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Exam Code: P2090-080
Exam Name: IBM ISW-9.7 & Smart Analytics Technical Mastery Test v1
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Exam Code: A2040-920
Exam Name: Assessment: IBM WebSphere Portal 7.0 Deployment and Administration
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Exam Code: A2040-406
Exam Name: Assessment: IBM Notes and Domino 9.0 Social Edition System Administration A
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NO.1 Which hidden view in the Domain Catalog can an administrator use to find which databases
are included in the domain index?
A. $MultiDbIndex
B. $DbCategories
C. $DocumentContent
D. $DomainRepository
Answer: A

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NO.2 When a user tries to access a database on a server that is unavailable, IBM Domino will
attempt to redirect the user to a replica of the database on another server in the cluster. Which
Domino server task determines the availability on each cluster server?
A. Server Balancer
B. Cluster Manager
C. Failover Manager
D. Workload Balancer
Answer: B

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NO.3 What can a user do from the Discover Page?
A. Search her mail file for information she would like to find.
B. Search her entire desktop for information she would like to find.
C. See e-mails, posts, and other data that she may find interesting based on the integrated analytics
engine.
D. See information about new features, get helpful hints on using IBM Notes, and quickly access her
Notes applications.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Kaitlin has had DAOS running for a few months on her server, but now wishes to change where
the files are stored. How can she do this?
A. This is not possible. Once the DAOS service is configured the location of the repository cannot be
moved.
B. Update the "DAOS base path" field in the Server document to the new location. Restart the server.
The files will automatically be copied to the new location.
C. Update the "DAOS base path" field in the Server document to the new location. Stop the server.
Copy the files from the old directory to the new location at the operating-system level. Restart the
server.
D. Stop the server. Create a linked folder in the current DAOS repository location pointing at the new
destination. Copy the files from the old directory to the new location at the operating-system level.
Restart the server.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Katie has set up a Resource Reservations database and would like to allow certain users to
create resource documents. How should she do this?
A. No further action is required. All users can create resources by default.
B. List the users' names in the access control list (ACL) of the Resource Reservations database.
C. List the users' names in the ACL of the Resource Reservations database and assign them the
[ResourceAdmin] role.
D. List the users' names in the ACL of the Resource Reservations database and assign them the
[CreateResource] role.
Answer: D

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NO.6 An administrator wants to install an IBM Domino server on multiple machines with no user
intervention. How can this be achieved?
A. Make use of the Domino silent install.
B. Run the Domino server install from a command prompt.
C. Run the Domino installation multiple times from each machine.
D. Install the Domino server on one machine and then copy the files to the remaining machines.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Craig administers two IBM Domino servers: DomServerA and DomServerB. He's recently had
to change the hostname of DomServerB, and since then DomServerA is no longer able to connect to
it. What is a likely explanation for this?
A. The hostname cache on DomServerA needs to be flushed.
B. DomServerA needs to be restarted in order to see DomServerB's new hostname.
C. DomServerA needs the hostname of DomServerB changed in its Connection document.
D. DomServerB needs the hostname of DomServerA changed in its Connection document.
Answer: C

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NO.8 What type of Web Site rule can be used to provide user-friendly aliases for complex URLs?
A. Rewrite
B. Directory
C. Redirection
D. Substitution
Answer: D

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Exam Name: IBM Curam V6 Development
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Exam Code: C2180-401
Exam Name: IBM WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment V8.5.5 and Liberty Profile, System Administration
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Exam Code: A2040-412
Exam Name: Assessment: IBM Notes Traveler Administration
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Exam Code: A2010-578
Exam Name: Assess: Fundamentals of Applying Tivoli Service Availability/Performance Management Solutions V3
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NO.1 IBM Notes Traveler mobile client to server traffic is secured over which protocol?
A. Secure Socket Layer (SSL)
B. Post Office Protocol 3 (POP3)
C. HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP)
D. Notes Remote Procedure Call (NRPC)
Answer: A

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NO.2 What could be a reason an IBM Notes Traveler server shows "constrained"?
A. The LDAP server used by Notes Traveler is offline.
B. assigning 500 devices to a 32-bit Notes Traveler server
C. assigning 100 power user devices to a 32-bit Notes Traveler server
D. exact operating system versions of the devices attached to the server
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is the minimum number of servers recommended for an IBM Notes Traveler 9.0 Service
Pool, IBM Domino mail and database server with high availability for all components on Microsoft
Windows or Linux platforms?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 11
Answer: C

