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Exam Code: E10-001
Exam Name: EMC (Information Storage and Management Exam Version 2)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 200 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which EMC product provides the capability to recover data up to any point-in-time?
A. RecoverPoint
B. NetWorker
C. Avamar
D. Data Domain
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is a benefit of cloud computing over traditional computing?
A. Reduces the time to provision and deploy new applications
B. Eliminates consumer's IT operational expenditure
C. Enables the use of proprietary APIs to access IT resources
D. Lowers migration cost and prevents vendor lock-in
Answer: A

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NO.3 What describes a landing zone in a disk drive?
A. Area on which the read/write head rests
B. Area where the read/write head lands to access data
C. Area where the data is buffered before writing to platters
D. Area where sector-specific information is stored on the disk
Answer: A

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NO.4 What does the area ID of the FC address identify.?
A. Group of ports within a switch
B. An individual port within a fabric
C. Location of the name server within the fabric
D. Unique number provided to each switch in the fabric
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which operation is performed while creating a VM snapshot?
A. Create a delta file to record changes to the virtual disk since the session is activated
B. Capture the configuration data of a VM to create an identical copy of the VM
C. Create a journal volume to update changes to the snapshot
D. Create a Gold
copy of the snapshot before copying changes to the virtual disk
Answer: A

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NO.6 An organization performs copy on first access (CoFA) replication to create a local replica of application
data. To perform a successful restore, what should be considered?
A. Source devices must be healthy
B. Save location size must be larger than the size of all source devices
C. Save location size must be equal to the size of all source devices
D. All changes to the source and replica must be discarded before the restore starts
Answer: A

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NO.7 What is needed to perform a non-disruptive migration of virtual machines (VMs) between hypervisors?
A. Hypervisors must have access to the same storage volume
B. Physical machines running hypervisors must have the same configuration
C. Hypervisors must be running within the same physical machine
D. Both hypervisors must have the same IP address
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which statement describes a denial of service attack?
A. Prevents authorized users from accessing the resources and services
B. Prohibits attempts to repair the resources and services after an attack
C. Attempts to provide false information by impersonating someone s identity
D. Prevents unauthorized users to access the resources and services
Answer: A

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NO.9 What defines the time taken to position the read/write head across the platter with a radial movement
in a disk drive?
A. Seek time
B. Rotational latency
C. Data transfer time
D. Service time
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which iSCSI name requires an organization to own a registered domain name?
A. IQN
B. EUI
C. WWNN
D. WWPN
Answer: A

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NO.11 What is a characteristic of unified storage?
A. Supports multiple protocols for data access and managed through a single management interface
B. Supports a common protocol for data access and managed through a unified management interface
C. Provides compute, storage, and network virtualization products in one solution
D. Stores all data in the form of objects and managed through a unified management interface
Answer: A

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NO.12 What is a function of unified management software in cloud computing?
A. Defining cloud service attributes
B. Consolidating infrastructure resources scattered across one or more data centers
C. Metering based on usage of resources by the consumer
D. Providing an interface to consumers to request cloud services
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which cloud computing capability enables monitoring and reporting resource usage?
A. Metering
B. Pooling
C. Self-service requesting
D. Publishing
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which cache management algorithm is based on the assumption that data will not be requested by the
host when it has not been accessed for a while?
A. LRU
B. HWM
C. LWM
D. MRU
Answer: A

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NO.15 What is a key benefit of virtualization?
A. Improved resource utilization
B. Improved performance
C. Enhanced interoperability
D. Unlimited resource scaling
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which host component eliminates the need to deploy separate adapters for FC and Ethernet
communications?
A. Converged network adapter
B. TCP Offload Engine NIC
C. FCIP bridging adapter
D. iSCSI host bus adapter
Answer: A

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NO.17 What is a key security consideration when a NAS device enables sharing of the same data among
UNIX and Microsoft Windows users?
A. NAS device must map UNIX permissions to Windows and vice versa
B. NAS defines and maintains ownership to the objects
C. NIS server must separately maintain SIDs for UNIX and Windows environments
D. Object permissions are not defined in advance and assigned dynamically
Answer: A

