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Exam Code: C_TSCM52_64
Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - Procurement with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP4)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-02

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NO.1 At what level can you set quantity and value updating on a material type?
A. Plant
B. Company code
C. Valuation area
D. Procurement type
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which assignment can be made for the organizational object "purchasing organization".?
A. A purchasing organization can be assigned to multiple company codes
B. A purchasing organization can be assigned to multiple controlling areas
C. A purchasing organization can be assigned to multiple plants
D. Multiple purchasing groups can be assigned to a purchasing organization
Answer: C

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NO.3 Before deliveries arrive from certain vendors, you want to be informed of the delivery date and quantity.
To do this, you use a confirmation control key.
Which of the following settings can you define in a confirmation control key?
A. Only the confirmed quantity can be posted when the goods are received.
B. Confirmations must be transmitted electronically.
C. The goods receipt can be posted no earlier than the confirmed delivery date.
D. The full confirmed quantity must be entered in one posting in the system.
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is mandatory in a purchase order for a non-valuated material?
A. Set the indicator for goods receipt.
B. Select an account assignment category and assign an account assignment object.
C. Set the indicator for non-valuated goods receipts.
D. Set the indicator for invoice receipt.
Answer: B

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NO.5 In which of the following cases is the goods receipt always posted as non-valuated?
A. Goods receipt for initial stock entry
B. Goods receipt to the stock of material provided to vendor
C. Goods receipt for a free-of-charge delivery
D. Goods receipt to the consignment stock
Answer: D

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NO.6 You procure a material using the "Consignment" process. You want to ensure that purchase requisitions
with the "Consignment" item category are generated automatically for requirements in requirements
planning.
Which of the following settings allows you to do this?
(Choose two.)
A. Enter "Consignment" as the special procurement type in the material master record.
B. Create a consignment info record for the relevant material and enter it as a fixed source of supply in the
source list.
C. Activate the quota arrangement for the relevant material and create a quota arrangement item using
"Consignment" as the special procurement type.
D. Create a consignment info record for the relevant material and select the "Regular Vendor" indicator in
the record.
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 Which field attribute is given the highest priority in the field selection control?
A. Optional field
B. Required entry field
C. Suppress
D. Display
Answer: C

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NO.8 You want to post a goods issue from stock in quality inspection. In which of the following cases is this
possible? (Choose two.)
A. Withdrawal for scrapping
B. Withdrawal for inspection sample
C. Withdrawal for a reservation
D. Withdrawal for a cost center
Answer: A,B

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NO.9 Which of the following elements belong to warehouse stock available for MRP in net requirement
calculation? (Choose three.)
A. Warehouse stock
B. On-order stock
C. Reorder point
D. Non-valuated goods receipt blocked stock
E. Fixed purchase requisitions
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.10 Your company manages stock of various advertising articles on a quantity and value basis. In the future,
you want to analyze the value of these advertising articles.
Unfortunately, the articles have been created with different material types, material groups, valuation
classes, and in different number range intervals.
For this reason, you want to change the assignments.
Which of the following changes are possible, even if stock exists for the articles?
A. You create a new material group and then change the material group of the advertising articles to the
new material group.
B. You create a new material type and then change the material type of the advertising articles to the new
material type.
C. You create a new valuation class and then change the valuation class of the advertising articles to the
new valuation class.
D. You create a new number range interval and then change the material numbers of the advertising
articles to a number in the new number range interval.
Answer: A

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NO.11 What does an account group determine when vendor master records are created?
(Choose three.)
A. The number range in which a vendor master record must be created for this account group
B. The default setting of the info update indicator in purchase orders for vendors in this account group
C. The field selection when a vendor master record is created for vendors in this account group
D. The interval of the number assignment (internal or external)
E. The sequence of tab pages when a vendor master record is created for vendors in this account group
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.12 From which stock type can goods issues to cost centers be posted?
A. Non-valuated blocked stock
B. Valuated blocked stock
C. Quality inspection stock
D. Unrestricted-use stock
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which of the following is a prerequisite for transfer postings between two materials ("material to
material")?
A. The materials being transferred must have the same valuation class.
B. The materials being transferred must have the same material type.
C. The materials being transferred must have the same material group.
D. The materials being transferred must have the same base unit of measure.
Answer: D