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NO.4 Charles wants to determine that his server is tuned properly for the number of concurrent
IBM Notes Traveler devices. He has run the console command Tell Traveler Stat Show. Which status
will he use to evaluate the number of devices?
A. HTTP .MaxThreads
B. Sync.Devices.Total
C. Push.Devices.Total
D. HTTP .MaxActiveThreads
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is required to automate the fail over process from on an IBM Notes Traveler server to
another while not in the same service pool?
A. Users must reinstall Notes Traveler on their devices.
B. A front-end proxy like IBM Mobile Connect is needed.
C. Users can enter multiple Notes Traveler devices in the settings section of their mobile devices.
D. IBM WebSphere Deployment Manager must be installed to allow both Notes Traveler servers to
communicate.
Answer: B

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NO.6 After deploying IBM Notes Traveler 9.0, Nancy wants to connect the servers to her IBM DB2
high availability environment in order to also provide high availability for the database. How would
she do this on a Linux server?
A. ./travelerUtil db set user=LNTUSER pw=passw0rd
B. travelerUtil db set
url=jdbc:sqlserver://db1.ibm.com:1433;databasename=TRAVELERuser=LNTUSER pw=passw0rd
C. travelerUtil db set url=jdbc:db2://db1.ibm.com:50000/TRAVELER user=db2admin pw=passw0rd
D. travelerUtil db set
url=jdbc:db2://db1.ibm.com:50000/TRAVELER:clientRerouteAlternateServerName=db2.ibm.com;c
lientRerouteAlternatePortNumber=50000;retryIntervalForClientReroute=10;maxRetriesForClientR
eroute=3; user=db2adminpw=passw0rd
Answer: D

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NO.7 Once IBM Notes Traveler servers are put into production, what average percentage should the
CPU be below?
A. 65
B. 75
C. 85
D. 95
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which option describes how a load balancer is used for an IBM Notes Traveler High Availability
(HA) implementation?
A. secures connections between Notes Traveler servers and IBM Domino mail servers
B. spreads the user to server connections across multiple Notes Traveler HA Pool members
C. balances mail server traffic between Notes Traveler servers and clustered Domino mail servers
D. spreads large amounts of data across multiple Notes Traveler servers when users are
synchronizing a large attachment to a device
Answer: B

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Exam Code: C2170-051
Exam Name: IBM i2 Analyst Notebook V8.9
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NO.1 A researcher wants to move a Legend to another area on a chart. How can the Legend be
moved to the new area?
A. Right-click and drag.
B. Hold the Ctrl key and drag.
C. Change the Legend Properties to "Free".
D. Click the Edit button within Legend Items.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following is NOT a built-in dissemination tool?
A. Export to PDF
B. Save as spreadsheet
C. Send (as email attachment)
D. Save complete chart as picture
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following graphic types CANNOT be used to add a photo to an entity?
A. Portable Bitmap Format (.pbm)
B. Portable Network Graphics (.png)
C. File Interchange Format (.jpg, .jpeg)
D. Device Independent Bitmaps (.bmp, .dib)
Answer: A

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NO.4 An intelligence analyst has just created a new custom attribute. However, when the analyst
inputs the data, only the Attribute Symbol is displayed on the chart and not the data entered. Which
of the following actions would allow the data to be displayed?
A. Change the attribute type to "Number".
B. Select "Show All" under the View tool bar.
C. Check the "Value" box under the attribute class properties.
D. Check the "Show on Chart" box under the attribute class properties.
Answer: C

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NO.5 An analyst is creating a chart to show the order in which telephone calls took place. The
analyst adds the date and time of the call to the link, but cannot make the link controlling. Why is
that option NOT available?
A. Links can never be made controlling.
B. The duration of the call is also required.
C. Links can only be made controlling between Theme Lines.
D. Links can only be made controlling between Event Frames.
Answer: C

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NO.6 An intelligence analyst has been given an association chart with telephones and telephone call
links. The analyst would like to see the calls placed in time and date order, so the analyst decides to
change the chart into a timeline. How can the analyst change the telephone entities on the chart?
A. Change the Entity Type to Theme Line
B. Change the Entity Type to Event Frame
C. Change the Entity Representation to Theme Line
D. Change the Entity Representation to Event Frame
Answer: C

