D. SmartDashboard
E. SmartViewStatus
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following commands shows full synchronizalion status?
A. cphaprob -i list
B. cphastop
C. fw ctl pstat
D. cphaprob -a if
E. fw hastat
Answer: C

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NO.11 , and the Maximal Delay is set below requirements
D. Burst traffic matching the Default Rule is exhausting the Check Point QoS global
packet buffers
E. The guarantee of one of the rule's sub-rules exceeds the guarantee in the rule itself
Answer: B

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10.Choose the BEST sequence for configuring user management on Smart Dash board,
for use with an LDAP server
A. Enable LDAP in Global Properties, configure a host-node object for the LDAP Server,
and configure a server object for the LDAP Account Unit
B. Configure a workstation object for the LDAP server, configure a server object for the
LDAP Account Unit, and enable LDAP in Global Properties
C. Configure a server object for the LDAP Account Unit, enable LDAP in Global
Properties, and create an LDAP server using an OPSEC application
D. Configure a server object for the LDAP Account Unit, enable LDAP in Global
Properties, and create an LDAP resource object
E. Configure a server object for the LDAP Account Unit, and create an LDAP resource
object
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which mechanism is used to export Check Point logs to third party applications?
A. OPSE
B. CPLogManager
C. LEA
D. SmartViewTracker
E. ELA
Answer: C

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NO.13 Certkiller needs to back up the routing, interface, and DNS configuration
information from her NGX SecurePlatform Pro Security Gateway. Which
backup-and-restore solution do you recommend for Certkiller?
A. Database Revision Control
B. Manual copies of the $FWDIR/conf directory
C. upgrade_export and upgrade_import commands
D. SecurePlatformbackup utilities
E. Policy Package management
Answer: D

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NO.14 Review the following rules and note the Client Authentication Action properties
screen, as shown in the exhibit.
After being authenticated by the Security Gateway when a user starts an HTTP
connection to a Web site the user tries to FTP to another site using the command
line. What happens to the user?
The....
A. FTP session is dropprd by the implicit Cleanup Rule.
B. User is prompted from the FTP site only, and does not need to enter username nad
password for the Client Authentication.
C. FTP connection is dropped by rule 2.
D. FTP data connection is dropped, after the user is authenticated successfully.
E. User is prompted for authentication by the Security Gateway again.
Answer: B

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NO.15 You have two Nokia Appliances one IP530 and one IP380. Both Appliances have
IPSO 39 and VPN-1 Pro NGX installed in a distributed deployment Can they be
members of a gateway cluster?
A. No, because the Gateway versions must not be the same on both security gateways
B. Yes, as long as they have the same IPSO version and the same VPN-1 Pro version
C. No, because members of a security gateway cluster must be installed as stand-alone
deployments
D. Yes, because both gateways are from Nokia, whether they have the same VPN-1 PRO
version or not
E. No, because the appliances must be of the same model (Both should be
IP530orIP380.)
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which command allows you to view the contents of an NGX table?
A. fw tab -s <tablename>-
B. fw tab -t <tablename>-
C. fw tab -u <tablename>-
D. fw tab -a <tablename>-
E. fw tab -x <tablename>-
Answer: B

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NO.17 Ophelia is the security Administrator for a shipping company. Her company uses a
custom application to update the distribution database. The custom application
includes a service used only to notify remote sites that the distribution database is
malfunctioning. The perimeter Security Gateways Rule Base includes a rule to
accept this traffic. Ophelia needs to be notified, via atext message to her cellular
phone, whenever traffic is accepted on this rule. Which of the following options is
MOST appropriate for Ophelia's requirement?
A. User-defined alert script
B. Logging implied rules
C. SmartViewMonitor
D. Pop-up API
E. SNMP trap
Answer: A

CheckPoint   156-915   156-915   156-915

NO.18 You want to upgrade a SecurePlatform NG with Application Intelligence (AI) R55
Gateway to SecurePlalform NGX R60 via SmartUpdate. Which package is needed
in the repository before upgrading?
A. SVN Foundation and VPN-1 Express/Pro
B. VPN-1 and FireWall-1
C. SecurePlalform NGX R60
D. SVN Foundation
E. VPN-1 ProfExpress NGX R60
Answer: C

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NO.19 When you change an implicit rule's order from "last" to "first" in Global
Properties, how do you make the change effective?
A. Close SmartDashboard, and reopen it
B. Select install database from the Policy menu
C. Select save from the file menu
D. Reinstall the Security Policy
E. Run fw fetch from the Security Gateway
Answer: D

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NO.20 Jack's project is to define the backup and restore section of his organization's
disaster recovery plan for his organization's distributed NGX instaliation. Jack
must meet the following required and desired objectives .
* Required Objective The security policy repository must be backed up no less
frequent~ than every 24 hours
* Desired Objective The NGX components that enforce the Security Policies should
be backed up no less frequently than once a week
* Desired Objective Back up NGX logs no less frequently than once a week
Jack's disaster recovery plan is as follows. See exhibit.
Jack's plan:
A. Meets the required objective but does not meet either desired objective
B. Does not meet the required objective
C. Meets the required objective and only one desired objective
D. Meets the required objective and both desired objectives
Answer: D

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Explanation: Logs can be viewed after exported.