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NO.14 What can you define for a movement type in Customizing? (Choose two.)
A. The transactions in which a movement type can be used
B. The reversal movement types for a movement type
C. The quantity and value updates for postings with a movement type
D. The number range for material documents that are generated when postings are made with a
movement type
Answer: A,B

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NO.15 For a material without a material master record, a source of supply is to be found when a purchase
requisition is created.
You request 10 pallets of copier paper belonging to material group 4711.
Which of the following sources of supply is proposed by the system?
A. Value contract with item category W (material group) for articles of material group 4711
B. Value contract for material 4711
C. SRM central contract with item category M (material unknown) for 100 tons of copier paper of material
group 4711
D. Quantity contract for over 500 pallets of copier paper for a stock material that belongs to material group
4711
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP2-T14
Exam Name: HP (Servicing HP ProLiant ML/DL Servers Rev 8.31)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 86 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-01

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NO.1 .You want to determine if the battery on the array accelerator board has failed. Which
offline tool run from the SmartStart CD shows if the battery is in an error state?
A. RBSU
B. ORCA
C. OARS
D. ADU
Answer: D

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NO.2 .After resolving a problem at a customer site, you plan to provide a report to the customer.
Your report will include details about the root cause of the problem and what the
documented fix or fixes were. What else should you provide as part of the HP
Troubleshooting Methodology? (Select two.)
A. recommendations of preventive measures to take
B. the root cause of the problem and the person or group that should be held responsible for
causing it
C. recommendations of upgrades that would increase system performance
D. a current copy of SmartStart
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 .Which ProLiant Essential add-on pack can perform an unattended install of VMWare ESX
3.0?
A. Rapid Deployment Pack (RDP)
B. Remote Deployment Utility (RDU)
C. Server Migration Pack (SMP)
D. Virtual Machine Management Pack (VMM)
Answer: A

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NO.4 .The blue light on an HP ProLiant server is flashing. What does this indicate?
A. The server is being remotely managed through iLO.
B. The server has sustained a failure in a redundant component
C. The server has recently sustained a thermal shutdown.
D. The server is in an ASR state.
Answer: A

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NO.5 .For which ProLiant server series does IPMI serve as the management interface?
A. DL100
B. DL300
C. DL500
D. DL700
Answer: A

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NO.6 What is a characteristic of the shared-nothing cluster model, like the one used for the
Windows 2003 failover cluster?
A. shared-cache
B. shared-memory
C. shared-disk
D. shared-everything
Answer: C

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NO.7 .Which filesystem does VMWare ESX Server use to contain its virtual machines?
A. NTFS
B. VMFS
C. VMS
D. VMDK
Answer: B

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NO.8 .What is the primary value proposition of the HP ProLiant ML Server family?
A. most supported processor sockets
B. faster adoption of newer technologies as they become available
C. extra redundancy usually found in Integrity class servers
D. largest internal storage option
Answer: D

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NO.9 .Where is Selective Storage Presentation configured for MSA iSCSI and fiber storage
arrays?
A. RBSU
B. ACU
C. ORCA
D. SmartStart
Answer: B

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NO.10 .What does the HP Subscriber's Choice service provide?
A. an optional driver delivery site for a single server, much like Windows Update
B. proactive notification of critical updates and product changes for ProLiant servers
C. New Product Introduction (NPI) and notification services
D. a host site for the Version Control Repository Manager (VCRM) from which to acquire
drivers and ProLiant Support Packs (PSPs)
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP0-S26
Exam Name: HP (Integrating and Managing HP ProLiant ML/DL/SL Servers)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 116 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-01