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NO.7 Frames can be used to draw attention to key entities. Which of the following is NOT a reason
to use frames in a chart?
A. To distinguish groups of entities.
B. To map entities to Google Earth.
C. To indicate entities with shared attributes as a result of applying Conditional Formatting.
D. To change the appearance of entities selected using analysis tools such as filtering or Social
Network Analysis.
Answer: B

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NO.8 An intelligence analyst is working on a case and needs to present a chart with a set of phone
calls between two suspects. Which of the following would allow the analyst to automatically align
the links to the Time Bar, in the correct chronological sequence?
A. Enter the Date and Time, and set to Ordered.
B. Enter the Date and Time, and set to Controlling.
C. Enter a Description of Date and Time, and set to Ordered.
D. Enter a Description of Date and Time, and set to Controlling.
Answer: B

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NO.1 What are two purposes of using components in Composer? (Choose two.)
A. for aesthetics
B. for granular application of security
C. for organization
D. for troubleshooting purposes
Answer: B,C

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NO.2 How does information from the Web client reach the database server?
A. from the Admin client
B. from the Web Application server
C. from the CognosICMService
D. from the Web Application server to the CognosICMService
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is the impact of locking model calendars?
A. It affects calculations partitioned by the same calendar.
B. It has no effect on any calculations in the model.
C. It affects every calculation in the model regardless of calendars used.
D. It only affects calculations related to payout.
Answer: A

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NO.4 In which two situations would you perform the Optimize Model function? (Choose two.)
A. When a large volume of data has been imported.
B. When calculations have been modified.
C. When a calendar period has been locked.
D. When a large number of admin client users have been added.
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 When using an effective dated table as a source for a calculation, which two statements are
true? (Choose two.)
A. Join start and end date of the effective dated table to a single date.
B. Join the calendar table to the effective dated table.
C. Join on both effective dates.
D. Join an effective dated table to another effective dated table (not Time).
Answer: A,C

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NO.6 Click the Exhibit button.
In Presenter, when preparing data sources for the report shown in the exhibit, which type of source
must be created to produce the subtotals by payee?
A. Data Source
B. Subtotal Source
C. Aggregate Transformation
D. Computed Row
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which table type is built by joining one or more tables and calculations together?
A. Data
B. Hierarchy
C. Custom
D. View
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which table property can be changed after it is saved?
A. name
B. description
C. primary key
D. type
Answer: B

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NO.1 Which keyword is used to determine whether a comparison is true for every value returned from a sub
query?
A. NOT
B. ALL
C. SOME
D. EVERY
Answer: B

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NO.2 User A creates a user defined routine. Which privilege must be granted to other users before they can
use user A's UDR?
A. select on the tables used in the procedure
B. execute on the procedure
C. DBA on the database
D. resource on the database
Answer: B

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NO.3 Why would you want to create a table with a lock mode row as opposed to a lock mode page?
A. to have the highest level of contention within transactions operating on the table
B. to reduce the number of locks when accessing rows out of the table
C. to have increased concurrency
D. to keep more information in memory for each locked row
Answer: C

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NO.4 Enterprise Replication (ER) requires which data object to exist in all tables participating in replication?
A. a virtual column
B. a unique index
C. a unique constraint
D. a primary key
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which three statements will delete all rows from table_name? (Choose three.)
A. DELETE FROMtable_name ;
B. DELETEtable_name ;
C. DELETE * FROMtable_name ;
D. TRUNCATE TABLEtable_name ;
E. DELETE ALL FROMtable_name;
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.6 In a SELECT statement, the clauses must appear in which order?
A. Projection, FROM, WHERE, ORDER BY, GROUP BY, HAVING, INTO TEMP
B. Projection, FROM, WHERE, HAVING, ORDER BY, GROUP BY, INTO TEMP
C. Projection, FROM, WHERE, GROUP BY, HAVING, ORDER BY, INTO TEMP
D. Projection, FROM, INTO TEMP, WHERE, HAVING, ORDER BY, GROUP BY
Answer: C

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NO.7 What are two ways to create table t1 with row level locking? (Choose two.)
A. Execute command "create table t1 (c1int) locking row".
B. Execute command "create table t1 (c1int) lock mode row".
C. Execute command "create table t1 (c1int) lock level row".
D. Set DEF_TABLE_LOCKMODE to ROW in ONCONFIG before executing "create tablet1(c1 int)".
Answer: B,D