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NO.18 What is an accurate statement about the Data Center Bridging Exchange protocol?
A. Enables Converged Enhanced Ethernet (CEE) devices to convey and configure their features with
other CEE devices
B. Creates virtual FCoE links over an existing Ethernet network to transport FC frames over virtual links
independently
C. Enables an FCoE switch to send signals to other FCoE switches that need to stop or slow down their
transmissions
D. Enables an FCoE switch to transport both TCP/IP and FC frames over a single virtual FCoE link
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which data center requirement refers to applying mechanisms that ensure data is stored and retrieved
as it was received?
A. Integrity
B. Availability
C. Security
D. Performance
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which cloud computing characteristic enables consumers to grow and shrink the demand for
resources dynamically?
A. Rapid elasticity
B. Resource pooling
C. Measured service
D. On-demand self-service
Answer: A

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Exam Code: E20-385
Exam Name: EMC (E20-385 Data Domain Specialist Exam for Implementation Engineers)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 116 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 An organization currently writes backups to an EMC Data Domain system and then creates
encrypted copies of their backups on tapes. These tapes are then shipped to a third-party offsite
vault.
They are now planning to deploy a second Data Domain system to a secure data center at their
corporate headquarters as a replication target to replace the use of the offsite tapes. The two sites
are connected through the Internet. Where should encryption be applied on the Data Domain
systems to ensure a similar level of data security as achieved by their current process?
A. Encrypt the replication context
B. Encrypt the data at rest
C. Encrypt the data at rest and the replication context
D. Encryption is not required
Answer: A

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NO.2 You are implementing an EMC Data Domain system at a location that is not staffed.
However, the customer has network connectivity to the site from the main data center.
In the event of a system crash, what can be configured to allow the customer the ability
to cycle power?
A. Serial over LAN
B. SNMP
C. IPMI
D. Replication
Answer: C

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NO.3 A customer is interested in deploying DD Boost for their current EMC Data Domain system.
They are aware of Distributed Segment Processing (DSP) and want to know the data flow when they
enable DSP . What describes the data flow from the backup host to the Data Domain system?
A. Segmenting, fingerprinting, and compression occur on the backup host. Fingerprint filtering and
writes occur on the Data Domain.
B. Segmenting, fingerprinting, and fingerprint filtering occur on the backup host. Compression and
writes occur on the Data Domain.
C. Fingerprinting, compression, and fingerprint filtering occur on the backup host. Segmenting and
writes occur on the Data Domain.
D. Segmenting, fingerprinting, fingerprint filtering, and compression occur on the backup host.
Writes occur on the Data Domain.
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is indicated by a flashing green SAS state LED on an EMC Data Domain ES20 SAS
controller?
A.Connection problem
B.Connection established
C. RAID reconstruction in progress
D.Connection in process
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which cabling path is used to connect an existing EMC Data Doman ES20 expansion shelf to a
new ES20 shelf?
A. Existing Expansion Shelf EXP'N port => New Expansion Shelf HOST port
B. Existing Expansion Shelf HOST port => New Expansion Shelf EXP'N port
C. Existing Expansion Shelf HOST port => New Expansion Shelf HOST port
D. Existing Expansion Shelf EXP'N port => New Expansion Shelf EXP'N port
Answer: A

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NO.6 What is a component of the EMC Data Domain Data Invulnerability Architecture that protects
against data loss?
A.File system recoverability
B. Summary vector identification
C. System sanitization
D.Segment locality processing
Answer: A

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NO.7 You have implemented an EMC Data Domain system with directory replication. After
replication has occurred, the customer notices that the space utilization on the source and
destination systems is different. How can this be explained?
A.Difference in global compression
B. Difference in the encryption algorithm
C. CIFS/NFS is mixed on the same directory
D. Destination directory may be corrupted
Answer: A

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NO.8 When connecting EMC Data Domain expansion shelves, what should be done to avoid cable
stress at the solder joints of the connector?
A. Keep the ambient temperature at an acceptable level
B. Use screw lock assemblies
C. Leave enough cable to allow for free air flow
D. Secure the cable to the rack door
Answer: B