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NO.1 Which utility is used to create an output file containing information about the disk controller order on a
reference server that can be used for replication?
A. ORCA
B. CONREP
C. ADU
D. CPQDISK
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which services do you need installed to use the HP Insight Rapid Deployment software (RDP)
Deployment Server Web Console? (Select two.)
A. ASP.NET.
B. WAIK 2.1
C. Framework.net 2.0
D. Framework.net 1.1
E. IIS
Answer: A,E

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NO.3 Which statement is true about SAN/Fabric Switch Care Pack service level support?
A. It need not be uplifted to match existing storage or server service level.
B. SAN/Fabric switches, ProLiant c-Class BladeSystems and enclosures are covered by separate Care
Packs.
C. SAN/Fabric switches, ProLiant c-Class BladeSystems and enclosures are covered by the Care Pack.
D. It does not cover the Ethernet interconnect and virtual connect modules.
Answer: B

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NO.4 A customer wants you to create a third LUN on a connected MSA2000. After you do this, what must you
do to make it visible to the host within the Windows operating system? (Select two.)
A. Enable BIOS on the first and (if available) second fc-adapter.
B. Present the LUN with the WWN number of the FC card installed in the server.
C. Boot the connected server from SmartStart 8.x, use Array Configuration Utility, and allow the host to
access the new LUN.
D. Restart your server or select Disk Management, right-click, and select Rescan Disk.
E. Add the new LUN-WWN to zoning of the fc-fabric.
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 Which tool is best suited to replicate the RBSU settings across multiple ProLiant DL300 Series servers?
A. HP SIM
B. RDU
C. ACU
D. CONREP
Answer: D

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NO.6 What does an HP SIM CMS running on Windows use to record various error, warning, and informational
events that occur during runtime?
A. Windows Event Log
B. HP SIM Select Options ? Events
C. System Management Homepage
D. CPQSetup.log
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which agent is used for HP Insight Rapid Deployment software (RDP) on Windows Server 2008?
A. DAClient
B. AClient
C. DAgent
D. ADLAgent
Answer: C

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NO.8 You are adding a second Serial Attached SCSI (SAS) Small Form Factor (SFF) drive cage to a ProLiant
ML350 G6 Server. The server has a Smart Array 410i Controller. The customer has ordered the cage,
cables and drives. Why are you unable to complete this task?
A. The second drive cage installation requires a SAS expander board.
B. The second drive cage installation requires all eight inch SAS cables.
C. The SA410i does not support this configuration.
D. The SA410i must have a 512MB with BBWC option installed.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which changes to clustering are included in Windows Server 2008? (Select two.)
A. Clusters are x64-based and now support up to 32 nodes.
B. Cluster nodes can have their IP addresses assigned by DHCP.
C. Geographically dispersed clusters cannot span subnets.
D. Failover clusters are built around a more resilient and customizable quorum model.
E. GUID partition table (GPT) disks are not supported.
Answer: B,D

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NO.10 How does the standard warranty on a ProLiant DL165 Server differ from that of a ProLiant DL320
Server?
A. There is no difference in warranty terms between the DL165 and DL320.
B. No onsite support for DL165; 3 years onsite support for the DL320
C. 3 years parts and labor for the DL165; 1 year parts and labor for the DL320
D. 1 year parts and labor for the DL165; 3 years parts and onsite labor for the DL320
Answer: B

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Exam Name: HP (Securing HP ProCurve Networks)
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Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-01