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NO.8 You can use a "role" to enforce which two kinds of security or access control in an instance and/or its
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A. Access to data within a table at a row and column level.
B. Access to data based on the types of tasks to be performed.
C. Control which user(s) may or may not create databases.
D. Control which user(s) may or may not execute administrative functions.
Answer: B,D

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NO.1 A DLP administrator needs to decide if using Symantec Management Console (SMC) will
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Overview > Summary Reports.
What are two of the Agent Actions that can be performed with SMC that are unable to be used with
the built-in Agent Actions? (Select two.)
A. Set Under Investigation
B. Get Agent Configuration
C. Toggle Print Screen
D. Set Log Level
E. Gather Endpoint detection server logs
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NO.2 Which two operating systems are supported for Symantec Data Loss Prevention 12 servers?
(Select two.)
A. Windows 2003 Enterprise Edition 64-bit
B. Red Hat Linux 5 Enterprise 64-bit
C. Windows 2008 Server 32-bit
D. Red Hat Linux 6 Enterprise 64-bit
E. Windows 2008 R2 Enterprise Edition 64-bit
Answer: B,E

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NO.3 While encapsulating a disk, you discover that a volume is removed as a part of the existing
configuration. You want to restore the data on the disk as it was before removal of the disk. As the
first step, you recreate the volume using the vxdg make command.
What should you do next?
A. Replace the disk
B. Restore the plexes on the volume
C. Restore the data on the volume
D. Start the hot-relocation process
Answer: C

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NO.4 While working under Veritas Volume Manager, you want to put a disk under the Veritas
Volume Manager control. You execute the command vxdiskadd c0t1d0.
What is the result of this command?
A. The command puts first disk under VxVM control on the first controller.
B. The command initializes second disk on the first controller.
C. The command encapsulates the second disk on the first controller.
D. The command checks for the disks can be encapsulated.
Answer: B

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NO.5 An administrator is applying a newly created agent configuration to an Endpoint server. Upon
inspection, the new configuration is unassigned in the Endpoint Server Details.
What is a possible cause for the new configuration failing to be assigned?
A. the system default settings were saved to the new agent configuration
B. the server that the new agent configuration was applied to needs to be recycled
C. the new agent configuration was saved without applying it to the Endpoint server
D. the new agent configuration was copied and modified from the default agent configuration
Answer: C

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NO.6 An administrator is attempting to add a new detection server to the Enforce UI. However, the
administrator only has the ability to add Network Monitor and Endpoint servers. The option to add
a Discover server is missing. What does the administrator need to do to add an additional server
type?
A. log in as Sys Admin/Server Administrator role
B. update the software license file
C. restart the Vontu Monitor service
D. restart Vontu Monitor Controller service
Answer: B

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NO.7 What causes the majority of data loss prevention violations?
A. hackers exploit vulnerabilities and exfiltrate confidential data
B. companies lack security policies to prevent loss of confidential data
C. employees unintentionally expose confidential data
D. system backups are performed improperly
Answer: C

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NO.8 You need to create a traditional third-mirror breakoff snapshot in disk group "testdg" on a
volume named "testvol". You've used the vxassist command to start the creation of the snapshot,
synchronizing in the background.
How do you determine whether the snapshot is ready?
A. Use "vxprint -g testdg -ht testvol" to display the status of testvol, and check the STATE column of
the vxprint output; if the snapshot plex is ready, its state will be "ACTIVE".
B. Use "vxprint -g testdg -ht testvol" to display the status of testvol, and check the STATE column of
the vxprint output; if the snapshot plex is ready, its state will be "SNAPATT".
C. Use "vxprint -g testdg -ht testvol" to display the status of testvol, and check the STATE column of
the vxprint output; if the snapshot plex is ready, its state will be "SNAPDONE".
D. Use "vxprint -g testdg testvol" to display the status of testvol, and check the STATE column of the
vxprint output; if the snapshot plex is ready, its state will be "SNAPATT".
Answer: C

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NO.1 You want to track and store all transactional changes to a table over its lifetime.
To accomplish this task, you enabled Flashback Data Archive with the retention of 5 years.
After some time, the business requirement changed and you were asked to change the
retention from 5 years to 3 years.
To accomplish this, you issued the following command:
ALTER FLASHBACK ARCHIVE fla1 MODIFY RETENTION 3 YEAR;
What is the implication of this command?
A. The command produces an error because the retention time cannot be reduced.
B. All historical data is retained but the subsequent flashback data archives are maintained for only
three years.
C. All historical data is purged and the new flashback data archives are maintained for three years.
D. All historical data older than three years is purged from the flashback archive FLA1.
Answer: D