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NO.9 An organization currently writes backups to an EMC Data Domain system and then creates
encrypted copies of their backups on tapes. These tapes are then shipped to a third-party offsite
vault.They are now planning to deploy a second Data Domain system in a hosted disaster recovery
site as a replication target. This will replace the use of the offsite tapes. The two sites are connected
through an encrypted WAN link. Where should encryption be applied on the Data Domain systems
to ensure a similar level of data security as their current process?
A.Use encryption of data in flight to the hosted disaster recovery site
B.Enable encryption of data at rest at the disaster recovery site
C.Enable encryption of data at rest at the source site
D. WAN link between the sites is already encrypted
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which method of deduplication yields better deduplication results for multiple data types?
A. Variable segment size deduplication due to its ability to add data to a variable segment and move
the data stream.
B. Fixed segment size deduplication due to its ability to add data to a fixed segment without having
to move the data stream.
C. Fixed segment size deduplication due to its ability to add data to a fixed segment and move the
data stream.
D. Variable segment size deduplication due to its ability to add data to a variable segment without
having to move the data stream.
Answer: D,A

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Exam Code: 212-77
Exam Name: EC-COUNCIL (Linux Security )
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 50 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which of the following is true of Linux passwords?
A. They are changed with the password utility.
B. They must be changed once a month.
C. They may consist only of lowercase letters and numbers.
D. They may be changed by the user who owns an account or by root.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following is not a Linux DHCP client?
A. dhcpcd
B. pump
C. dhcpd
D. dhclient
Answer: A

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NO.3 You are told by a co-worker that information pertaining to the syslog command can
be found in man page 3. How would you view this information?
A. man syslog 3
B. man 3 syslog
C. man syslog -3
D. man -3 syslog
Answer: B

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NO.4 Under the bash shell which is the most appropriate place to set environment
variables that apply to all users?
A. /etc/skel
B. rc.sysinit
C. /etc/profile
D. /etc/bashrc
E. rc.local
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following are ways to disable dynamic routing?
A. The linuxconf Gated Daemon screen
B. The linuxconf Routed Daemon screen
C. echo "0" > /proc/sys/net/ipv4/dynamic_routing
D. Editing /etc/sysconfig/network-scripts
Answer: B

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NO.6 Assume that you have just logged on as a regular user. Which of the following
commands allows you to edit the file with user passwords associated with the
Shadow Password Suite?
A. vi /etc/shadow
B. sudo -c "vi /etc/shadow"
C. su -c "vi /etc/shadow"
D. visu vi /etc/passwd
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following measures is the most effective way to prevent attacks
through various network services?
A. Disable a service in the appropriate /etc/xinetd.d configuration file.
B. Use a firewall to drop all requests to unneeded services.
C. Block service requests with the appropriate commands in /etc/hosts.deny.
D. Uninstall unneeded network services.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following are risks of SUID and SGID programs? (Choose two)
A. Bugs in the programs may cause more damage than they would in ordinary programs.
B. The program files are large and thus may cause a disk to run out of space.
C. Because the programs require password entry, running them over an insecure network
link runs the risk of password interception.
D. Users may be able to abuse a program's features, thus doing more damage than would
otherwise be possible.
Answer: B, D

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NO.9 How should you engage users in helping to secure your computer's passwords?
A. Educate them about the importance of security, the means of choosing good
passwords, and the ways crackers can obtain passwords.
B. Instruct your users to e-mail copies of their passwords to themselves on other systems
so that they're readily available in case of an emergency.
C. Enforce password change rules but don't tell users how crackers obtain passwords
since you could be educating a future cracker.
D. Give some of your users copies of the encrypted database file as backup in case a
cracker breaks in and corrupts the original.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following statements applies to the IP address 192.168.0.1?
A. It is reserved.
B. It cannot be assigned to a host that accesses the Internet.
C. It is designated for multicast transmission.
D. It can be freely assigned to a host on a private network
Answer: A

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Exam Code: EC1-349
Exam Name: EC-COUNCIL (Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator Exam)
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Total Q&A: 180 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 WPA2 provides enterprise and Wi-Fi users with stronger data protection and network access
control which of the following encryption algorithm is used DVWPA2?
A. RC4-CCMP
B. RC4-TKIP
C. AES-CCMP
D. AES-TKIP
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following is not a part of the technical specification of the laboratory-based
imaging
system?
A. High performance workstation PC
B. Remote preview and imaging pod
C. Anti-repudiation techniques
D. very low image capture rate
Answer: D

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NO.3 When dealing with the powered-off computers at the crime scene, if the computer is switched
off,
turn it on
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.4 Computer forensics report provides detailed information on complete computer forensics
investigation process. It should explain how the incident occurred, provide technical details of the
incident and should be clear to understand. Which of the following attributes of a forensics report
can render it inadmissible in a court of law?
A. It includes metadata about the incident
B. It includes relevant extracts referred to In the report that support analysis or conclusions
C. It is based on logical assumptions about the incident timeline
D. It maintains a single document style throughout the text
Answer: C