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NO.1 Which role does the authenticator play in the 802.1X authentication process?
A. It encapsulates an EAP-access-request inside of a RADIUS response-identity packet and forwards it
for validation.
B. It creates and sends an access-challenge message to the supplicant to request client credentials.
C. It provides two-way translation between EAP messages and RADIUS messages.
D. It validates the EAP-identity-request and responds with either an accept or reject message.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Network security can be described in terms of multiple layers of security. The DHCP Spoofing and
Dynamic ARP Protection features correspond to which layer?
A. infrastructure protection
B. network immunity protection
C. device-to-device authentication
D. network access control
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which statement is correct about the threat mitigation capabilities of ProCurve NIM?
A. NIM can apply a threat mitigation action to supported infrastructure devices.
B. NIM can mitigate threats detected by NBAD, but must only log other threats.
C. NIM can detect threats but relies on an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) to mitigate them.
D. NIM can mitigate threats from wired offenders, but not wireless offenders.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Click the Exhibit button.
Which image in the exhibit shows an invalid NIM + IDS deployment?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is the default state of a Port Access Entity configured for IEEE 802.1X port-access
authentication?
A. disabled
B. authorized
C. restricted
D. idle
E. unauthorized
Answer: E

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NO.6 Which statement is correct about the ProCurve ProActive Defense strategy?
A. It operates at a safe distance from the points of attack and the network resources being attacked.
B. It achieves better-performing, more scalable networks by using high capacity core resources.
C. It enforces access and policy decisions where users and applications connect to the network.
D. It creates a cost-effective management framework by using core infrastructure protection measures.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Click the Exhibit button.
Which alert shown in the exhibit is the least sensitive?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which infrastructure defense capabilities are provided by the ProCurve ProActive Defense network
security solution? (Select two.)
A. vulnerability assessment database
B. connection rate filtering
C. spoofing protection of DHCP traffic
D. managed security services
E. phishing protection
Answer: BC

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NO.9 Network security can be described in terms of multiple layers of security. Which security layer does an
unauthorized VLAN correspond to?
A. network access control
B. network immunity protection
C. control protocol detection
D. device-to-device authentication
Answer: A

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NO.10 What is the intended purpose of the default traffic sampling action?
A. to help PCM+/NIM periodically begin to monitor new ports
B. to prevent ProCurve NIM from triggering false positives
C. to send traffic for increased analysis to an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)
D. to allow ProCurve NIM to take immediate action against the most probable threats
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP2-E28
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP Virtualization Solutions)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 78 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-01

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NO.1 Power failures within the data center are best addressed by what type of solution?
A. network security
B. data consolidation
C. business continuity
D. software as a service
Answer: C

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NO.2 What are the key features of the HP SAN Virtualization Services Platform (SVSP)? (Select two.)
A. synchronous remote replication
B. storage pooling across heterogeneous arrays
C. active/active failover on the Data Path Modules (DPM)
D. elimination o downtime to perform data migrations across arrays
E. the ability to import and export LUNs from the native array into SVSP
Answer: B,C

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NO.3 How would you best describe virtualization to a CEO focused on business issues?
A. It is an amalgamation of multiple network storage devices into a single unit.
B. The layering of applications allows computing resources to be distributed dynamically in real time.
C. It is the partitioning of a physical server into smaller virtual servers in support of business and IT
objectives.
D. It is an approach to IT that pools and shares resources so utilization is optimized and supply
automatically meets demand.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Greater than fifty percent of thin clients shipped by HP are deployed in support of which vendor's virtual
machine software solutions?
A. Citrix
B. RedHat
C. Microsoft
D. VMWare
Answer: D

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NO.5 HP Adaptive Infrastructure is a component in what major HP strategy?
A. Infrastructure virtualization
B. Business Technology portfolio
C. Business Services Management
D. Business Information Optimization
Answer: A

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NO.6 Blade servers currently represent about what percentage of industry-wide x86 server revenue?
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 35%
D. 45%
Answer: B

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NO.7 What is the fastest growing storage connectivity technology?
A. DAS
B. iSCSI
C. ESCON
D. Fibre Channel
Answer: B

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NO.8 Your analysis of a customer environment is that their IT departments prefer to dedicate one server per
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A. consolidation
B. network storage
C. business continuity
D. mainframe migration
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP2-Z06
Exam Name: HP (HP ProCurve AIS 2010 Delta Exam)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-01