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resource allocation is optimum as desired by the activity.
How would you achieve this?
A. Implement job classes
B. Implement Scheduler windows
C. Implement the mapping rule for the consumer groups
D. Set the SWITCH_TIME resource plan directive for both the resource plans
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which data dictionary view would you query to find the name of the default permanent
tablespace of the database?
A. DICTIONARY
B. DBA_TABLESPACES
C. DBA_DIRECTORIES
D. DBA_STORED_SETTINGS
E. DATABASE_PROPERTIES
F. DBA_TABLESPACE_GROUPS
Answer: E

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NO.4 You issued the following commands to configure settings in RMAN:
RMAN> CONFIGURE DEVICE TYPE sbt PARALLELISM 1;
RMAN> CONFIGURE DEFAULT DEVICE TYPE TO Sbt;
RMAN> CONFIGURE DATAFILE BACKUP COPIES FOR DEVICE TYPE sbt TO 2;
RMAN> CONFIGURE ARCHIVELOG BACKUP COPIES FOR DEVICE TYPE sbt TO 2;
RMAN> CONFIGURE DATAFILE BACKUP COPIES FOR DEVICE TYPE DISK TO 2;
Then you issued the following command to take the backup:
RMAN> BACKUP DATABASE PLUS ARCHIVELOG;
Which statement is true about the execution of the above command?
A. The backup will terminate because the FORMAT clause was not configured for the channel
B. It backs up two copies of data files to tape and disk, and two copies of archived log file on tape
C. It backs up the data files and archived log files to disk, making two copies of each data file and
archived logfile
D. It backs up the data files and archived log files to tape, making two copies of each data file and
archived logfile
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which statements are true regarding system-partitioned tables? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Only a single partitioning key column can be specified.
B. All DML statements must use partition-extended syntax.
C. The same physical attributes must be specified for each partition.
D. Unique local indexes cannot be created on a system-partitioned table.
E. Traditional partition pruning and partitionwise joins are not supported on these tables.
Answer: D,E

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NO.6 Examine these Data Pump commands to import objects to non-existent users hr1 and oe1.
S expdp system/manager Schemas =hr,oe directory =EXP_ DIR include = table
$ impdp system/manager Schemas = hr1,oe1 Directory = EXP_DIR Dumpfile = export.dat
Remap_schema =hr:hr1,oe :oe1
What would be achieved by running the above commands?
A. expdp will fail because no path has been defined for the dumpfile.
B. expdp will succeed but Impdp will fail because users do not exist.
C. impdp will create two users called hrl and oe1 and import all objects to the new schemas
D. impdp will create two users called hrl and oe1 and import tables owned by hr and oe schemas to
hr1 and oe1 schemas, respectively.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which three tasks can be performed using a duplicate database? (Choose three.)
A. Testing the backup and recovery procedures
B. Testing the upgrade of an Oracle database to a new release
C. Testing the effect of an application changes on database performance
D. Continuously updating archive log files from the target database to support failover
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.8 Identify two options that Oracle recommends while configuring the backup and recovery
environment for your recovery catalog. (Choose two.)
A. configuring control file autobackup to be ON
B. backing up data filed only and not the archived redo log files
C. running the recovery catalog database in NOARCHIVELOG mode.
D. setting the retention policy to a REDUNDANCY value greater than 1
E. backing up the recovery catalog to the same disk as that of the target database
Answer: A,D

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NO.1 Which of the following regulations is driving the adoption of risk management analytics for
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A. Sarbanes Oxley
B. Solvency II
C. Basel III
D. Alternative Investment Fund Managers Directive (AIFMD)
Answer: D

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NO.2 How does Algorithmics provides solutions to retain and attract business?
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B. Through reducing latency and improving automated services.
C. Through web-based interfaces for always-on connectivity.
D. Through self-service functionality for retail investors and wealth managers.
Answer: B

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NO.3 All North American based hedge funds (subject to size) are impacted by which of the following?
A. Dodd Frank
B. UCITS - Undertakings for Collective Investment in Transferable Securities
C. AIFMD - Alternative Investment Fund Managers Directive
D. Basel III
Answer: C