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NO.5 Email archiving is a systematic approach to save and protect the data contained in emails so
that
it can tie easily accessed at a later date.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.6 During the seizure of digital evidence, the suspect can be allowed touch the computer
system.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.7 Smith, as a part his forensic investigation assignment, has seized a mobile device. He was
asked
to recover the Subscriber Identity Module (SIM card) data the mobile device. Smith found that the
SIM was protected by a Personal identification Number (PIN) code but he was also aware that
people generally leave the PIN numbers to the defaults or use easily guessable numbers such as
1234. He unsuccessfully tried three PIN numbers that blocked the SIM card. What Jason can do in
this scenario to reset the PIN and access SIM data?
A. He should contact the device manufacturer for a Temporary Unlock Code (TUK) to gain access
to the SIM
B. He cannot access the SIM data in this scenario as the network operators or device
manufacturers have no idea about a device PIN
C. He should again attempt PIN guesses after a time of 24 hours
D. He should ask the network operator for Personal Unlock Number (PUK) to gain access to the
SIM
Answer: D

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NO.8 Files stored in the Recycle Bin in its physical location are renamed as Dxy.ext, where, “X”
represents the _________.
A. Drive name
B. Sequential number
C. Original file name's extension
D. Original file name
Answer: A

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NO.9 Data acquisition system is a combination of tools or processes used to gather, analyze and
record
Information about some phenomenon. Different data acquisition system are used depends on the
location, speed, cost. etc. Serial communication data acquisition system is used when the actual
location of the data is at some distance from the computer. Which of the following communication
standard is used in serial communication data acquisition system?
A. RS422
B. RS423
C. RS232
D. RS231
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following email headers specifies an address for mailer-generated errors, like "no
such user" bounce messages, to go to (instead of the sender's address)?
A. Errors-To header
B. Content-Transfer-Encoding header
C. Mime-Version header
D. Content-Type header
Answer: A

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Exam Code: PW0-250
Exam Name: CWNP (Certified Wireless Design Professional (CWDP) )
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Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Your customer location is equipped with DAS, originally deployed to relay a GSM signal indoors and
provide 802.11 data coverage to static stations. What type of wireless application would be least likely to
be supported by this RF distribution model?
A. On-demand video streaming over wireless
B. Data connection with frequent roaming
C. Location-based services for wireless assets or RFID tags
D. VoWLAN if the codec is G.729.
E. FTP over implicit TLS/SSL
Answer: C

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NO.2 According to WLAN security design best practices, what is true of the EAP properties shown in the
exhibit?
A. The Validate server certificate
checkbox should be checked if you purchased a third-party SSL
certificate for the AS, but left unchecked if you have a self-signed certificate for the AS.
B. The Validate server certificate
checkbox should always be checked to prevent MITM attacks from
rogue authentication servers.
C. The Trusted Root Certification Authorities
list is provided to identify the certificate that the client
should send to the AS for client authentication.
D. The Do not prompt user to authorize new servers or trusted certification authorities
box should be
checked only for administrative users.
E. The Enable Identity Privacy
checkbox and anonymous name field are only useful for networks
supporting EAP-LEAP.
Answer: B

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NO.3 One of your customers plans on providing wireless coverage to a warehouse facility. After performing an
initial walkthrough, you collect the following information:
-The central part of the warehouse is between 400 and 600 feet (122 to 183 meters) from the warehouse
switches mounted on the walls.
-The warehouse map was provided by the customer and is displayed in the exhibit.
-The warehouse storage is composed of metallic racks with varying inventory levels and contents, from
electronics and plastic toys to food pallets and juice bottles.
-Workers need basic data coverage from their working location, and are not highly mobile. They usually
work from one single aisle, and their laptop is on a cart with wheels.
What would be your recommendation to provide coverage to the central area (indicated by a blue circle)
of the warehouse?
A. Equip workers laptops with a directional antenna and install APs less than 328 feet (100m) away from
the switch.
B. In this case, extend the cable length just beyond 328 feet (100 m) and position APs as close as
possible to the central area of the warehouse.
C. Position APs along the walls, and equip the APs with Yagi antennas to cover the central area.
D. Install APs for client access in the central area and use a mesh backhaul link to connect to the DS.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which definition correctly describes the local MAC
variation of the centralized WLAN architecture?
A. All MAC functions are performed by the AP. A minimal subset of network control is offloaded to the
WLAN controller along with management and monitoring functions.
B. PHY functions are performed directly by the AP. MAC functions are divided almost equally between the
WLAN controller and the AP, according to the time sensitivity of the feature or service.
C. The AP provides the RF termination point for the WLAN, but performs very few of the WLAN functions
or services. The WLAN controller performs all MAC functions and the AP is very simple and lightweight.
D. All RF-, data-, and control-related WLAN functions are performed by the AP. APs coordinate network
services with one another and are managed by a WNMS, so no WLAN controller is used in this
architecture.
Answer: A