NO.21 Which of the following is the final step in an NGXbackup?
A. Test restoration in a non-production environment, using the upgrade_import command
B. Move the *.tgz file to another location
C. Run the upgrade_export command
D. Copy the conf directory to another location
E. Run the cpstop command
Answer: B

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NO.22 What is the command to see the licenses of the Security Gateway Certkiller from
your SmartCenter Server?
A. print Certkiller
B. fw licprint Certkiller
C. fw tab -t fwlic Certkiller
D. cplic print Certkiller
E. fw lic print Certkiller
Answer: D

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NO.23 Which of the following commands is used to restore NGX configuration
information?
A. cpcontig
B. cpinfo-i
C. restore
D. fwm dbimport
E. upgrade_import
Answer: E

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NO.24 Which VPN Community object is used to configure VPN routing within the
SmartDashboard?
A. Star
B. Mesh
C. Remote Access
D. Map
Answer: A

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NO.25 Select the correct statement about Secure Internal Communications (SIC)
Certificates? SIC Certificates:
A. for the SmartCenter Server are created during the SmartCenter Server configuration
B. decrease network security by securing administrative communication among the
SmartCenter Servers and the Security Gateway
C. for NGX Security Gateways are created during the SmartCenter Server installation
D. uniquely identify Check Point enabled machines; they have the same function as VPN
Certificates
E. are used for securing internal network communications between the SmartView
Tracker and an OPSEC device
Answer: D

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NO.26 You are preparing to configure your VolP Domain Gatekeeper object. Which two
other objects should you have created first?
A. An object to represent the IP phone network, AND an object to represent the host on
which the proxy is installed
B. An object to represent the PSTN phone network, AND an object to represent the IP
phone network
C. An object to represent the IP phone network, AND an object to represent the host on
which the gatekeeper is installed
D. An object to represent the Q931 service origination host, AND an object to represent
the H.245 termination host
E. An object to represent the call manager, AND an object to represent the host on which
the transmission router is installed
Answer: C

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NO.27 The following is cphaprobstate command output from a New Mode High
Availability cluster member:
Which machine has the highest priority?
A. 192.168.1.2,since its number is 2
B. 192.168.1.1,because its number is 1
C. This output does not indicate which machine has the highest priority
D. 192.168.1.2, because its state is active
Answer: B

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NO.28 You set up a mesh VPN Community, so your internal network can access your
partners network, and vice versa . Your Security Policy encrypts only FTP and
HTTP traffic through a VPN tunnel. All traffic among your internal and partner
networks is sent in clear text. How do you configure VPN Community?
A. Disable 'accept all encrypted traffic', and put FTP and http in the Excluded services in
the Community object Add a rule in the Security Policy for services FTP and http, with
the Community object in the VPN field
B. Disable "accept all encrypted traffic" in the Community, and add FTP and http
services to the Security Policy, with that Community object in the VPN field
C. Enable "accept all encrypted traffic", but put FTP and http in the Excluded services in
the Community. Add a rule in the Security Policy with services FTP and http, and the
Community object in theVPN field
D. Put FTP and http in the Excluded services in the Community object Then add a rule in
the Security Policy to allow any as the service, with the Community object in the VPN
field
Answer: B

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NO.29 Certkiller .com has two headquarters, one in London, one in new York. Each
headquarters includes several branch offices. The branch offices only need to
communicate with the headquarters in their country, not with each other, and only
the headquarters need to communicate directly. What is the BEST configuration for
VPN Communities among the branch offices and their headquarters, and between
the two headquarters? VPN Communities comprised of:
A. Two star and one mesh Community; each star Community is set up for each site, with
headquarters as the center of the Community, and branches as satellites. The mesh
Communities are between the New York and London headquarters
B. Three mesh Communities: one for London headquarters and its branches, one for New
York headquarters and its branches, and one for London and New York headquarters
C. Two mesh Communities, one for each headquarters and their branch offices; and one
star Community, in which London is the center of the Community and New York is the
satellite
D. Two mesh Communities, one for each headquarters and their branch offices; and one
star Community, where New York is the center of the Community and London is the
satellite
Answer: A

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NO.30 The following is cphaprob state command output from a ClusterXL New mode High
Availability member
When member 192.168.1.2 fails over and restarts, which member will become
actrve?
A. 192.168.1.2
B. 192.168.1.1
C. Both members' state will be standby
D. Both members' state will be active
Answer: B

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