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Reference:http://www.risk.net/hedge-funds-review/news/ 2283386 /hedge-fund-managers-notready
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NO.4 Fund managers require a consistent rigorous standard for risk assessment that:
A. Crosses all asset classes
B. Supports stocks.
C. Supports derivative instruments.
D. Supports fixed income investments.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which one of the following will the Chief Risk Officer (CRO) care about?
A. Performance
B. Attracting new capital
C. Portfolio management
D. Meeting regulatory compliance
Answer: D

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Reference:http://searchcompliance.techtarget.com/definition/Chief-risk-officer-CRO

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QRadar over all of its competitors?
A. Broadest set of integrated capabilities and ease of deployment.
B. Deepest packet inspection, and it is frequently the lowest priced offering.
C. Runs on any platform and offers a toolkit with the greatest modularity - a real plus with technical
teams.
D. Easiest to learn customization language and search performance.
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 In the RSA breach case study, how was the attack enabled?
A. A Spear-Phishing email containing a weaponized attachment
B. A SQL injection attack on the RSA partner portal
C. A DDOS attack on the company's web servers
Answer: A

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Reference:http://www.computerweekly.com/news/1280095593 /RSA-discloses-phishingattack-data-
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NO.3 The IBM Security Network Protection (XGS) platform provides which of the following features
on top of what is provided by the IBM Security Network IPS platform?
A. Advanced Threat Protection
B. Visibility and Control
C. Application Scanning capabilities
D. Security Intelligence
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is the primary customer requirement that Access Manager for Web (formerly Access
Manager for e-business) addresses?
A. Web single sign-on.
B. Service oriented architecture application access management.
C. Hardening servers involved in e-business transactions.
D. Enterprise e-business audit log management and reporting.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Name a competitor to IBM zSecure.
A. Oracle
B. Vanguard
C. Hewlett Packard
D. Serena Software
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is a value/feature of zSecure Compliance and Auditing?
A. Real time monitoring of database activities
B. Centralized view of enterprise security incidents
C. Unified management of keys across disparate platforms
D. Addresses real time audit control points, especially network audit control points
Answer: A

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NO.7 There were 3 themes used to describe QRadar"s value. Which of those 3 themes is one that
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A. Analysis
B. Automation
C. Intelligence
D. Integration
Answer: C

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NO.8 The common architecture across the QRadar products offers advantages over the competition.
What are the main 2 advantages that were covered?
A. Opens areas of visibility into your network and scales easily.
B. QRadar is a well architected toolkit that can 1) satisfy even very obscure and complex
requirements and 2) outperform other competitors no matter what the use case.
C. QRadar works on most available platforms and is integrated with more products than other
competitive products are.
D. QRadar itself is highly secure, and because its architecture is open, it has been approved by NIST
and OASIS
Answer: A,C

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NO.1 What are the different Item Types that can be created in IBM Content Manger v8?
A. Item and Document
B. Resource and File
C. Item, Document, Resource and Document Part
D. Item, Document, Resource and File
Answer: C

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NO.2 In IBM Content Manager v8.4, the WEBi Client is available as well as the eClient. What
would
determine your choice of a client as of the Webi version 1.0.3?
A. eClient can do email
B. Client for Windows cannot do email
C. WEBi does not yet recognize advanced document routing decision making
D. eClient can recognize versions in CM
Answer: C

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NO.3 Event logging is set in the System Administration tool for: .?
A. Each itemtype part
B. All itemtypes alike
C. An itemtype
D. Worknode
Answer: C

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NO.4 Event logging is stored in:
A. A file
B. The Library Server Database
C. The Resource Manager Database
D. The Websphere Database
Answer: B

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NO.5 IBM Content Manager v8.4.1 added an important functionality. What is it?
A. Ability to call out to FileNet BPM processes
B. LDAP integration capability with Microsoft Active Directory
C. Integration with TSM DR-550 Server
D. Use of Tivoli Total Access Manager in lieu of AD
Answer: A