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NO.5 In a manufacturing facility with highly reflective materials, you are planning an upgrade to your existing
802.11b solution. You have chosen a dual-band 802.11n infrastructure product for this purpose. Your
client applications include:
Handheld scanners
for inventory management
Toughbooks (laptops)
mounted on forklifts for inventory and workflow management
VoWiFi phones
used by select employees throughout the facility You are evaluating all of the 802.11n
enhancements and determining which features to enable for your environment and applications.
In this scenario, what 802.11n enhancements should NOT be enabled on the 2.4 GHz radio of the new
APs? (Choose 2)
A. 40 MHz channels
B. Short guard intervals
C. Block Acknowledgments
D. Frame aggregation
E. MRC
F. STBC
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 Given: Use Exhibit 1, 2, and 3 to answer the question.
The azimuth and elevation charts for which type of antenna are shown in Exhibit 1?
A. Figure 1
B. Figure 2
C. Figure 3
D. Figure 4
E. Figure 5
F. Figure 6
Answer: C

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NO.7 In a centralized WLAN architecture, what new problem may arise when you change the data forwarding
model from centralized to distributed? (Choose 2)
A. APs that were designed for a centralized forwarding model may not support all features in distributed
forwarding mode.
B. The Ethernet switch ports to which APs are connected may need to be reconfigured to support VLAN
tagging and QoS at the network edge.
C. All RRM controls will also need to be distributed to a master AP that acts as a channel and transmit
power arbiter for other APs in the ESS.
D. Centralized control functions, such as key management and distribution, RRM, and load balancing will
no longer be supported.
E. APs will not have the processing capabilities to support AES-CCMP, so TKIP will be the recommended
encryption method.
Answer: A,B

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NO.8 When deploying long-distance 802.11 bridge links (10 miles / 16 km), what parameter may be critical for
improving data flow by reducing retries caused by the long distances.?
A. The sequence control field value
B. The acknowledgement timeout threshold
C. The minimum transmit data rate value
D. The CTS-to-self threshold
E. The Beacon interval
F. The PHY parameter set field
Answer: B

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NO.9 When a WLAN controller transmits an Ethernet frame that has an IEEE 802.11 frame as its payload to a
lightweight AP, what type of QoS marks can be applied to the Ethernet frame and/or its payload? (Choose
3)
A. IEEE 802.1Q PCP marks in the Ethernet frame header
B. User Priority marks in the IEEE 802.11 frame header
C. Throughput subscription marks in the Ethernet frame header
D. MPLS tags from the Label Edge Router (LER)
E. DSCP marks to the ToS bits in the encapsulating IP packet header
F. RSVP tag if RTP is the payload of the IEEE 802.11 frame
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.10 After surveying for the ideal mounting locations for APs, you have been asked to compromise RF
propagation optimization due to aesthetic concerns raised by your customer. In the end, you ve decided to
mount the APs in the ideal locations and paint the APs so they go unnoticed in the environment.
What is a valid recommendation or consideration when painting APs? (Choose 2)
A. Always use paints with metallic dye in them to prevent potential RF propagation impact.
B. Do not paint the notification LEDs on the AP, but configure them to be dim or turned off altogether until
troubleshooting is required.
C. Painting APs may void the product manufacturer s warranty.
D. Most AP models for indoor environments come in a variety of form factors and colors. Painting is never
recommended.
E. Painting APs always introduces a fire and gas emissions hazard and should be avoided for all indoor
APs.
Answer: B,C

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Exam Code: IK0-002
Exam Name: CompTIA (I-NET+ CERTIFICATION)
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NO.1 What is the default port for Telnet?
A. 21
B. 23
C. 25
D. 80
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is the default port for HTTP?
A. 21
B. 25
C. 80
D. 110
Answer: C