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NO.1 Which HP ProCurve switch model display the following prompt in the interface configuration context?
ProCurve Switch(eth-Cl) #
A. 2910al
B. 3500yl
C. 4200vl
D. 3400cl
E. 2610
Answer: C

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NO.2 You must define a hostname of PCU5406zl-01 on an HP ProCurve 5406zl switch. Which CLI prompt
and command will perform this task?
A. ProCurve Switch 5406zl (config) # hostname PCU5406zl-01
B. ProCurve Switch 5406zl # hostname PCU5406zl-01
C. ProCurve switch 5406zl (vlan-1) # hostname PCU5406zl-01
D. ProCurve switch 5406zl > hostname PCU5406zl-01
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which command entered at the CLI of an HP ProCurve switch with factory default settings will move
you from Operator privilege to the Manger privilege level?
A. ProCurve Switch> manager
B. ProCurve Switch> super user
C. ProCurve Switch> enable
D. ProCurve Switch> elevate
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which HP ProCurve switch models display the following prompt in the Interface configuration context?
(Select three.)
ProCurve Swicch(eth-1)#
A. 2910al
B. 4200vl
C. 5400zl
D. 6200yl
E. 2610
F. 8200zl
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.5 Which options are available at the following prompt in the CLI of an HP ProCurve 3500yl switch? (Select
three.)
3500yl-24G>
A. ping6
B. reload
C. write
D. show
E. enable
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.6 You are at the manager level prompt in the CLI of an HP ProCurve 3500yl switch. At this prompt you can
choose to update switch software and erase the startup configuration. What other option is available at
this prompt?
A. disable ports
B. assign IP address to VLAN interface
C. restart the switch
D. enable IP routing
Answer: C

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NO.7 You must configure an IP interface on an HP ProCurve switch. Which privilege level and CLI context will
enable you to perform this task?
A. administrator privilege level and router context
B. operator privilege level and IP address context
C. super user privilege level and CLIpassthrough context
D. manager privilege level and VLAN context
Answer: D

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NO.8 What are the advantages of deploying 802.11n wireless technology instead of 802.11a
technology? (Select two)
A. 5Ghz operating frequency
B. support for centralized WLAN architecture
C. backward compatibility with 802.11b
D. higher transmission rates
E. more powerful encryption options
Answer: C,D

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Exam Code: HP0-J38
Exam Name: HP (Designing and Implementing HP Enterprise Backup Solutions)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 85 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-01

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NO.1 You are proposing a disaster tolerant solution to your customer. Which factors should you consider
when estimating the cost of data loss? (Select three.)
A.size of the backup and restore window
B.type of backup, image based or file based
C.cost of downtime while recreating data
D.ability to recreate the data
E.effect on customer and supplier satisfaction
F.average amount of lost data
Answer: C, D, E

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NO.2 You are implementing an ESL E-Series tape library. What is the maximum number of drives supported
per drive cluster?
A.2
B.4
C.8
D.16
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is the difference between a normal full backup and a copy full backup?
A.A normal full backup backs up files and resets the archive bit. A copy full backup does not.
B.A normal full backup always uses the last access time to determine if the file needs backing up. The
copy full backup uses the archive bit.
C.A copy full backup is a replica of a normal full backup.
D.A copy full backup is image based. A normal full backup is file based.
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the expected growth rate of the Storage Media Operations database?
A.100MB for every 2000 tapes
B.100MB for every 10,000 tapes
C.1GB for every 1000 tapes
D.2GB for every 10,000 tapes
Answer: B

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NO.5 To protect against data loss, companies must develop and follow backup and restore
strategies. Which questions can be used to determine the approporiate backup strategy?
(Select three.)
A.What is the size of the restore window?
B.Where is the data located?
C.Which type of tape device is used?
D.Is full or partial backup required?
E.Which type of storage is used?
F.Is the data image based or file based?
Answer: A, D, F

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