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Exam Code: C2070-982
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NO.1 What is the major advantage of SPSS Modeler over SAS Base and Enterprise Miner?
A. More powerful in the hands of a modeling expert.
B. Easy to use interface for business-oriented analysts.
C. Support for multiple operating systems.
D. Structured data mining capabilities.
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is the main purpose of SPSS Data Collection?
A. To gather feedback from constituents for use in advanced and predictive analytics.
B. To retrieve existing data stored from disparate sources.
C. To prepare messy data for more accurate modeling.
D. To integrate analytic results into business processes.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which SPSS product(s) are required in order to use SPSS Decision Management?
A. SPSS Collaboration and Deployment Services and SPSS Modeler
B. SPSS Statistics and SPSS Modeler
C. SPSS Collaboration and Deployment Services and SPSS Statistics
D. SPSS Modeler and SPSS Data Collection
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which two SPSS Data Collection components make up SPSS Data Entry?
A. Interviewer and Reports
B. Author and Reports
C. Author and Interviewer
D. Author and Scan
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is NOT a major competitive differentiator in the value proposition of SPSS Decision
Management?
A. Real time scoring service
B. Centralized analytical content repository
C. Publishing analytical reports
D. Web-based framework
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which SPSS product best meets the needs of a call center looking to capture feedback on
customer satisfaction?
A. SPSS Data Collection
B. SPSS Decision Management
C. SPSS Collaboration and Deployment Services
D. SPSS Statistics
Answer: A

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NO.1 A customer is looking for an effective way to connect their heterogeneous servers and storage.
Which HP storage offering would you discuss?
A. HPStoreEasy
B. HP StoreFabric
C. HP StoreOnce
D. HPStoreAII
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which customers are the best fit for selling consulting services for HPStoreOnce?
A. those who are expanding their current
B. HP solution to those who are experiencing issues in their backup environment
C. those who have a business requirement to maintain their configuration
D. those who are implementing HP 3PAR StoreServ into their environment
E. All of the above
Answer: E

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NO.3 A customer tells you that they are considering EMC instead of HP because HP StoreOnce does
not support global deduplication.
What should you tell this customer to overcome this objection?
A. Unlike EMC global deduplication, HP federated deduplication supports RAID protection through a
wide choice of RAID levels.
B. HP federated deduplication is superior to EMC global deduplication because it offers seamless
data movement across the enterprise.
C. EMC global deduplication sacrifices high availability, and risks losing access to the entire global
deduplicated data pool.
D. The EMC hash matching process works on a smaller subset of data, sacrificing efficiency.
Answer: A

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NO.4 A customer is looking for a backup solution that will help them reach their Recovery Time
Objective (RTO). Their goal is to increase their restore performance capability.
How does an HP StoreOnce solution fit into this customers RTO strategy?
A. It automatically re-hydrates data after initial deduplication.
B. It automatically re-hydrates data before initial deduplication.
C. It automatically defragments data after initial deduplication.
D. It automatically defragments data before initial deduplication.
Answer: C

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NO.5 A customer asks for an explanation of how HP 3PAR StoreServ Thin Reclamation technology
can help them manage their growing storage space consumption.
Which two features should you describe? (Select two.)
A. Management follows the same flow and process as thick reclamation, and it is possible to toggle
back and forth with one click.
B. When zeros are removed, they are not included with snapshots or copies.
C. When a snapshot, full copy, or LUN is deleted, the space is immediately available without
requiring a physical capacity format.
D. Reserving unused capacity is not necessary because it is returned to a common pool.
Answer: C,D

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NO.6 Why should a customer choose the HP SN8000B Director as the foundation of their
StoreFabric enterprise solution?
A. because they want ISL trunking at no extra cost
B. because they want an extended fabric for no extra cost
C. because they need scalability to 512 8-Gbps ports in a single-switch domain
D. because they need up to 384 16-Gb Fibre Channel ports
Answer: C

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Reference: http://h18000.www1.hp.com/products/quickspecs/12993_div/12993_div.pdf (page , san
scalability)

NO.7 A customers business requires that they De able to survive a harctware failure. They need a
backup strategy that eliminates the need to re-create backup jobs as a result of a failure.
Which two integrated HP StoreOnce solution features enable the customer's requirements to be
met? (Select two.)
A. clustered design
B. federated deduplicatjon
C. autonomic groups
D. mixed workload support
E. autonomic restart
Answer: B,E

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NO.8 What are two advantages of the HP 3PAR StoreServ controller scale-out approach compared to
an EMC core-scale-out approach? (Select two.)
A. You can dedicate each storage solution to a different purpose.
B. Performance of the data storage tier Is not adversely affected during migrations.
C. You can add capacity without requiring additional space, power, and cooling.
D. Performance drops only 25% if a controller fails.
E. You can add performance without taking the array offline.
Answer: B,C

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