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NO.3 What TCP/IP protocol can be used for directory access?
A. LDAP
B. HTTP
C. FTP
D. NNTP
Answer: A

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NO.4 When a system is sent ICMP echo requests repeatedly, it is a
A. PING attack
B. SYN attack
C. SPOOFING
D. Telnet attack
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which device cannot be infected with a virus?
A. Router
B. Hub
C. Gateway D. NIC
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which supports animation of graphics on web?
A. GIF87A
B. GIF89A
C. jpeg
D. png
Answer: B

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NO.7 You have a Remote access server (RAS) used by your colleagues working at home. You are
concerned about the security. What should you do to have a better security measure?
A. Installing firewall
B. Change password
C. Use SSL for the connection
D. Enable call back
Answer: D

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NO.8 What uses vector graphics to display web images?
A. Flash
B. Shockwave
C. Real Media D. QuickTime VR
Answer: A

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NO.9 When a new idea is being considered for adoption regarding the Internet, it is first posted as an:
A. FAQ
B. RFC
C. PDP
D. PDF
Answer: B

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NO.10 Within a DNS record where can you find the name of the administrator.
A. PTR
B. SOA
C. CNAME
D. MX
Answer: B

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NO.11 What is the default port for FTP?
A. 21
B. 25
C. 80
D. 110
Answer: A

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NO.12 What do you need on your e-commerce system to process credit card transactions?
A. Online catalog
B. Virtual shopping carts/Checkouts
C. Merchant system
D. Intranet
Answer: C

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NO.13 What network device enables you to communicate with other systems using different protocol?
A. Router
B. Hub
C. Bridge
D. Gateway
Answer: D

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NO.14 What are the best types of documents to distribute using Electronic Data Interchange (EDI)?
A. Memos
B. Orders and invoices
C. Reports
Answer: B

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NO.15 Your company has heterogeneous systems (different operating systems/machines). You want to have
a better security and you want your company to issue certificates for user communication. What server
should you implement?
A. Directory server
B. Certificate server C. Authentication server
D. Telnet server
Answer: B

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NO.16 Web graphics 40mm x 60mm. Which format do you load to achieve the fastest download when user
browses?
A. 72dpi
B. 98dpi
C. 100dpi
D. 300dpi
Answer: A

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NO.17 Your company has connection with the business partners. What is it called?
A. Intranet
B. Extranet
C. Internet
D. Private network
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which command matches IP address to MAC address?
A. arp
B. ipconfig
C. winipcfg
D. nbtstat
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which executes on server side?
A. CGI
B. C++
C. JavaScript
D. VBG
Answer: A

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NO.20 How many 64 Kbps channels are in a ISDN?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 8
D. 12
Answer: B

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NO.21 Which is not a required HTML Tag?
A. <TEXTAREA>
B. <Body>
C. <Head>
D. <HTML>
Answer: A

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NO.22 What is the default port for SMTP?
A. 21
B. 25
C. 80
D. 110
Answer: B

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NO.23 Which command checks the current open TCP/IP connections?
A. netstat
B. Ping
C. ipconfig
D. winipcfg
Answer: A

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NO.24 What TCP/IP utility is used to see current contents of a packet on your computer?
A. tracert
B. protocol analyzer
C. ping
D. ipconfig
Answer: B

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NO.25 Which DNS record tells you mail servers?
A. PTR
B. RP
C. CNAME
D. MX
Answer: D

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NO.26 What do you call the first DNS server?
A. First
B. Master
C. Slave
D. Primary
Answer: D

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NO.27 Which one has speeds off 51.84Mbps?
A. T1
B. T3
C. OC1
D. OC3
Answer: C

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NO.28 Which supports encryption?
A. UDP
B. TCP
C. PPP
D. SLIP
Answer: C

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NO.29 How are cookies stored?
A. Unencrypted text file on client
B. Unencrypted text file on server
C. Encrypted text file on client
D. Encrypted text file on server
Answer: A

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NO.30 What UART chip is needed to provide a modem connection of 115200 bps?
A. 85.xx
B. 65.xx
C. 100.xx
D. 165.xx
Answer: D

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NO.1 Which of the following functions can be performed by using the msconfig command?
A. Update the product key information for the Microsoft OS.
B. Prevent specific programs from beginning at the system startup.
C. Find specific information about the system hardware configuration.
D. Configure the boot order of the system hardware devices.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following protocols is used to retrieve email?
A. SFTP
B. FTP
C. SMTP
D. POP3
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following will BEST conserve resources and prolong equipment life?
A. Firmware updates
B. Power Management
C. Disk Defragmenter
D. Clean with a lint-free cloth
Answer: B

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NO.4 On Windows 7, which of the following paths allows a user to configure a fingerprint reader?
A. Start > Settings > Device Manager > Biometric Devices
B. Start > Computer > Devices > Biometric Devices
C. Start > Settings > Control Panel > Biometric Devices
D. Start > Programs > System Settings > Biometric Devices
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following is the MOST effective means for a technician to prevent ESD damage when
installing RAM?
A. Touching grounded metal before contacting components
B. Ensuring the AC plug has a ground post
C. Wearing a grounded wristband
D. Wearing rubber-soled shoes
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following is the MAXIMUM number of devices connected per IEEE 1394 controller?
A. 4
B. 63
C. 64
D. 128
Answer: B

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NO.7 A technician has completed upgrading a computer from Windows Vista to Windows 7. According to the
system and video drivers need to be upgraded. Which of the following is BEST source for theses drivers?
A. The Microsoft Windows 7 website
B. The manufacturer ¯ s w ebs it e
C. The windows Hardware Compatibility List
D. The drivers that came in the original Windows Vista Installation CD
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following types of software protection will help mitigate any threats coming from worm and
Trojans?
A. Spam Blocker
B. Antivirus
C. Anti Spyware
D. Anti Adware
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following is LAST step of troubleshooting theory?
A. Establish a plan of action to restore the problem and implement the solution.
B. Verify full system functionality and if applicable implement preventative measures.
C. Document findings, actions, and outcomes.
D. Question the user and identify user charges.
Answer: C

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NO.10 A laptop with an external USB hard drive and an external monitor is not booting from the internal
hardware drive. Power has been verified and the battery is fully charged. But the laptop appears to be
stopping after POST. Which of the following will help troubleshoot the cause of problem?
A. Format the external USB hare drive.
B. Turn off the external monitor
C. Disconnect the external monitor
D. Remove and reset the laptop battery
Answer: C

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NO.11 An end user is having problems printing from an application. The technician attempts to send a test
page to printer. Which of the following BEST explains the reason the technician used a test page to
trouble shoot the issue.?
A. It clears the print queue and resets the printer memory.
B. It allows the technician to see the quality of the printer output.
C. The output of the test page allows the technician to initiate diagnostic routines on the printer.
D. It verifies connectivity and eliminates possible application problems.
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which of the following processor types is manufactured by AMD?
A. Celeron
B. Athlon
C. Pentium
D. Core 2 Quad
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which of the following describes keeping the desk area free of trip hazards such as loose cables?
A. Network interface
B. Client Configuration
C. Cable management
D. Personal Area Network (PAN)
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which of the following Network cables would a technician find on RJ-45 connector?
A. UTP
B. Coaxial
C. USB
D. Fiber
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which of the following printer types requires the use of toner?
A. Impact
B. Inkjet
C. Laser
D. Thermal
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which of the following would a technician use to install a manufacturer ¯ s i m age on a no t ebook? ( Se l ec t
two)
A. Recovery CD
B. System Restore Utility
C. Access a recent data backup
D. Utilize a Recovery Agent feature
E. Factory recover partition
Answer: A,B

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NO.17 A technician is installing a program on a Windows Vista computer and the installation fails. Which of
the following is NEXT step?
A. Reinstall Windows XP on the computer.
B. Contact the program ¯ s m anu f ac t u r e r.
C. Run the installer as an administrator.
D. Upgrade to Windows 7
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which of the following ports does an impact printer use?
A. Wi
Fi
B. PS/2
C. USB
D. LPT
Answer: D

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NO.19 A user made a change to their windows XP system that caused problems. The technician wants to
restore the system on previous state. The technician cannot find the previous restore point. Which of the
following is problem?
A. The technician is not in administrator mode.
B. System restore is turned off.
C. System 32 folder has been removed.
D. System restore is not supported on the OS version.
Answer: B

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NO.20 A computer in a warehouse experiences hardware faults and often requires replacement of power
supplies, CPUs and CD ROM drives. Which of the following tools will help prevent the hardware faults?
A. Anti-static wrist straps
B. Compressed air
C. Anti-static wipes
D. Operating system rescue disk
Answer: B

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NO.1 Which of the following devices allows television signals to be received by a computer?
A. Sound card
B. Webcam
C. Tuner card
D. Video card
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following PC components has an air filter?
A. Processor
B. LAN Card
C. RAM
D. HDD
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following is an interface that is used to connect a hard disk drive to a computer?
A. MCA
B. IDE
C. PCI
D. AT
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following terms refers to printing on both sides of the paper?
A. Duplex printing
B. Simplex printing
C. Dual printing
D. Multiplex-printing
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following is known as Memory Controller Hub?
A. North bridge
B. South bridge
C. Address bus
D. CPU
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following types of formatting can only be done by the manufacturer?
A. Quick formatting
B. High-level formatting
C. Low-level formatting
D. Initial-level formatting
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following components of a laptop is NOT upgradeable?
A. RAM
B. NIC
C. Hard disk
D. Motherboard
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following is NOT an expansion slot?
A. MCA
B. EISA
C. PCI
D. USB
Answer: D

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NO.9 How many keys does a computer keyboard have?
A. 85
B. 112
C. 104
D. 64
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following is NOT a parallel port mode?
A. EPP/ECP
B. ECP
C. EPS
D. EPP
Answer: C

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NO.11 What amount of data can a sector hold?
A. 1000 bytes
B. 512 bytes
C. 625 bytes
D. 1024 bytes
Answer: B

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NO.12 Identify whether the statement given below is true of false.
"A Secure Digital (SD) card is slightly thicker than a MultiMedia Card (MMC)."
A. False
B. True
Answer: B

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NO.13 How many colors you can have in a 24-bit color system?
A. 65,536
B. 24,000,000
C. 16,777,216
D. 36,733,216
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which of the following is NOT an analog display standard?
A. VGA
B. DVI
C. CGA
D. SVGA
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which of the following is NOT an expansion slot?
A. EISA
B. AGP
C. PCIe
D. USB
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which of the following key combinations is used to open the Start menu?
A. Ctrl+z
B. Ctrl+r
C. Ctrl+Alt+z
D. Ctrl+Esc
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which of the following is a pointing device offered in laptops?
A. Mouse
B. Cursor
C. Touch pad
D. Keyboard
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which of the following is not measured by the digital pocket multimeter?
A. Cable continuity
B. Bad sectors on hard disk
C. Power connectors' voltage
D. Power supply voltage
Answer: B

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NO.19 What is the maximum data transfer rate supported by IEEE 1394b port?
A. 256 Kbps
B. 800 Mbps
C. 256 Mbps
D. 400 Mbps
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which of the following is the process of bypassing the CPU?
A. Caching
B. DMA
C. Spoofing
D. Spooling
Answer: B

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NO.21 Which of the following devices uses charge-coupled device (CCD)?
A. Touch screen
B. Printer
C. Touchpad D. Image Scanner
Answer: D

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NO.22 Which of the following PC components has an air filter?
A. RAM
B. HDD
C. CD-ROM
D. CPU
Answer: B

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NO.23 Which of the following devices is incorporated into many devices ranging from PDAs to mobile
phones?
A. Digital camera
B. Printer
C. Scanner
D. Bar code reader
Answer: A

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NO.24 Which of the following uses hard disk drive space to provide extra memory for a computer?
A. File system
B. RAM
C. Virtual memory
D. Cluster
Answer: C

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NO.25 Which of the following software is stored in a computer's read-only memory (ROM) and remains stored
in it regardless of whether it is on or off?
A. Shareware
B. Firmware
C. Freeware
D. Adware
Answer: B

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NO.26 How many read/write heads does a hard disk drive have for each platter surface?
A. 16
B. 1
C. 4
D. 2
Answer: B

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NO.27 Which of the following is a video capture device connected to a computer or computer network?
A. Web camera
B. USB optical drive
C. Camcorder
D. Digital camera
Answer: A

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NO.28 Which of the following ports uses a 9-pin interface?
A. USB
B. SCSI
C. 1394b
D. Serial
Answer: C

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NO.29 Which of the following ports uses a 6-pin interface?
A. 1394a
B. Parallel
C. Serial
D. 1394b
Answer: A

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NO.30 Which of the following expansion buses is used in Laptops?
A. PCI
B. PCMCIA
C. MCA
D. ISA
Answer: B

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